Search Results

Search found 1915 results on 77 pages for 'identical'.

Page 59/77 | < Previous Page | 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66  | Next Page >

• HTML Form HIdden Fields added with Javascript not POSTing

  - by dscher

  I have a form where the user can enter a link, click the "add link" button, and that link is then(via jQuery) added to the form as a hidden field. The problem is it's not POSTing when I submit the form. It's really starting to confound me. The thing is that if I hardcode a hidden field into the form, it is posted, but my function isn't working for some reason. The hidden field DOES get added to my form as I can see with Firebug but it's just not being sent with the POST data. Just to note, I'm using an array in Javascript to hold the elements until the form is submitted which also posts them visibly for the user to see what they've added. I'm using [] notation on the "name" field of the element because I want the links to feed into an array in PHP. Here is the link creation which is being appended to my form: function make_hidden_element_tag(item_type, item_content, item_id) { return '<input type="hidden" name="' + item_type + '[]" id="hidden_link_' + item_id + '" value="' + item_content + '"/>'; Does anyone have an idea why this might not be posting. As stated above, any hard-coded tags that are nearly identical to the above works fine, it's just that this tag isn't working. Here is how I'm adding the tag to the form with jQUery: $('#link_td').append( make_hidden_element_tag('links', link, link_array.length - 1)); I'm using the Kohana 3 framework, although I'm not sure that has any bearing on this because it's not really doing anything from the time the HTML is added to the page and the submit button is pressed.

  Read the article

• Reflecting over classes in .NET produces methods only differing by a modifier

  - by mrjoltcola

  I'm a bit boggled by something, I hope the CLR gearheads can help. Apparently my gears aren't big enough. I have a reflector utility that generates assembly stubs for Cola for .NET, and I find classes have methods that only differ by a modifier, such as virtual. Example below, from Oracle.DataAccess.dll, method GetType(): class OracleTypeException : System.SystemException { virtual string ToString (); virtual System.Exception GetBaseException (); virtual void set_Source (string value); virtual void GetObjectData (System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationInfo info, System.Runtime.Serialization.StreamingContext context); virtual System.Type GetType (); // here virtual bool Equals (object obj); virtual int32 GetHashCode (); System.Type GetType (); // and here } What is this? I have not been able to reproduce this with C# and it causes trouble for Cola as it thinks GetType() is a redefinition, since the signature is identical. My method reflector starts like this: static void DisplayMethod(MethodInfo m) { if ( // Filter out things Cola cannot yet import, like generics, pointers, etc. m.IsGenericMethodDefinition || m.ContainsGenericParameters || m.ReturnType.IsGenericType || !m.ReturnType.IsPublic || m.ReturnType.IsArray || m.ReturnType.IsPointer || m.ReturnType.IsByRef || m.ReturnType.IsPointer || m.ReturnType.IsMarshalByRef || m.ReturnType.IsImport ) return; // generate stub signature // [snipped] }

  Read the article

• Technical choices in unmarshaling hash-consed data

  - by Pascal Cuoq

  There seems to be quite a bit of folklore knowledge floating about in restricted circles about the pitfalls of hash-consing combined with marshaling-unmarshaling of data. I am looking for citable references to these tidbits. For instance, someone once pointed me to library aterm and mentioned that the authors had clearly thought about this and that the representation on disk was bottom-up (children of a node come before the node itself in the data stream). This is indeed the right way to do things when you need to re-share each node (with a possible identical node already in memory). This re-sharing pass needs to be done bottom-up, so the unmarshaling itself might as well be, too, so that it's possible to do everything in a single pass. I am in the process of describing difficulties encountered in our own context, and the solutions we found. I would appreciate any citable reference to the kind of aforementioned folklore knowledge. Some people obviously have encountered the problems before (the aterm library is only one example). But I didn't find anything in writing. Even the little piece of information I have about aterm is hear-say. I am not worried it's not reliable (you can't make this up), but "personal communication" and "look how it's done in the source code" are considered poor form in citations. I have enough references on hash-consing alone. I am only interested in references where it interferes with other aspects of programming, such as marshaling or distribution.

  Read the article

• [jQuery 1.4] move one div over another

  - by Tomasz Zielinski

  I have two div elements that are twins (i.e. their dimensions and contents are identical). I want to move of those div-s over another, so that their corners are at exactly the same coordinates. What I try to do is: var offset = $('div#placeholder').offset(); $('div#overlay').css('position', 'absolute').css('left', offset.left + 'px').css('top', offset.top + 'px') -- but this causes the overlay to be exactly (or almost exactly, taking subpixel accuracy into account) 16px below the placeholder (below, i.e. overlay_top = placeholder_top + 16px). I'm aware that offset() gives position relative to the document, and position: absolute sets position relative to body element, but compensating for body offset() doesn't help much (I'm getting 8px offset, equal to margins): offset.top -= $('body').offset().top; offset.left -= $('body').offset().left; Also, compensating for body margins (in case they were different that offset() didn't help, as they were set to 8px). Does somebody know what I'm doing wrong here? UPDATE: Take a look at here - I'm getting the same result in FireFox 3.6.3 and Opera 10.10.

  Read the article

• Why do compiled Haskell libraries see invalid static FFI storage?

  - by John Millikin

  I am using GHC 6.12.1, in Ubuntu 10.04 When I try to use the FFI syntax for static storage, only modules running in interpreted mode (ie GHCI) work properly. Compiled modules have invalid pointers, and do not work. I'd like to know whether anybody can reproduce the problem, whether this an error in my code or GHC, and (if the latter) whether it's a known issue. Given the following three modules: -- A.hs {-# LANGUAGE ForeignFunctionInterface #-} module A where import Foreign import Foreign.C foreign import ccall "&sys_siglist" siglist_a :: Ptr CString -- -- B.hs {-# LANGUAGE ForeignFunctionInterface #-} module B where import Foreign import Foreign.C foreign import ccall "&sys_siglist" siglist_b :: Ptr CString -- -- Main.hs {-# LANGUAGE ForeignFunctionInterface #-} module Main where import Foreign import Foreign.C import A import B foreign import ccall "&sys_siglist" siglist_main :: Ptr CString main = do putStrLn $ "siglist_a = " ++ show siglist_a putStrLn $ "siglist_b = " ++ show siglist_b putStrLn $ "siglist_main = " ++ show siglist_main peekSiglist "a " siglist_a peekSiglist "b " siglist_b peekSiglist "main" siglist_main peekSiglist name siglist = do ptr <- peekElemOff siglist 2 str <- maybePeek peekCString ptr putStrLn $ "siglist_" ++ name ++ "[2] = " ++ show str I would expect something like this output, where all pointer values identical and valid: $ runhaskell Main.hs siglist_a = 0x00007f53a948fe00 siglist_b = 0x00007f53a948fe00 siglist_main = 0x00007f53a948fe00 siglist_a [2] = Just "Interrupt" siglist_b [2] = Just "Interrupt" siglist_main[2] = Just "Interrupt" However, if I compile A.hs (with ghc -c A.hs), then the output changes to: $ runhaskell Main.hs siglist_a = 0x0000000040378918 siglist_b = 0x00007fe7c029ce00 siglist_main = 0x00007fe7c029ce00 siglist_a [2] = Nothing siglist_b [2] = Just "Interrupt" siglist_main[2] = Just "Interrupt"

  Read the article

• Multiple remote_form_for on the same page causes duplicate ids

  - by Ben Scheirman

  I've got a rails app that displays a list of items called modules. I'm iterating over these, rendering a partial for each one that includes a remote_form_for call. This all works, but fails HTML validation because my form text fields all have the same id. Is there a :prefix option on the form (or something else) I can use to get around this? Update: (some code) //_module_form.html.erb <% remote_form_for app_module do |f| %> <%= f.label :name %> <%= f.text_field :name %> <%= submit_tag 'Save' %> <%end %> //parent page <% @thing.modules.each do |app_module| %> <%= render :partial => "module_form", :locals => { :app_module => app_module } %> <% end %> So if I have more than 1 item in the collection, I render the identical form on the same page, and the form id and textbox id are duplicated. I can customize the form id pretty easily, but what about the text_box, since the controller is looking for specific named controls?

  Read the article

• Bilinear interpolation - DirectX vs. GDI+

  - by holtavolt

  I have a C# app for which I've written GDI+ code that uses Bitmap/TextureBrush rendering to present 2D images, which can have various image processing functions applied. This code is a new path in an application that mimics existing DX9 code, and they share a common library to perform all vector and matrix (e.g. ViewToWorld/WorldToView) operations. My test bed consists of DX9 output images that I compare against the output of the new GDI+ code. A simple test case that renders to a viewport that matches the Bitmap dimensions (i.e. no zoom or pan) does match pixel-perfect (no binary diff) - but as soon as the image is zoomed up (magnified), I get very minor differences in 5-10% of the pixels. The magnitude of the difference is 1 (occasionally 2)/256. I suspect this is due to interpolation differences. Question: For a DX9 ortho projection (and identity world space), with a camera perpendicular and centered on a textured quad, is it reasonable to expect DirectX.Direct3D.TextureFilter.Linear to generate identical output to a GDI+ TextureBrush filled rectangle/polygon when using the System.Drawing.Drawing2D.InterpolationMode.Bilinear setting? For this (magnification) case, the DX9 code is using this (MinFilter,MipFilter set similarly): Device.SetSamplerState(0, SamplerStageStates.MagFilter, (int)TextureFilter.Linear); and the GDI+ path is using: g.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.Bilinear; I thought that "Bilinear Interpolation" was a fairly specific filter definition, but then I noticed that there is another option in GDI+ for "HighQualityBilinear" (which I've tried, with no difference - which makes sense given the description of "added prefiltering for shrinking") Followup Question: Is it reasonable to expect pixel-perfect output matching between DirectX and GDI+ (assuming all external coordinates passed in are equal)? If not, why not? Finally, there are a number of other APIs I could be using (Direct2D, WPF, GDI, etc.) - and this question generally applies to comparing the output of "equivalent" bilinear interpolated output images across any two of these. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Should I use two queries, or is there a way to JOIN this in MySQL/PHP?

  - by Jack W-H

  Morning y'all! Basically, I'm using a table to store my main data - called 'Code' - a table called 'Tags' to store the tags for each code entry, and a table called 'code_tags' to intersect it. There's also a table called 'users' which stores information about the users who submitted each bit of code. On my homepage, I want 5 results returned from the database. Each returned result needs to list the code's title, summary, and then fetch the author's firstname based on the ID of the person who submitted it. I've managed to achieve this much so far (woot!). My problem lies when I try to collect all the tags as well. At the moment this is a pretty big query and it's scaring me a little. Here's my problematic query: SELECT code.*, code_tags.*, tags.*, users.firstname AS authorname, users.id AS authorid FROM code, code_tags, tags, users WHERE users.id = code.author AND code_tags.code_id = code.id AND tags.id = code_tags.tag_id ORDER BY date DESC LIMIT 0, 5 What it returns is correct looking data, but several repeated rows for each tag. So for example if a Code entry has 3 tags, it will return an identical row 3 times - except in each of the three returned rows, the tag changes. Does that make sense? How would I go about changing this? Thanks! Jack

  Read the article

• Duplicate elements when adding XElement to XDocument

  - by Andy

  I'm writing a program in C# that will go through a bunch of config.xml files and update certain elements, or add them if they don't exist. I have the portion down that updates an element if it exists with this code: XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Parse(ReadFile(_file)); XElement element = xdoc.Elements("project").Elements("logRotator") .Elements("daysToKeep").Single(); element.Value = _DoRevert; But I'm running into issues when I want to add an element that doesn't exist. Most of the time part of the tree is in place and when I use my code it adds another identical tree, and that causes the program reading the xml to blow up. here is how I am attempting to do it xdoc.Element("project").Add(new XElement("logRotator", new XElement("daysToKeep", _day))); and that results in a structure like this(The numToKeep tag was already there): <project> <logRotator> <daysToKeep>10</daysToKeep> </logRotator> <logRotator> <numToKeep>13</numToKeep> </logRotator> </project> but this is what I want <project> <logRotator> <daysToKeep>10</daysToKeep> <numToKeep>13</numToKeep> </logRotator> </project>

  Read the article

• How to create instances of a class from a static method?

  - by Pierre

  Hello. Here is my problem. I have created a pretty heavy readonly class making many database calls with a static "factory" method. The goal of this method is to avoid killing the database by looking in a pool of already-created objects if an identical instance of the same object (same type, same init parameters) already exists. If something was found, the method will just return it. No problem. But if not, how may I create an instance of the object, in a way that works with inheritance? >>> class A(Object): >>> @classmethod >>> def get_cached_obj(self, some_identifier): >>> # Should do something like `return A(idenfier)`, but in a way that works >>> class B(A): >>> pass >>> A.get_cached_obj('foo') # Should do the same as A('foo') >>> A().get_cached_obj('foo') # Should do the same as A('foo') >>> B.get_cached_obj('bar') # Should do the same as B('bar') >>> B().get_cached_obj('bar') # Should do the same as B('bar') Thanks.

  Read the article

• What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

  - by durandai

  I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

  Read the article

• SQLite dataypes lengths?

  - by XF

  I'm completely new to SQLite (actually 5 minutes ago), but I do know somewhat the Oracle and MySql backends. The question: I'm trying to know the lengths of each of the datatypes supported by SQLite, such as the differences between a bigint and a smallint. I've searched across the SQLite documentation (only talks about affinity, only matters it?), SO threads, google... and found nothing. My guess: I've just slightly revised the SQL92 specifications, which talk about datatypes and its relations but not about its lengths, which is quite obvious I assume. Yet I've come accross the Oracle and MySql datatypes specs, and the specified lengths are mostly identical for integers at least. Should I assume SQLite is using the same lengths? Aside question: Have I missed something about the SQLite docs? Or have I missed something about SQL in general? Asking this because I can't really understand why the SQLite docs don't specify something as basic as the datatypes lengths. It just doesn't make sense to me! Although I'm sure there is a simple command to discover the lengths.. but why not writing them to the docs? Thank you!

  Read the article

• retrieve value from hashtable with clone of key; C#

  - by Johnny

  I would like to know if there is any possible way to retrieve an item from a hashtable using a key that is identical to the actual key, but a different object. I understand why it is probably not possible, but I would like to see if there is any tricky way to do it. My problem arises from the fact that, being as stupid as I am, I created hashtables with int[] as the keys, with the integer arrays containing indices representing spatial position. I somehow knew that I needed to create a new int[] every time I wanted to add a new entry, but neglected to think that when I generated spatial coordinate arrays later they would be worthless in retrieving the values from my hashtables. Now I am trying to decide whether to rearrange things so that I can store my values in ArrayLists, or whether to search through the list of keys in the Hashtable for the one I need every time I want to get a value, neither of the options being very cool. Unless of course there is a way to get //1 to work like //2! Thanks in advance. static void Main(string[] args) { Hashtable dog = new Hashtable(); //1 int[] man = new int[] { 5 }; dog.Add(man, "hello"); int[] cat = new int[] { 5 }; Console.WriteLine(dog.ContainsKey(cat)); //false //2 int boy = 5; dog.Add(boy, "wtf"); int kitten = 5; Console.WriteLine(dog.ContainsKey(kitten)); //true; }

  Read the article

• ASP.net MVC 2 SPARK - Create "Add New Item" link in spark page.

  - by KarlBear

  I have a web form in SPARK which allow the editing of a Facility class that contains Rooms. When editing the Facility all the Rooms are listed for editing too. The form works fine for editing, but I would like to include a button "Add Room" that adds a new blank room below the existing ones. Any idea how this is accomplished? Currently I am doing this in my SPARK page: [All the Facility editing stuff...] <p>Room</p> <div class="small">Enter the rooms associated with this facility.</div> <div class="add"> <div id="room"> <AddFacilityRoom each="var roomModel in Model.FacilityRooms" RoomModel="roomModel" Index="roomModelIndex" /> </div> <a id="addRoom" class="add" href="events/room/add.mvc">Add a room</a> </div> AddFacilityRoom contains the html elements for editing a room. I would like add.mvc to create a new empty Room class and inject a new identical (but empty) control below the existing ones. Currently, though it opens a new page when the "Add a Room" button is clicked.

  Read the article

• How to stay DRY when using both Javascript and ERB templates (Rails)

  - by user94154

  I'm building a Rails app that uses Pusher to use web sockets to push updates to directly to the client. In javascript: channel.bind('tweet-create', function(tweet){ //when a tweet is created, execute the following code: $('#timeline').append("<div class='tweet'><div class='tweeter'>"+tweet.username+"</div>"+tweet.status+"</div>"); }); This is nasty mixing of code and presentation. So the natural solution would be to use a javascript template. Perhaps eco or mustache: //store this somewhere convenient, perhaps in the view folder: tweet_view = "<div class='tweet'><div class='tweeter'>{{tweet.username}}</div>{{tweet.status}}</div>" channel.bind('tweet-create', function(tweet){ //when a tweet is created, execute the following code: $('#timeline').append(Mustache.to_html(tweet_view, tweet)); //much cleaner }); This is good and all, except, I'm repeating myself. The mustache template is 99% identical to the ERB templates I already have written to render HTML from the server. The intended output/purpose of the mustache and ERB templates are 100% the same: to turn a tweet object into tweet html. What is the best way to eliminate this repetition? UPDATE: Even though I answered my own question, I really want to see other ideas/solutions from other people--hence the bounty!

  Read the article

• Objective-C protocol vs inheritance vs extending?

  - by ryanjm.mp

  I have a couple classes that have nearly identical code. Only a string or two is different between them. What I would like to do is to make them "x" from another class that defines those functions and then uses constants or something else to define those strings that are different. I'm not sure if "x" is inheritance or extending or what. That is what I need help with. For example: objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld { NSLog("Hello %@",child.name); } objectBob.m: #define name @"Bob" objectJoe.m #define name @"Joe" (I'm not sure if it's legal to define strings, but this gets the point across) It would be ideal if objectBob.m and objectJoe.m didn't have to even define the methods, just their relationship to objectA.m. Is there any way to do something like this? It is kind of like protocol, except in reverse, I want the "protocol" to actually define the functions. If all else fails I'll just make objectA.m: -(void)helloWorld:(NSString *name) { NSLog("Hello %@",name); } And have the other files call that function (and just #import objectA.m).

  Read the article

• How can I increment a counter every N loops in JMeter?

  - by Dave Hunt

  I want to test concurrency, and reliably replicate an issue that JMeter brought to my attention. What I want to do is set a unique identifier (currently the time in milliseconds with a counter appended) and increment the counter between loops but not between threads. The idea being that the number of threads I have set up is the number of identical identifiers before incrementing and using another. If I had 3 threads with a loop count of 2 I want: 1. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000000 2. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000000 3. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000000 4. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000001 5. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000001 6. Unique ID: <current-time-in-millis>000001 I've tried using Throughput Controllers to increment a counter, as well as several other things that seemed they should work but had no luck. This seems like something JMeter should be able to do. Is there any way to get the value of the loop count?

  Read the article

• how do call a polymorphic function from an agnostic function?

  - by sds

  I have a method foo void foo (String x) { ... } void foo (Integer x) { ... } and I want to call it from a method which does not care about the argument: void bar (Iterable i) { ... for (Object x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } the code above complains that that foo(Object) is not defined and when I add void foo (Object x) { throw new Exception; } then bar(Iterable<String>) calls that instead of foo(String) and throws the exception. How do I avoid having two textually identical definitions of bar(Iterable<String>) and bar(Iterable<Integer>)? I thought I would be able to get away with something like <T> void bar (Iterable<T> i) { ... for (T x : i) foo(x); // this is the only time i is used ... } but then I get cannot find foo(T) error.

  Read the article

• DRYing out implementation of ICloneable in several classes

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I have several different classes that I want to be cloneable: GenericRow, GenericRows, ParticularRow, and ParticularRows. There is the following class hierarchy: GenericRow is the parent of ParticularRow, and GenericRows is the parent of ParticularRows. Each class implements ICloneable because I want to be able to create deep copies of instances of each. I find myself writing the exact same code for Clone() in each class: object ICloneable.Clone() { object clone; using (var stream = new MemoryStream()) { var formatter = new BinaryFormatter(); // Serialize this object formatter.Serialize(stream, this); stream.Position = 0; // Deserialize to another object clone = formatter.Deserialize(stream); } return clone; } I then provide a convenience wrapper method, for example in GenericRows: public GenericRows Clone() { return (GenericRows)((ICloneable)this).Clone(); } I am fine with the convenience wrapper methods looking about the same in each class because it's very little code and it does differ from class to class by return type, cast, etc. However, ICloneable.Clone() is identical in all four classes. Can I abstract this somehow so it is only defined in one place? My concern was that if I made some utility class/object extension method, it would not correctly make a deep copy of the particular instance I want copied. Is this a good idea anyway?

  Read the article

• What would be the best way to dynamically add a set of rows to a table using JQuery?

  - by user312157

  I have a following table using MVC that shows number of items the user has. <table border = "1" id="tblItems"> <% var itemnum = 1; foreach (var item in Model.Items) {%> <tr> <td colspan="2" bgcolor="Silver"><strong>Item#<%=itemnum%></strong></td> <td><%=Html.ActionLink("Delete", "DeleteItem", "Item", new { id = item.ID })%></td> </tr> <tr> <td><strong>Name:</strong></td> <td><%=Html.TextBox("ItemName_" + itemnum, item.Name)%></td> </tr> <tr> <td><strong>Description:</strong></td> <td><%=Html.TextBox("ItemDescription_" + itemnum, item.Description)%></td> </tr> <%itemnum++; } %> </table> I will have a button that will Add New Item that will dynamically add identical structure. Any ideas on what is the best way to do this using JQuery? Thanks for all the suggestions!

  Read the article

• using a 64-bit compiler in microsoft visual c++

  - by Ben

  this question is essentially identical to an earlier question i had that didn't receive any answers. hopefully someone can help me out this time. i am trying to compile a vc++ project as 64 bit using visual c++ express 2010. i know that the 64 bit compiler does not come with the default installation of vc++ express so i installed windows sdk for windows 7 as specified here (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/9yb4317s.aspx) which includes the 64 bit compiler as i understand. however, there is still no 64 bit option in the configuration manager for vc++. after some searching i found and completed this tutorial (http://jenshuebel.wordpress.com/2009/02/12/visual-c-2008-express-edition-and-64-bit-targets/) as well as the various links at the bottom of this page. despite all my efforts, i still cannot get the 64 bit compiler to show in vc++ (i.e. the 64 bit compiler won't show under "active solutions platform" in the configuration manager). if anyone has any experience/tips with getting this to work i would really appreciate it. fyi - i am running windows 7(x64).

  Read the article

• Change Powerpoint chart data with .NET

  - by mc6688

  I have a Powerpoint template that contains 1 slide and on that slide is a chart. I'd like to be able to manipulate that charts data using .NET. So far I have code that... unzips the Powerpoint file. unzips the embedded excel file (ppt\embeddings\Microsoft_Office_Excel_Worksheet1.xlsx) It successfully manipulates the data in the excel sheet and zips it back up. Opens and manipulates ppt\charts\chart1.xml Powerpoint is then zipped up and delivered to the user The result of this is a Powerpoint file that shows a blank chart. But when I click on the chart and go to edit data it updates the data and shows the correct chart. I believe my problem is with the chart1.xml that I am generating. I have compared my generated version with a version created by Powerpoint and they are almost identical. The only differences are in the values for <c:crossAx> and <c:axId>. There are also some rounding difference in the data. But I do not feel like that would result in an blank chart. Is there another file that I need to edit? Does anyone have any ideas as to what else I should try to get this working?

  Read the article

• what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

  - by Michael Mao

  This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

  Read the article

• Problem using SQLDataReader with Sybase ASE

  - by John K.

  We're developing a reporting application that uses asp.net-mvc (.net 4). We connect through DDTEK.Sybase middleware to a Sybase ASE 12.5 database. We're having a problem pulling data into a datareader (from a stored procedure). The stored procedure computes values (approximately 50 columns) by doing sums, counts, and calling other stored procedures. The problem we're experiencing is... certain (maybe 5% of the columns) come back with NULL or 0. If we debug and copy the SQL statement being used for the datareader and run it inside another SQL tool we get all valid values for all columns. conn = new SybaseConnection { ConnectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[ConnectStringName].ToString() }; conn.Open(); cmd = new SybaseCommand { CommandTimeout = cmdTimeout, Connection = conn, CommandText = mainSql }; reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); // AT THIS POINT IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE EXECUTEREADER COMMAND // THE READER CONTAINS THE BAD (NULL OR 0) DATA FOR THESE COLUMNS. DataTable schemaTable = reader.GetSchemaTable(); // AT THIS POINT WE CAN VIEW THE DATATABLE FOR THE SCHEMA AND IT APPEARS CORRECT // THE COLUMNS THAT DON'T WORK HAVE SPECIFICATIONS IDENTICAL TO THE COLUMNS THAT DO WORK Has anyone had problems like this using Sybase and ADO? Thanks, John K.

  Read the article

• How to check whether a CGPoint is inside a UIImageView?

  - by Horace Ho

  In touchesBegan: CGPoint touch_point = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:self.view]; There are tens of UIImageView around, stored in a NSMutableArray images. I'd like to know is there a built-in function to check if a CGPoint (touch_point) is inside one of the images, e.g.: for (UIImageView *image in images) { // how to test if touch_point is tapped on a image? } Thanks Follow up: For unknown reason, pointInside never returns true. Here is the full code. - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; touch_point = [touch locationInView:self.view]; for (UIImageView *image in piece_images) { if ([image pointInside:touch_point withEvent:event]) { image.hidden = YES; } else { image.hidden = NO; } NSLog(@"image %.0f %.0f touch %.0f %.0f", image.center.x, image.center.y, touch_point.x, touch_point.y); } } although I can the two points are sometimes identical in the NSLog output ... I also tried: if ([image pointInside:touch_point withEvent:nil]) the result is the same. never returns a true. To eliminate the chance of anything goes with with the images. I tried the following: if (YES or [image pointInside:touch_point withEvent:event]) all images are hidden ater the first click on screen.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66  | Next Page >