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  • Facebook / Offline Permission - Trying to perform an action on a set of offline users.

    - by blueigloo
    Hi there, We're building an app which in part of its functionality tries to capture the number of likes associated to a particular video owned by a user. Users of the app are asked for extended off-line access and we capture the key for each user: The format is like this: 2.hg2QQuYeftuHx1R84J1oGg__.XXXX.1272394800-nnnnnn Each user has their offline / infinite key stored in a table in a DB. The object_id which we're interested in is also stored in the DB. At a later stage (offline) we try to run a batch job which reads the number of likes for each user's video. (See attached code) For some reason however, after the first iteration of the loop - which yields the likes correctly, we get a failure with the oh so familiar message: "Session key is invalid or no longer valid" Any insight would be most appreciated. Thanks, B List<DVideo> videoList = db.SelectVideos(); foreach (DVideo video in videoList) { long userId = 0; ConnectSession fbSession = new ConnectSession(APPLICATION_KEY, SECRET_KEY); //session key is attached to the video object for now. fbSession.SessionKey = video.UserSessionKey; fbSession.SessionExpires = false; string fbuid =video.FBUID; long.TryParse(fbuid, out userId); if (userId > 0) { fbSession.UserId = userId; fbSession.Login(); Api fbApi = new Facebook.Rest.Api(fbSession); string xmlQueryResult = fbApi.Fql.Query("SELECT user_id FROM like WHERE object_id = " + video.FBVID); XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(new StringReader(xmlQueryResult)); int likesCount = xmlDoc.GetElementsByTagName("user_id").Count; //Write entry in VideoWallLikes if (likesCount > 0) { db.CountWallLikes(video.ID, likesCount); } fbSession.Logout(); } fbSession = null; }

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  • pfsense single MAC is listed with several IP's in ARP table

    - by Tillebeck
    I have this problem: arp table filling up But I am quite sure that I cannot blame Kaspersky. Scenarie: a user plugs his computer in. He waits and waits but are getting no IP by DHCP. Then he is told there is an IP conflict... He end up assigning himself a static IP to access the net In the ARP table of the router I see: 192.168.24.144 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.145 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.181 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.150 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.151 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.152 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.156 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.157 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.159 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.160 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.130 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.132 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.164 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.137 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.140 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN 192.168.24.206 00:16:41:42:3c:9e Lenovo LAN The last .206 is the static address he gave himself. Several users descripe the exact same problem. It started after removing some filters in the switches, så all users are on a LAN and can see each other. Before, when filters blocked access to each others comptuers no one reported this kind of behavior. Any idéeas?

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  • DD-WRT router causing IP address conflicts across network

    - by r.tanner.f
    My DD-WRT router has lost its mind! I just set up two DD-WRT routers, one as a WAP (working fine) and one in Client Bridge (routed) mode (the problem). Not long after setup I started seeing IP address conflicts on other machines. The event log always points the finger at my Client Bridge router's MAC address. Neighbour table overflow The log on my router is flooded with Neighbour table overflow errors. These start a minute or two after boot. The network is rather large, with +200 IP addresses being used in this subnet. The other router shows no such errors. Mass ARP requests from 1.1.1.1 I'm also seeing constant ARP requests (with the problem router's MAC address) from 1.1.1.1. Seems like it's bugging everything on the network for its MAC address and then promptly forgetting it (or never receiving a response). Configuration: Model: Buffalo N600 Firmware: DD-WRT v24SP2-MULTI (03/21/11) Wireless Mode: Client Bridge (routed) I'm not sure what configuration details are relevant and I'd rather not have comments flooded, so just ping me in this chat if you want to know something. Why is my router stealing IP addresses and how can I stop it?

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  • Windows Server 2008 R2 DNS - One IP, multiple servers

    - by Blu Dragon
    I need opinions and examples on how to best to accomplish the setup I am looking for. I have a public-facing AD domain server with one public IP address. I have setup an external zone for example.com and I successfully have my own name servers pointing to it at ns0.example.com and ns1.example.com. I also have an internal zone for my private network at home.example.com. I am behind a router with the domain server in the DMZ. I want dev.example.com to be accessible from the outside world over https and to point to internal IP address 192.168.1.78. Likewise, I want www.example.com to be accessible from the outside world and point to internal IP address 192.168.1.79. Both dev and www servers are CentOS 5.6 VMs running inside of Hyper-V on the domain server (bad idea I know but I am limited on hardware atm). What is best way to achieve this? From what I have read and researched on Google, I may need to setup a reverse proxy but I am not sure how well that will work with SSL.

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  • VMWare Guest Info - Wrong IP Returned

    - by Jon Bailey
    We're running a VDI environment with vSphere 4.0 and Oracle VDI 3.2.2 and are having a bit of a problem with users that connect to an IPSec VPN from within their VM. For some reason, once connected to the VPN, the VMWare API returns GuestInfo.ipAddress as the VPN IP rather than the primary IP of the only NIC on the system. The IP address shown in net[0].ipAddress is the correct address and is what vSphere client is reporting. Is there any way to get VMWare tools to report the net[0].ipAddress as GuestInfo.ipAddress? Below is sample output from the guestinfo.pl script. 172.16.1.2 is the example "bad" VPN address that our VDI software is seeing. VMXFLEX01 guestFamily: windowsGuest VMXFLEX01 guestFullName: Microsoft Windows XP Professional (32-bit) VMXFLEX01 guestId: winXPProGuest VMXFLEX01 guestState: running VMXFLEX01 hostName: VMXFLEX01 VMXFLEX01 ipAddress: 172.16.1.2 VMXFLEX01 toolsStatus: VMware Tools is running and the version is current. VMXFLEX01 toolsVersion: 8194 VMXFLEX01 Screen - Height: 600 VMXFLEX01 Screen - Width: 800 VMXFLEX01 Disk[0]: Capacity 42935926784 VMXFLEX01 Disk[0]: Path : C:\ VMXFLEX01 Disk[0]: freespace : 33272619008 VMXFLEX01 net[0] - connected : 1 VMXFLEX01 net[0] - deviceConfigId : 4000 VMXFLEX01 net[0] - macAddress : 00:50:56:95:1f:c9 VMXFLEX01 net[0] - network : VM Network VMXFLEX01 net[0] - ipAddress : 10.0.0.2

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  • How to point a subdomain to local server with dynamic IP

    - by jlego
    I see there are many related questions to this one, however the answers given seem to be a little vague for a novice like me. I've got a dedicated LAMP stack running Fedora 16 locally on my home network. Everything works fine internally. I can access the Apache server from other machines on the network using the internal IP in a browser. I'm using the stack for a local file server as well as a development environment for websites. There are a couple of reasons why I would like the development sites hosted on the machine to be available publicly. 1.) I use a CMS that has paid add-ons which allows you to assign the paid license to a domain. I can't develop with paid add-ons on the closed dev server. 2.) I would occasionally like for clients to be able to view the site dev at late stages before it goes live. I have a domain (foo.com, and I want to point a *sub*domain (dev.foo.com) to the local server. I know this is best accomplished with a Static IP, however my IP from my ISP is Dynamic and I don't think there is any way to change that. From what I have read, services like ZoneEdit & DynDNS are supposed to be able to accomplish this, but I have tried both and found it very confusing. Also the server is behind a router and I have also read that you need to set up DDNS(?) in your router, that many routers have presets for these services, and I've found that DynDNS is the only one my router seems to support.

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  • certificate working on IP but not on URL

    - by Stephan
    I asked this question on stackoverflow, and I've been suggested to repost it here. I have a problem accessing my site (on https) with IEMobile 9 (WP 7.5). It says it's got problem with the certificate, as if it wasn't valid. Everything works on any other browser or platform I tested (android (several phones and a galaxy tab with stock browser, firefox, opera, dolphin), iOS (iphone and ipad with safari and chrome), an old nokia with symbian, windows 7, linux and mac). To try to solve this I saved the certificate (.cer) on the server and accessed it from the phone browser. It always complained except when I accessed it through the server IP (192.168.xx.xx). At that point it (said it) installed correctly the certificate. If then I try to access the index.html still using the IP all works fine and it doesn't complain about the certificate. If, though, I try to access the index using the actual URL (blah.myblah.com), it complains again about the certificate, as if it wasn't installed! It isn't a problem of DNS, cause that's up and serving the right ip, and the phone is correctly setup to use it. The certificate is signed by geotrust/rapidssl for *.myblah.com.

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  • iptables, blocking large numbers of IP Addresses

    - by Twirrim
    I'm looking to block IP addresses in a relatively automated fashion if they look to be 'screen scraping' content from websites that we host. In the past this was achieved by some ingenious perl scripts and OpenBSD's pf. pf is great in that you can provide it nice tables of IP addresses and it will efficiently handle blocking based on them. However for various reasons (before my time) they made the decision to switch to CentOS. iptables doesn't natively provide the ability to block large numbers of addresses (I'm told it wasn't unusual to be blocking 5000+), and I'm a bit cautious over adding that many rules into an iptable. ipt_recent would be awesome for doing this, plus it provides a lot of flexibility for just severely slowing down access, but there is a bug in the CentOS kernel that is stopping me from using it (reported, but awaiting fix). Using ipset would entail compiling a more up-to-date version of iptables than comes with CentOS which whilst I'm perfectly capable of doing it, I'd rather not do from a patching, security and consistency perspective. Other than those two it looks like nfblock is a reasonable alternative. Is anyone aware of other ways of achieving this? Are my concerns about several thousand IP addresses in iptables as individual rules unfounded?

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  • RRAS with DHCP when the IP pool is on a different subnet

    - by John B
    I run a small business network and the last couple of days I have been setting up some equipment to add VPN capabilities to our network. I've got the following set up: Windows 2008 R2 with RRAS - 172.22.200.50 Cisco RV082 router - 172.22.100.1 / 172.22.200.1 The Cisco router only support DHCP on a single class C network; 172.22.100.0/24. On the Cisco router I have set up an additional subnet; 172.22.200.0/24. The DHCP range is 172.22.100.200-254 When a PPTP connection comes in to the router, it is forwarded to my RRAS at 172.22.200.50. If I configure RRAS to assign IPs from a static pool on the 172.22.200.0/24 subnet everything works fine except the DNS suffix / search domain. However, if I set RRAS to use DHCP I am no longer able to contact any devices on the network. The IP I receive is on a different subnet (172.22.100.0/24). Is it possible to still use DHCP as the method of ip assignment in RRAS, even when the IP adresses assigned are in a different subnet? If yes, what piece of configuration am I missing to fix the VPN connection issues mentioned in the paragraph above. The reason I want RRAS with DHCP to work is because from what I have understood, this is the "only" way to hand out a DNS suffix to VPN clients. Any help on this matter is greatly appreciated!

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  • Forward real IP through Haproxy => Nginx => Unicorn

    - by Hendrik
    How do I forward the real visitors ip adress to Unicorn? The current setup is: Haproxy => Nginx => Unicorn How can I forward the real IP address from Haproxy, to Nginx, to Unicorn? Currently it is always only 127.0.0.1 I read that the X headers are going to be depreceated. http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc6648 - how will this impact us? Haproxy Config: # haproxy config defaults log global mode http option httplog option dontlognull option httpclose retries 3 option redispatch maxconn 2000 contimeout 5000 clitimeout 50000 srvtimeout 50000 # Rails Backend backend deployer-production reqrep ^([^\ ]*)\ /api/(.*) \1\ /\2 balance roundrobin server deployer-production localhost:9000 check Nginx Config: upstream unicorn-production { server unix:/tmp/unicorn.ordify-backend-production.sock fail_timeout=0; } server { listen 9000 default; server_name manager.ordify.localhost; root /home/deployer/apps/ordify-backend-production/current/public; access_log /var/log/nginx/ordify-backend-production_access.log; rewrite_log on; try_files $uri/index.html $uri @unicorn; location @unicorn { proxy_set_header X-Forwarded-For $proxy_add_x_forwarded_for; proxy_set_header Host $http_host; proxy_set_header X-Real-IP $remote_addr; proxy_redirect off; proxy_pass http://unicorn-production; proxy_connect_timeout 90; proxy_send_timeout 90; proxy_read_timeout 90; } error_page 500 502 503 504 /500.html; client_max_body_size 4G; keepalive_timeout 10; }

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  • IP Blacklists and suspicious inbound and outbound traffic

    - by Pantelis Sopasakis
    I administer a web server and recently we had our IP banned (!) from our host after they received a notification e-mail for abuse. In particular our server is allegedly involved in spam attacks over HTTP. The content of the abuse report email we received was not much informative - for example the IP addresses our server is supposed to have attacked against are not included - so I started a wireshark session checking for suspicious traffic over TCP/HTTP while trying to locate possible security holes on the system. (Let me note that the machine runs a Debian OS). Here is an example of such a request... Source: 89.74.188.233 Destination: 12.34.56.78 // my ip Protocol: HTTP Info: GET 'http://www.media.apniworld.com/image.php?type=hv' HTTP/1.0 I manually blacklisted this host (as well as some other ones) blocking them with iptables, but I can't keep on doing manually all day long... I'm looking for an automated way to block such IPs based on: Statistical analysis, pattern recognition or other AI-based analysis (Though, I'm reluctant to trust such a solution, if exists) Public blacklists Using DNSBL I actually found out that 89.74.188.233 is blacklisted. However other IPs which are strongly suspicious like 93.199.112.126 (i.e. http://www.pornstarnetwork.com/account/signin), unfortunately were not blacklisted! What I would like to do is to automatically connect my firewall with DNSBL (or some other blacklist database) and block all traffic towards blacklisted IPs or somehow have my local blacklist automatically updated.

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  • Cisco BVI: Claiming IP addresses

    - by cjavapro
    I would like to make sure I understand this correctly. Given a Cisco ISO router that is set up with a BVI (a variation of a bridge route).. and the following layout "ISP router" \ "Network switch" # nothing special here. | \ | \ | \ | \ "Router 1 with NAT" "Router 2 with BVI" If I understand correctly.. the outside of a BVI will only respond to IP addresses that have already been claimed on the inside of the BVI... example subnet is 123.123.123.??? and servers inside the BVI on 123.123.123.10 and 123.123.123.11, and the NAT router is holding a public IP address of 123.123.123.50. If a connection comes in to 123.123.123.10 it will be received by router 2 but if it is received on 123.123.123.50, it will be received by router 1 and not received by router 2. and if a connection comes in to 123.123.123.90 (does not exist) it will not be received by either router. Am I correct? Is it true that the BVI router will not even receive packets to IP addresses that it does not see as existing on the inside?

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  • Host ::1 resolves to remote IP

    - by thebuckst0p
    /etc/hosts files usually have this line, ::1 localhost. I thought ::1 was the equivalent of 127.0.0.1/localhost, and from my reading it seems to be the IPv6 version. So I was using it in Apache for firewalling, "Allow from ::1" and it only allowed local. Then suddenly that stopped working, so I pinged ::1 and got a remote IP address. I tracerouted it and it went through my ISP, through some Microsoft server, then another half dozen steps of asterisks... I'm not sure why this would be (the remote IP), but it doesn't seem good. I grep'd my hard drive for the remote IP and it doesn't appear anywhere. Is this some indicator that I'm being hacked, or normal behavior? Maybe my IPv6 settings are wrong? (This is a brand new MacBookPro with Snow Leopard.) Any ideas about this would be great - what is ::1 supposed to be, why would it be remote, should I be worried, how do I get it back to localhost? Thank you!

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  • Windows 2003 DC to Windows 2008 R2 DC with same name and same IP

    - by TheCleaner
    Environment = Windows 2003 native domain with 8 DCs I've got an old domain controller that is running 2003, CA Enterprise role, DHCP, DNS, a few GPO scripts that point to shares on it, and some other minor functions. All our servers point to it as their primary DNS, and there's lots of references to its IP or name throughout the domain at this point (8+ years later). I really don't feel like manually changing all of this, it would be a pretty massive undertaking. I want to follow this guide: http://msmvps.com/blogs/acefekay/archive/2010/10/09/remove-an-old-dc-and-introduce-a-new-dc-with-the-same-name-and-ip-address.aspx to hopefully end up with basically an "in-place upgrade" so to say. I considered just doing a P2V of the box, but we don't really want to keep it around running 2003 to be honest. I also considered using a CNAME and adding a 2nd IP (the old one) but again, it seemed like it would be cleaner using the attached link. My actual question: Any gotchas or big caution signs when doing what the link suggests? Anyone gone down this road and have advice on how to proceed?

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  • Xen Bridge only working when IP Assigned

    - by m.sr
    Hey! Just had an (in my sense) obscure situation. I have a Xen Server with bridged networking. Everything works fine since month. A while ago i configuresd a second bridge. only some DomUs get an channel on this bridge - my Dom0 doesn't need to / should'nt use this bridge. So just 5 minutes ago while rebooting the xen host (because of an other problem with the UPS) i decided to removed the fixed ip from the the interface of the Dom0 which belongs to the second bridge. So after reboot i noticed that none of the interfaces on the second bridge is available. I couldn't find a problem. Everything was just like before the reboot, except the interface of the Dom0 had no IP address. After a while i tried to give the DomO interface of this bridge an IP again and ... BOOM ... everything is up and running again! WTF? Why is it important to have the interface of a bridge configured in the Dom0? Even when confiugured 'wrong' (complitely different netowkr settings as the network really hanging on the bridge) everythjing works fine ... I don't get it. Could please someone explain? Tnaks a lot!

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  • Samba access works with IP address only

    - by Sebastian Rittau
    I added a Debian etch host (hostname: webserver, IP address: 192.168.101.2) running Samba to a Windows network with a Windows 2003 PDC (IP address 192.168.101.3). The Samba server exports a public guest share, called "Intranet". The server shows up fine in the network, but trying to click on it produces an error dialog, stating I don't have the necessary permissions. So does entering \webserver manually and using \webserver\internet states that the path does not exist. Interestingly, accessing the share by IP address (\192.168.101.2 or \192.168.101.2\intranet) works fine. DNS is configured correctly, and "smbclient //webserver/intranet" on another Linux client works fine. One complicating issue is that the webserver is only a VMware virtual machine running on PDC server. Here is our smb.conf: [global] workgroup = Foobar server string = Webserver wins support = yes ; commenting out these wins server = 192.168.101.3 ; two lines has no effect dns proxy = no guest account = nobody [... snipped some unrelated bits, like logging ...] security = share [... snipped some password-related things ...] domain master = no [intranet] comment = Intranet path = /srv/webserver/contents browseable = yes guest ok = yes guest only = yes read only = yes create mask = 0775 directory mask = 0775

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  • Fortigate restrict traffic through one external IP

    - by Tom O'Connor
    I've got a fortigate 400A at a client's site. They've got a /26 from British Telecom, and we're using 4 of those IPs as a NAT Pool. Is there a way to say that traffic from 172.18.4.40-45 can only ever come out of (and hence go back into) x.x.x.140 as the external IP? We're having some problems with SIP which looks like it's coming out of one, and trying to go back into another. I tried enabling asymmetric routing, didn't work. I tried setting a VIP, but even when I did that, it didn't appear to do anything. Any ideas? I can probably post some firewall snippets if need be.. Tell me what you want to see. SIP ALG config system settings set sip-helper disable set sip-nat-trace disable set sip-tcp-port 5061 set sip-udp-port 5061 set multicast-forward enable end Interesting Sidenote VoIP phones, with no special configuration can register fine to proxy.sipgate.co.uk, which has an IP address of 217.10.79.16. Which is cool. Two phones are using a different provider, whose proxy IP address is 178.255.x.x. These phones can register for outbound, but inbound INVITEs never make it to the phone. Is it possible that the Fortigate is having trouble with 178.255.x.x as it's got a 255 in it? Or am I just imagining things?

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  • iptables, blocking large numbers of IP Addresses

    - by Twirrim
    I'm looking to block IP addresses in a relatively automated fashion if they look to be 'screen scraping' content from websites that we host. In the past this was achieved by some ingenious perl scripts and OpenBSD's pf. pf is great in that you can provide it nice tables of IP addresses and it will efficiently handle blocking based on them. However for various reasons (before my time) they made the decision to switch to CentOS. iptables doesn't natively provide the ability to block large numbers of addresses (I'm told it wasn't unusual to be blocking 5000+), and I'm a bit cautious over adding that many rules into an iptable. ipt_recent would be awesome for doing this, plus it provides a lot of flexibility for just severely slowing down access, but there is a bug in the CentOS kernel that is stopping me from using it (reported, but awaiting fix). Using ipset would entail compiling a more up-to-date version of iptables than comes with CentOS which whilst I'm perfectly capable of doing it, I'd rather not do from a patching, security and consistency perspective. Other than those two it looks like nfblock is a reasonable alternative. Is anyone aware of other ways of achieving this? Are my concerns about several thousand IP addresses in iptables as individual rules unfounded?

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  • Samba access works with IP address only

    - by Sebastian Rittau
    I added a Debian etch host (hostname: webserver, IP address: 192.168.101.2) running Samba to a Windows network with a Windows 2003 PDC (IP address 192.168.101.3). The Samba server exports a public guest share, called "Intranet". The server shows up fine in the network, but trying to click on it produces an error dialog, stating I don't have the necessary permissions. So does entering \webserver manually and using \webserver\internet states that the path does not exist. Interestingly, accessing the share by IP address (\192.168.101.2 or \192.168.101.2\intranet) works fine. DNS is configured correctly, and "smbclient //webserver/intranet" on another Linux client works fine. One complicating issue is that the webserver is only a VMware virtual machine running on PDC server. Here is our smb.conf: [global] workgroup = Foobar server string = Webserver wins support = yes ; commenting out these wins server = 192.168.101.3 ; two lines has no effect dns proxy = no guest account = nobody [... snipped some unrelated bits, like logging ...] security = share [... snipped some password-related things ...] domain master = no [intranet] comment = Intranet path = /srv/webserver/contents browseable = yes guest ok = yes guest only = yes read only = yes create mask = 0775 directory mask = 0775

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  • "StartTag: invalid element name" in default.aspx

    - by Epaga
    (Warning - asp newbie) I have an aspx file with the tag <%@ Page Language=VB ... %> right at the beginning of the file. When calling this from my IIS server (http://localhost/myservice/default.aspx), this gives me the error This page contains the following errors: error on line 1 at column 2: StartTag: invalid element name Below is a rendering of the page up to the first error. What am I doing wrong?

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  • "Invalid provider type specified" when signing clickonce manifest in VS2008

    - by Mark
    I have a certificate issued by a CA on our intranet (it's a V3 sha1 pfx file). When I use this in the signing part of my clickonce (vsto addin) project, I get the error: C:\Program Files (x86)\MSBuild\Microsoft\VisualStudio\v9.0\OfficeTools\Microsoft.VisualStudio.Tools.Office.Office2007.targets(250,9): error MSB3482: An error occurred while signing: Invalid provider type specified. Does anyone know what's going on here? Thanks!

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  • Invalid or expired security context token in WCF web service

    - by Damian
    All, I have a WCF web service (let's called service "B") hosted under IIS using a service account (VM, Windows 2003 SP2). The service exposes an endpoint that use WSHttpBinding with the default values except for maxReceivedMessageSize, maxBufferPoolSize, maxBufferSize and some of the time outs that have been increased. The web service has been load tested using Visual Studio Load Test framework with around 800 concurrent users and successfully passed all tests with no exceptions being thrown. The proxy in the unit test has been created from configuration. There is a sharepoint application that use the Office Sharepoint Server Search service to call web services "A" and "B". The application will get data from service "A" to create a request that will be sent to service "B". The response coming from service "B" is indexed for search. The proxy is created programmatically using the ChannelFactory. When service "A" takes less than 10 minutes, the calls to service "B" are successfull. But when service "A" takes more time (~20 minutes) the calls to service "B" throw the following exception: Exception Message: An unsecured or incorrectly secured fault was received from the other party. See the inner FaultException for the fault code and detail Inner Exception Message: The message could not be processed. This is most likely because the action 'namespace/OperationName' is incorrect or because the message contains an invalid or expired security context token or because there is a mismatch between bindings. The security context token would be invalid if the service aborted the channel due to inactivity. To prevent the service from aborting idle sessions prematurely increase the Receive timeout on the service endpoint's binding. The binding settings are the same, the time in both client server and web service server are synchronize with the Windows Time service, same time zone. When i look at the server where web service "B" is hosted i can see the following security errors being logged: Source: Security Category: Logon/Logoff Event ID: 537 User NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM Logon Failure: Reason: An error occurred during logon Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: Kerberos Authentication Package: Kerberos Status code: 0xC000006D Substatus code: 0xC0000133 After reading some of the blogs online, the Status code means STATUS_LOGON_FAILURE and the substatus code means STATUS_TIME_DIFFERENCE_AT_DC. but i already checked both server and client clocks and they are syncronized. I also noticed that the security token seems to be cached somewhere in the client server because they have another process that calls the web service "B" using the same service account and successfully gets data the first time is called. Then they start the proccess to update the office sharepoint server search service indexes and it fails. Then if they called the first proccess again it will fail too. Has anyone experienced this type of problems or have any ideas? Regards, --Damian

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  • NHibernate mapping with optimistic-lock="version" and dynamic-update="true" is generating invalid up

    - by SteveBering
    I have an entity "Group" with an assigned ID which is added to an aggregate in order to persist it. This causes an issue because NHibernate can't tell if it is new or existing. To remedy this issue, I changed the mapping to make the Group entity use optimistic locking on a sql timestamp version column. This caused a new issue. Group has a bag of sub objects. So when NHibernate flushes a new group to the database, it first creates the Group record in the Groups table, then inserts each of the sub objects, then does an update of the Group records to update the timestamp value. However, the sql that is generated to complete the update is invalid when the mapping is both dynamic-update="true" and optimistic-lock="version". Here is the mapping: <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" dynamic-update="true" mutable="true" optimistic-lock="version" name="Group" table="Groups"> <id name="GroupNumber" type="System.String, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <column name="GroupNumber" length="5" /> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <version generated="always" name="Timestamp" type="BinaryBlob" unsaved-value="null"> <column name="TS" not-null="false" sql-type="timestamp" /> </version> <property name="UID" update="false" type="System.Guid, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <column name="GroupUID" unique="true" /> </property> <property name="Description" type="AnsiString"> <column name="GroupDescription" length="25" not-null="true" /> </property> <bag access="field.camelcase-underscore" cascade="all" inverse="true" lazy="true" name="Assignments" mutable="true" order-by="GroupAssignAssignment"> <key foreign-key="fk_Group_Assignments"> <column name="GroupNumber" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Assignment" /> </bag> <many-to-one class="Aggregate" name="Aggregate"> <column name="GroupParentID" not-null="true" /> </many-to-one> </class> </hibernate-mapping> When the mapping includes both the dynamic update and the optimistic lock, the sql generated is: UPDATE groups SET WHERE GroupNumber = 11111 AND TS=0x00000007877 This is obviously invalid as there are no SET statements. If I remove the dynamic update part, everything gets updated during this update statement instead. This makes the statement valid, but rather unnecessary. Has anyone seen this issue before? Am I missing something? Thanks, Steve

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  • ArgumentError: Error #2015: Invalid BitmapData.

    - by numerical25
    I am having problems loading a bitmapData. I am getting the following error Engine Init //trace loadimage//trace ArgumentError: Error #2015: Invalid BitmapData. at flash.display::BitmapData() Below is my code. it appears it happens after the trace loadimage package com.objects { import flash.display.Sprite; import flash.display.BitmapData; import flash.display.Bitmap; import flash.geom.Point; import flash.geom.Rectangle; import flash.display.Loader; import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.net.*; import flash.events.*; import flash.display.LoaderInfo; public class gameObject extends Sprite { protected var w:Number; protected var h:Number; protected var image:BitmapData; protected var canvas:Bitmap; protected var px:Number; protected var py:Number; public function gameObject():void { init(); } private function init():void { } public function loadImage(imageDir:String, w:Number, h:Number, px:Number, py:Number):void { this.w = w; this.y = y; this.px = px; this.py = py; trace("loadimage"); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,imageComplete); loader.load(new URLRequest(imageDir)); } private function imageComplete(e:Event):void { var loader:LoaderInfo = LoaderInfo(e.target); image = Bitmap(loader.content).bitmapData; drawImage(); } private function drawImage():void { var tilePoint:Point = new Point(0,0); var tileRect = new Rectangle(py,px,w,h); trace(loader.content); var canvasData:BitmapData = new BitmapData(w,h); trace("got canvas data"); canvasData.copyPixels(image,tileRect,tilePoint); trace("copied pixels"); canvas = new Bitmap(canvasData); } } } And my call the the method is like so balls = new Array(); balls[0] = new gameObject(); balls[0].loadImage("com/images/ball.gif", 15,15,0,0); When I trace the Loader.content, below is what shows Engine Init loadimage [object Bitmap] ArgumentError: Error #2015: Invalid BitmapData. at flash.display::BitmapData()

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  • struts2 invalid.token returned when form submitted using JQuery

    - by John
    Hi, I have inherited some code in which I now have to add CSRF prevention and am trying to use the struts2 tokenSession interceptor to do this. I am adding a token to my form using the struts2 token tag like so: <form id="updateObject" name="updateObject" action="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/prv/updateObject.action" method="POST"> <fieldset class="x-fieldset"> <legend>Update object - Action Required</legend> <div>...</div> <s:token /> <s:hidden name="id" id="objectId" /> more stuff here... <input type="submit" value="Update Object" onclick="javascript:return doUpdateObject('myAction');"/> </fieldset> </form> In my javascript function, I am adding/removing some validation rules (depending upon the action required, and submitting the form: function doUpdateObject(action){ actionPanel.registerAction(action); // this function places the action name in an in-scope variable doUpdateObjectValidationSetup(action); // this function adds/removes jquery validation rules depending upon the action if($("#updateObject").valid()){ $("form#updateObject").submit(); } return false; } I have intercepted the request and a token is being added, however the struts2 tokenSession interceptor is returning invalid.token. The code works as expected without this interceptor. (struts2 xml file not posted - will post the relevant section if required). I have also used the tokenSession interceptor in other pages which use a basic html submit button (i.e. not going via javascript or jquery) and this also works as expected. What is making the token invalid? N.B. The project I have inherited uses a strange mixture of standard html, struts2 tags, ExtJS and JQuery. I will clean this up at some point but at the moment I just need to get the tokenSession interceptor working asap in the code as-is (as I have to apply a similar fix to several hundred pages...). Any help/pointers/tips/etc greatly appreciated! Regards, John

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