Search Results

Search found 1666 results on 67 pages for 'lurker indeed'.

Page 59/67 | < Previous Page | 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66  | Next Page >

  • Google Chrome audit on caching

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    If I run an audit on my sites with Google Chrome, I get this message in the Leverage browser caching section: The following resources are missing a cache expiration. Resources that do not specify an expiration may not be cached by browsers: A list of all the pictures follows. I get a similar notice in Leverage proxy caching: Consider adding a "Cache-Control: public" header to the following resources: Apart from pictures, I also get a notice about HTML, CSS and JavaScript files: The following resources are explicitly non-cacheable. Consider making them cacheable if possible: Its funny because I've worked hard to cache all static contents (except for pictures, where I just left Apache's default settings). Firefox does indeed store all these items in cache. Is there anything I should improve in my HTTP headers? Here's the complete header set of some items as loaded after removing the browser caché. Pictures use default settings I didn't really check before, the rest should be cachéd for three hours. I can set headers with both .htaccess and PHP. PNG HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:14 GMT Server: Apache Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:54 GMT Etag: "c48024-230-4821a15d6c580" Accept-Ranges: bytes Content-Length: 560 Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Content-Type: image/png HTML HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:46:13 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:46:13 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Wed, 24 Mar 2010 20:30:36 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-15 CSS HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/css JavaScript HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 12:48:21 GMT Server: Apache X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Expires: Sat, 31 Jul 2010 15:48:21 GMT Cache-Control: max-age=10800, s-maxage=10800, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding Last-Modified: Thu, 18 Mar 2010 21:40:12 GMT Keep-Alive: timeout=4 Connection: Keep-Alive Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: application/x-javascript Update I've tested Jumby's suggestion and set my CSS's expire to 1 year: Cache-Control:max-age=31536000, s-maxage=31536000, must-revalidate, proxy-revalidate Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Encoding:gzip Content-Length:4198 Content-Type:text/css Date:Mon, 02 Aug 2010 20:48:56 GMT Expires:Tue, 02 Aug 2011 20:48:56 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=5, max=99 Last-Modified:Thu, 18 Mar 2010 20:40:12 GMT Server:Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) PHP/5.3.1 Vary:Accept-Encoding X-Powered-By:PHP/5.3.1 However, Chrome still claims "explicitly non-cacheable".

    Read the article

  • load google annotated chart within jquery ui tab content via ajax method

    - by twmulloy
    Hi, I am encountering an issue with trying to load a google annotated chart (http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/gallery/annotatedtimeline.html) within a jquery ui tab using content via ajax method (http://jqueryui.com/demos/tabs/#ajax). If instead I use the default tabs functionality, writing out the code things work fine: <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Chart</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load('visualization', '1', {'packages':['annotatedtimeline']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawChart); function drawChart() { var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('date', 'Date'); data.addColumn('number', 'cloudofinc.com'); data.addColumn('string', 'header'); data.addColumn('string', 'text') data.addColumn('number', 'All Clients'); data.addRows([ [new Date('May 12, 2010'), 2, '2 New Users', '', 3], [new Date('May 13, 2010'), 0, undefined, undefined, 0], [new Date('May 14, 2010'), 0, undefined, undefined, 0], ]); var chart = new google.visualization.AnnotatedTimeLine(document.getElementById('chart_users')); chart.draw(data, { displayAnnotations: false, fill: 10, thickness: 1 }); } </script> <div id='chart_users' style='width: 100%; height: 400px;'></div> </div> </div> But if I use the ajax method for jquery ui tab and point to the partial for the tab, it doesn't work completely. The page renders and once the chart loads, the browser window goes white. However, you can see the tab partial flash just before the chart appears to finish rendering (the chart never actually displays). I have verified that the partial is indeed loading properly without the chart. <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="ajax/tabs-1">Chart</a></li> </ul> </div>

    Read the article

  • Can MFMailComposeViewController attach an XML doc to an HTML message?

    - by Luther Baker
    I am creating an email in MFMaiilComposeViewController and if I simply create some html snippets and assign them to the message body - all is well. The resulting email (in GMail and Yahoo) looks like the original HTML I sent. [mailMan_ setMessageBody:body isHTML:YES]; On the other hand, if I also include an XML attachment, my email reader renders everything as plain text … including, the XML inlined. IE: my mail client (GMail, Yahoo) shows the raw HTHML and XML tags - including html tags that I didn't supply - ie: the html, head, body tags the iPhone provides around the content: NSData *opmlData = [[NSData alloc] initWithData:[opml dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSString *fileName = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f.opml", [NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate]]; [mailMan_ addAttachmentData:opmlData mimeType:@"text/xml" fileName:fileName]; I pop3'd the mails to see what was happening and found that WITHOUT an attachment, the resulting html section of the email contains this block: --0-1682099714-1273329398=:59784 Content-Type: text/html; charset=us-ascii <html><body bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><div><h2 style="b while on the other hand, WITH the XML attachment, the iPhone is sending this: --0-881105825-1273328091=:50337 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii <html><body bgcolor="#FFFFFF"><div><h2 style="bac Notice the difference? Look at the Content-Type … text/html vs text/plain. It looks like when I include an XML attachment, the iPhone is errantly tagging the HTML version of the body as plain text! Just to clarify, technically, both with and without the attachment, the iPhone also includes this: --0-881105825-1273328091=:50337 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii Notebook Carpentry Bathroom floor tile Bathroom wall tile Scrape thinset But this obviously isn't where the problem lies. Am I doing something wrong? What must I do to actually "attach" XML without the iPhone labeling the entire HTML body as plain text. I tried reversing the assignments (attachment first and then body) but no luck. For what it's worth, the email looks perfect from the iPhone's sending interface. Indeed, the HTML renders correctly and the attachment looks like a little icon at the bottom of the message. This problem has more to do with what the iPhone is actually sending.

    Read the article

  • Odd ActiveRecord model dynamic initialization bug in production

    - by qfinder
    I've got an ActiveRecord (2.3.5) model that occasionally exhibits incorrect behavior that appears to be related to a problem in its dynamic initialization. Here's the code: class Widget < ActiveRecord::Base extend ActiveSupport::Memoizable serialize :settings VALID_SETTINGS = %w(show_on_sale show_upcoming show_current show_past) VALID_SETTINGS.each do |setting| class_eval %{ def #{setting}=(val); self.settings[:#{setting}] = (val == "1"); end def #{setting}; self.settings[:#{setting}]; end } end def initialize_settings self.settings ||= { :show_on_sale => true, :show_upcoming => true } end after_initialize :initialize_settings # All the other stuff the model does end The idea was to use a single record field (settings) to persist a bunch of configuration data for this object, but allow all the settings to seamlessly work with form helpers and the like. (Why this approach makes sense here is a little out of scope, but let's assume that it does.) Net-net, Widget should end up with instance methods (eg #show_on_sale= #show_on_sale) for all the entires in the VALID_SETTINGS array. Any default values should be specified in initialize_settings. And indeed this works, mostly. In dev and staging, no problems at all. But in production, the app sometimes ends up in a state where a) any writes to the dynamically generated setters fail and b) none of the default values appear to be set - although my leading theory is that the dynamically generated reader methods are just broken. The code, db, and environment is otherwise identical between the three. A typical error message / backtrace on the fail looks like: IndexError: index 141145 out of string (eval):2:in []=' (eval):2:inshow_on_sale=' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2746:in send' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2746:inattributes=' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2742:in each' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2742:inattributes=' [GEM_ROOT]/gems/activerecord-2.3.5/lib/active_record/base.rb:2634:in `update_attributes!' ...(then controller and all the way down) Ideas or theories as to what might be going on? My leading theory is that something is going wrong in instance initialization wherein the class instance variable settings is ending up as a string rather than a hash. This explains both the above setter failure (:show_on_sale is being used to index into the string) and the fact that getters don't work (an out of bounds [] call on a string just returns nil). But then how and why might settings occasionally end up as a string rather than hash?

    Read the article

  • Release Process Improvements

    - by wallismark
    The process of creating a new build and releasing it to production is a critical step in the SDLC but it is often left as an afterthought and varies greatly from one company to the next. I'm hoping people will share improvements they have made to this process in their organisation so we can all takes steps to 'reduce the pain'. So the question is, specify one painful/time consuming part of your release process and what did you do to improve it? My example: at a previous employer all developers made database changes on one common development database. Then when it came to release time, we used Redgate's SQL Compare to generate a huge script from the differences between the Dev and QA databases. This works reasonably well but the problems with this approach are:- ALL changes in the Dev database are included, some of which may still be 'works in progress'. Sometimes developers made conflicting changes (that were not noticed until the release was in production) It was a time consuming and manual process to create and validate the script (by validate I mean, try to weed out issues like problem 1 and 2). When there were problems with the script (eg the order in which things were run such as creating a record which relies on a foreign key record which is in the script but not yet run) it took time to 'tweak' it so it ran smoothly. It's not an ideal scenario for Continuous Integration. So the solution was:- Enforce a policy of all changes to the database must be scripted. A naming convention was important for ensuring the correct running order of the scripts. Create/Use a tool to run the scripts at release time. Developers had their own copy of the database do develop against (so there was no more 'stepping on each others toes') The next release after we started this process was much faster with fewer problems, indeed the only problems found were due to people 'breaking the rules', eg not creating a script. Once the issues with releasing to QA were fixed, when it came time to release to production it was very smooth. We applied a few other changes (like introducing CI) but this was the most significant, overall we reduced release time from around 3 hours down to a max of 10-15 minutes.

    Read the article

  • Would Apache running on port 8080 prevent dynamically loaded scripts in JavaScript?

    - by editor
    Had a nice PHP/HTML/JS prototype working on my personal Linode, then tried to throw it into a work machine. The page adds a script tag dynamically with some JavaScript. It's a bunch of Google charts that update based on different timeslices. That code looks something like this: // jQuery $.post to send the beginning and end timestamps $.post("channel_functions.php", data_to_post, function(data){ // the data that's returned is the javascript I want to load var script = document.createElement('script'); var head= document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; var script= document.createElement('script'); var text = document.createTextNode(data); script.type= 'text/javascript'; script.id = 'chart_data'; script.appendChild(text); // Adding script tag to page head.appendChild(script); // Call the function I know were present in the script tag loadTheCharts(); }); function loadTheCharts() { // These are the functions that were loaded dynamically // By this point the script tag is supposed be loaded, added and eval'd function1(); function2(); } Function1() and function2() don't exist until they get added to the dom, but I don't call loadTheCharts() until after the $.post has run so this doesn't seem to be a problem. I'm one of those dirty PHP coders you mother warned you about, so I'm not well versed in JavaScript beyond what I've read in the typical go-to O'Reilly books. But this code worked fine on my personal dev server, so I'm wondering why it wouldn't work on this new machine. The only difference in setup, from what I can tell, is that the new machine is running on port 8080, so it's 192.168.blah.blah:8080/index.php instead of nicedomain.com/index.php. I see the code was indeed added to the dom when I use webmaster tools to "view generated source" but in Firebug I get an error like "function2() is undefined" even though my understanding was that all script tags are eval'ed when added to . My question: Given what I've laid out, and that the machine is running on :8080, is there a reason anyone can think of as to why a dynamically loaded function like function2() would be defined on the Linode and not on the machine running Apache on 8080?

    Read the article

  • RESTful issue with data access when using HTTP DELETE method ...

    - by Wilhelm Murdoch
    I'm having an issue accessing raw request information from PHP when accessing a script using the HTTP DELETE directive. I'm using a JS front end which is accessing a script using Ajax. This script is actually part of a RESTful API which I am developing. The endpoint in this example is: http://api.site.com/session This endpoint is used to generate an authentication token which can be used for subsequent API requests. Using the GET method on this URL along with a modified version of HTTP Basic Authentication will provide an access token for the client. This token must then be included in all other interactions with the service until it expires. Once a token is generated, it is passed back to the client in a format specified by an 'Accept' header which the client sends the service; in this case 'application/json'. Upon success it responds with an HTTP 200 Ok status code. Upon failure, it throws an exception using the HTTP 401 Authorization Required code. Now, when you want to delete a session, or 'log out', you hit the same URL, but with the HTTP DELETE directive. To verify access to this endpoint, the client must prove they were previously authenticated by providing the token they want to terminate. If they are 'logged in', the token and session are terminated and the service should respond with the HTTP 204 No Content status code, otherwise, they are greeted with the 401 exception again. Now, the problem I'm having is with removing sessions. With the DELETE directive, using Ajax, I can't seem to access any parameters I've set once the request hits the service. In this case, I'm looking for the parameter entitled 'token'. I look at the raw request headers using Firebug and I notice the 'Content-Length' header changes with the size of the token being sent. This is telling me that this data is indeed being sent to the server. The question is, using PHP, how the hell to I access parameter information? It's not a POST or GET request, so I can't access it as you normally would in PHP. The parameters are within the content portion of the request. I've tried looking in $_SERVER, but that shows me limited amount of headers. I tried 'apache_request_headers()', which gives me more detailed information, but still, only for headers. I even tried 'file_get_contents('php://stdin');' and I get nothing. How can I access the content portion of a raw HTTP request? Sorry for the lengthy post, but I figured too much information is better than too little. :)

    Read the article

  • XPathNavigator in Silverlight

    - by vladimir
    I have a code library that makes heavy use of XPathNavigator to parse some specific xml document. The xml document is cross-referenced, meaning that an element can reference another which has not yet been encountered during parsing: <ElementA ...> <DependentElementX id="1234"> </ElementA> <ElementX id="1234" .../> The document doesn't really look like this, but the point is that 1) there is an xml schema that enforces the overall document structure, 2) elements inside the document can reference each other using some IDs, and 3) there is quite a few such cross references between different elements in the document. The document is parsed in two phases. In the first pass I walk through the document XPathDocument doc = ...; XPathNavigator nav = doc.CreateNavigator(); nav.MoveToRoot(); nav.MoveToFirstChild()... and occasionally 'bookmark' the current position (element) in the document using XPathNavigator.Clone() method. This gives me a lightweight instance of an XPathNavigator which I can store somewhere and use later to jump back to a particular place (element) in my document. Once I have enough information collected in the first pass (for example, I have made sure there is indeed an ElementX with an id='1234'), I jump back to saved bookmarks (using those saved XPathNavigators) and complete the parsing. Well, now I'm about to use this library in Silverlight 3.0 and to my horror the XPathNavigator is not in the System.Xml assembly. Questions: 1) Am I missing something obvious (i.e. XPathNavigator does exist in some shape or form, for example in a toolkit or a freeware library)? 2) If I do have to make modifications in the code, what would be the best way to go? Ideally, I would like to make minimal changes, not to rewrite 80% of the code just to be able to use something like XLinq. To resume, in case I have to give up XPathNavigator, all I need is a way to bookmark places in my document and to get back to them so that I can continue to iterate from where I left off. Thanks in advance for any help/ideas.

    Read the article

  • Reading Source Code Aloud

    - by Jon Purdy
    After seeing this question, I got to thinking about the various challenges that blind programmers face, and how some of them are applicable even to sighted programmers. Particularly, the problem of reading source code aloud gives me pause. I have been programming for most of my life, and I frequently tutor fellow students in programming, most often in C++ or Java. It is uniquely aggravating to try to verbally convey the essential syntax of a C++ expression. The speaker must give either an idiomatic translation into English, or a full specification of the code in verbal longhand, using explicit yet slow terms such as "opening parenthesis", "bitwise and", et cetera. Neither of these solutions is optimal. On the one hand, an idiomatic translation is only useful to a programmer who can de-translate back into the relevant programming code—which is not usually the case when tutoring a student. In turn, education (or simply getting someone up to speed on a project) is the most common situation in which source is read aloud, and there is a very small margin for error. On the other hand, a literal specification is aggravatingly slow. It takes far far longer to say "pound, include, left angle bracket, iostream, right angle bracket, newline" than it does to simply type #include <iostream>. Indeed, most experienced C++ programmers would read this merely as "include iostream", but again, inexperienced programmers abound and literal specifications are sometimes necessary. So I've had an idea for a potential solution to this problem. In C++, there is a finite set of keywords—63—and operators—54, discounting named operators and treating compound assignment operators and prefix versus postfix auto-increment and decrement as distinct. There are just a few types of literal, a similar number of grouping symbols, and the semicolon. Unless I'm utterly mistaken, that's about it. So would it not then be feasible to simply ascribe a concise, unique pronunciation to each of these distinct concepts (including one for whitespace, where it is required) and go from there? Programming languages are far more regular than natural languages, so the pronunciation could be standardised. Speakers of any language would be able to verbally convey C++ code, and due to the regularity and fixity of the language, speech-to-text software could be optimised to accept C++ speech with a high degree of accuracy. So my question is twofold: first, is my solution feasible; and second, does anyone else have other potential solutions? I intend to take suggestions from here and use them to produce a formal paper with an example implementation of my solution.

    Read the article

  • Symfony2 - PdfBundle not working

    - by ElPiter
    Using Symfony2 and PdfBundle to generate dynamically PDF files, I don't get to generate the files indeed. Following documentation instructions, I have set up all the bundle thing: autoload.php: 'Ps' => __DIR__.'/../vendor/bundles', 'PHPPdf' => __DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib', 'Imagine' => array(__DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib', __DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib/vendor/Imagine/lib'), 'Zend' => __DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib/vendor/Zend/library', 'ZendPdf' => __DIR__.'/../vendor/PHPPdf/lib/vendor/ZendPdf/library', AppKernel.php: ... new Ps\PdfBundle\PsPdfBundle(), ... I guess all the setting up is correctly configured, as I am not getting any "library not found" nor anything on that way... So, after all that, I am doing this in the controller: ... use Ps\PdfBundle\Annotation\Pdf; ... /** * @Pdf() * @Route ("/pdf", name="_pdf") * @Template() */ public function generateInvoicePDFAction($name = 'Pedro') { return $this->render('AcmeStoreBundle:Shop:generateInvoice.pdf.twig', array( 'name' => $name, )); } And having this twig file: <pdf> <dynamic-page> Hello {{ name }}! </dynamic-page> </pdf> Well. Somehow, what I just get in my page is just the normal html generated as if it was a normal Response rendering. The Pdf() annotation is supposed to give the "special" behavior of creating the PDF file instead of rendering normal HTML. So, having the above code, when I request the route http://www.mysite.com/*...*/pdf, all what I get is the following HTML rendered: <pdf> <dynamic-page> Hello Pedro! </dynamic-page> </pdf> (so a blank HTML page with just the words Hello Pedro! on it. Any clue? Am I doing anything wrong? Is it mandatory to have the alternative *.html.twig apart from the *.pdf.twig version? I don't think so... :(

    Read the article

  • Trying to retrieve the contents of UITableView cell on selection by user.

    - by chubsta
    Hi, this is my first post here and as i am very new (2 weeks in...) to iPhone (or any!) development i am a little unsure as to how much detail is needed or relevant, so please forgive me if I dont provide enough to be useful at this stage... Anyway, on to my problem - I have set up a UITableView-based app, which has a .plist for holding the data. The .plist has a dictionary as its root, followed by a number of Arrays, each containing the data-strings that display in the table. Everything is working fine until the point where i select a row. I have set it up so i get an alert with the results of the button press and it is here that i want to see the contents of the cell being produced. Instead of the expected string eg. "data line 1", all i get is the number of the row within the section. I have gone backwards and forwards but dont seem to be getting anywhere although i am sure it is something simple. The code compiles fine, with no warnings or errors, and if i can just get the string of the selected cell i will be well on my way, so any help appreciated. I know that I need to do more following the 'NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; part but thats where my mind dries up... here is the relevant 'selection' section, if i need to post more code please let me know, and i really appreciate any help with this...(please forgive my 'alert' message, i was just happy at that point that i get SOMETHING back from the row selection!) (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; NSString *message = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat: @"You selected Cell %d from this Section, "@"which is a very good choice indeed!" @"Unfortunately I can't work out how to get the info out of the cell so it's not much use at the moment!" @"Still, this is a good chance to see how much space I have in an alert box!", row]; UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"My God! It works..." message:message delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"You are awesome Karl!!" otherButtonTitles:nil]; [alert show]; [message release]; [alert release]; }

    Read the article

  • Best Practice: Legitimate Cross-Site Scripting

    - by Ryan
    While cross-site scripting is generally regarded as negative, I've run into several situations where it's necessary. I was recently working within the confines of a very limiting content management system. I needed to include database code within the page, but the hosting server didn't have anything usable available. I set up a couple barebones scripts on my own server, originally thinking that I could use AJAX to import the contents of my scripts directly into the template of the CMS (thus retaining dynamic images, menu items, CSS, etc.). I was wrong. Due to the limitations of XMLHttpRequest objects, it's not possible to grab content from a different domain. So I thought "iFrame" - even though I'm not a fan of frames, I thought that I could create a frame that matched the width and height of the content, so that it would appear native. Again, I was blocked by cross-site scripting "protections." While I could indeed load a remote file into the iFrame, I couldn't execute JavaScript to modify its size on either the host page or inside the loaded page. In this particular scenario, I wasn't able to point a subdomain to my server. I also couldn't create a script on the CMS server that could proxy content from my server, so my last thought was to use a remote JavaScript. A remote JavaScript works. It breaks when the user has JavaScript disabled, which is a downside; but it works. The "problem" I was having with using a remote JavaScript was that I had to use the JS function document.write() to output any content. Any output that isn't JS causes script errors. In addition to using document.write() for every line, you also have to ensure that the content is escaped - or else you end up with more script errors. My solution was as follows: My script received a GET parameter ("page") and then looked for the file ({$page}.php), and read the contents into a variable. However, I had to use awkward buffering techniques in order to actually execute the included scripts (for things like database interaction) then strip the final content of all line break characters ("\n") followed by escaping all required characters. The end result is that my original script (which outputs JavaScript) accesses seemingly "standard" scripts on my server and converts their standard output to JavaScript for displaying within the CMS template. While this solution works, it seems like there may be a better way to accomplish the same thing. What is the best way to make cross-site scripting work specifically for the purpose of including content from a completely different domain?

    Read the article

  • How does MySQL's ORDER BY RAND() work?

    - by Eugene
    Hi, I've been doing some research and testing on how to do fast random selection in MySQL. In the process I've faced some unexpected results and now I am not fully sure I know how ORDER BY RAND() really works. I always thought that when you do ORDER BY RAND() on the table, MySQL adds a new column to the table which is filled with random values, then it sorts data by that column and then e.g. you take the above value which got there randomly. I've done lots of googling and testing and finally found that the query Jay offers in his blog is indeed the fastest solution: SELECT * FROM Table T JOIN (SELECT CEIL(MAX(ID)*RAND()) AS ID FROM Table) AS x ON T.ID >= x.ID LIMIT 1; While common ORDER BY RAND() takes 30-40 seconds on my test table, his query does the work in 0.1 seconds. He explains how this functions in the blog so I'll just skip this and finally move to the odd thing. My table is a common table with a PRIMARY KEY id and other non-indexed stuff like username, age, etc. Here's the thing I am struggling to explain SELECT * FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*30-40 seconds*/ SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*0.25 seconds*/ SELECT id, username FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; /*90 seconds*/ I was sort of expecting to see approximately the same time for all three queries since I am always sorting on a single column. But for some reason this didn't happen. Please let me know if you any ideas about this. I have a project where I need to do fast ORDER BY RAND() and personally I would prefer to use SELECT id FROM table ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1; SELECT * FROM table WHERE id=ID_FROM_PREVIOUS_QUERY LIMIT 1; which, yes, is slower than Jay's method, however it is smaller and easier to understand. My queries are rather big ones with several JOINs and with WHERE clause and while Jay's method still works, the query grows really big and complex because I need to use all the JOINs and WHERE in the JOINed (called x in his query) sub request. Thanks for your time!

    Read the article

  • Flex - Issues with linkbar dataprovider

    - by BS_C3
    Hello Community! I'm having some issues displaying a linkbar. The data I need to display is in a XML file. However, I couldn't get the linkbar to display a xmllist (I did indeed read that you cannot set a xmlllist as a linkbar dataprovider... ). So, I'm transforming the xmllist in a array of objects. Here is some code. XML file: <data> <languages> <language id="en"> <label>ENGLISH</label> <source></source> </language> <language id="fr"> <label>FRANCAIS</label> <source></source> </language> <language id="es"> <label>ESPAÑOL</label> <source></source> </language> <language id="jp"> <label>JAPANESE</label> <source></source> </language> </languages> </data> AS Code that transforms the xmllist in an array of objects: private function init():void { var list:XMLList = generalData.languages.language; var arr:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection; var obj:Object; for(var i:int = 0; i<list.length(); i++) { obj = new Object; obj.id = list[i].@id; obj.label = list[i].label; obj.source = list[i].source; arr.addItemAt(obj, arr.length); } GlobalData.instance.languages = arr.toArray(); } Linkbar code: <mx:HBox horizontalAlign="right" width="100%"> <mx:LinkBar id="language" dataProvider="{GlobalData.instance.languages}" separatorWidth="3" labelField="{label}"/> </mx:HBox> The separator is not displaying, and neither do the label. But the array is populated (I tested it). Thanks for any help you can provide =) Regards, BS_C3

    Read the article

  • "Emulating" Application.Run using Application.DoEvents

    - by Luca
    I'm getting in trouble. I'm trying to emulate the call Application.Run using Application.DoEvents... this sounds bad, and then I accept also alternative solutions to my question... I have to handle a message pump like Application.Run does, but I need to execute code before and after the message handling. Here is the main significant snippet of code. // Create barrier (multiple kernels synchronization) sKernelBarrier = new KernelBarrier(sKernels.Count); foreach (RenderKernel k in sKernels) { // Create rendering contexts (one for each kernel) k.CreateRenderContext(); // Start render kernel kernels k.mThread = new Thread(RenderKernelMain); k.mThread.Start(k); } while (sKernelBarrier.KernelCount > 0) { // Wait untill all kernel loops has finished sKernelBarrier.WaitKernelBarrier(); // Do application events Application.DoEvents(); // Execute shared context services foreach (RenderKernelContextService s in sContextServices) s.Execute(sSharedContext); // Next kernel render loop sKernelBarrier.ReleaseKernelBarrier(); } This snippet of code is execute by the Main routine. Pratically I have a list of Kernel classes, which runs in separate threads, these threads handle a Form for rendering in OpenGL. I need to synchronize all the Kernel threads using a barrier, and this work perfectly. Of course, I need to handle Form messages in the main thread (Main routine), for every Form created, and indeed I call Application.DoEvents() to do the job. Now I have to modify the snippet above to have a common Form (simple dialog box) without consuming the 100% of CPU calling Application.DoEvents(), as Application.Run does. The goal should be to have the snippet above handle messages when arrives, and issue a rendering (releasing the barrier) only when necessary, without trying to get the maximum FPS; there should be the possibility to switch to a strict loop to render as much as possible. How could it be possible? Note: the snippet above must be executed in the Main routine, since the OpenGL context is created on the main thread. Moving the snippet in a separated thread and calling Application.Run is quite unstable and buggy...

    Read the article

  • Problem with final branch in a parallel activity

    - by Dan Revell
    This might seem like a silly thing to say, the final branch in a parallel activity so I'll clarify. It's a parallel activity with three branches each containing a simple create task, on task changed and complete task. The branch containing the task that is last to complete seems to break. So every task works in it's own right, but the last one encounters a problem. Say the user clicks the final tasks link to open the attached infopath form and submits that. Execution gets to the event handler for that onTaskChanged where a taskCompleted variable gets set to true which will exit the while loop. I've successfully hit a breakpoint on this line so I know that happens. However the final activity in that branch, the completeTask doesn't get hit. When submit is clicked in the final form, the operation in progess screen says of for quite a while before returning to the workflow status page. The task that was opened and submitted says "Not Started". I can disable any of the branches to leave only two, but the same problem happens with the last to be completed. Earlier on in the workflow I do essencially the same thing. I have another 3 branch parallel activity with each brach containing a task. This one works correctly which leads me to believe that it might be a problem with having two parallel activites in the same sequential workflow. I've considered the possibility that it might be a correlation token problem. The token that every task branch uses is unique to that branch and it's owner activity name is est to that of the branch. It stands to reason that if the task complete variable is indeed getting set to true but the while loop isn't being exited, then there's a wire crossing with the variable somewhere. However I'd still have thought that the task status back on the workflow status page would at least say that the task is in progress. This is a frustrating show stopper of a bug for me. Any thoughts or suggestions would be much appricated so I can investigate them.

    Read the article

  • How to properly test Hibernate length restriction?

    - by Cesar
    I have a POJO mapped with Hibernate for persistence. In my mapping I specify the following: <class name="ExpertiseArea"> <id name="id" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <version name="version" column="VERSION" unsaved-value="null" /> <property name="name" type="string" unique="true" not-null="true" length="100" /> ... </class> And I want to test that if I set a name longer than 100 characters, the change won't be persisted. I have a DAO where I save the entity with the following code: public T makePersistent(T entity){ transaction = getSession().beginTransaction(); transaction.begin(); try{ getSession().saveOrUpdate(entity); transaction.commit(); }catch(HibernateException e){ logger.debug(e.getMessage()); transaction.rollback(); } return entity; } Actually the code above is from a GenericDAO which all my DAOs inherit from. Then I created the following test: public void testNameLengthMustBe100orLess(){ ExpertiseArea ea = new ExpertiseArea( "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890" + "1234567890"); assertTrue("Name should be 100 characters long", ea.getName().length() == 100); ead.makePersistent(ea); List<ExpertiseArea> result = ead.findAll(); assertEquals("Size must be 1", result.size(),1); ea.setName(ea.getName()+"1234567890"); ead.makePersistent(ea); ExpertiseArea retrieved = ead.findById(ea.getId(), false); assertTrue("Both objects should be equal", retrieved.equals(ea)); assertTrue("Name should be 100 characters long", (retrieved.getName().length() == 100)); } The object is persisted ok. Then I set a name longer than 100 characters and try to save the changes, which fails: 14:12:14,608 INFO StringType:162 - could not bind value '12345678901234567890123456789012345678901234567890123456789012345678901234567890123456789012345678901234567890' to parameter: 2; data exception: string data, right truncation 14:12:14,611 WARN JDBCExceptionReporter:100 - SQL Error: -3401, SQLState: 22001 14:12:14,611 ERROR JDBCExceptionReporter:101 - data exception: string data, right truncation 14:12:14,614 ERROR AbstractFlushingEventListener:324 - Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.DataException: could not update: [com.exp.model.ExpertiseArea#33BA7E09-3A79-4C9D-888B-4263314076AF] //Stack trace 14:12:14,615 DEBUG GenericDAO:87 - could not update: [com.exp.model.ExpertiseArea#33BA7E09-3A79-4C9D-888B-4263314076AF] 14:12:14,616 DEBUG JDBCTransaction:186 - rollback 14:12:14,616 DEBUG JDBCTransaction:197 - rolled back JDBC Connection That's expected behavior. However when I retrieve the persisted object to check if its name is still 100 characters long, the test fails. The way I see it, the retrieved object should have a name that is 100 characters long, given that the attempted update failed. The last assertion fails because the name is 110 characters long now, as if the ea instance was indeed updated. What am I doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Bullet indents in PowerPoint 2007 compatibility mode via .NET interop issue

    - by L. Shaydariv
    Hello. I've got a really difficult bug and I can't see the fix. The subject drives me insane for real for a long time. Let's consider the following scenario: 1) There is a PowerPoint 2003 presentation. It contains the only slide and the only shape, but the shape contains a text frame including a bulleted list with a random textual representation structure. 2) There is a requirement to get bullet indents for every bulletted paragraph using PowerPoint 2007. I can satisfy the requirement opening the presentation in the compatibility mode and applying the following VBA script: With ActivePresentation Dim sl As Slide: Set sl = .Slides(1) Dim sh As Shape: Set sh = sl.Shapes(1) Dim i As Integer For i = 1 To sh.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs.Count Dim para As TextRange: Set para = sh.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs(i, 1) Debug.Print para.Text; para.indentLevel, sh.TextFrame.Ruler.Levels(para.indentLevel).FirstMargin Next i End With that produces the following output: A 1 0 B 1 0 C 2 24 D 3 60 E 5 132 Obviously, everything is perfect indeed: it has shown the proper list item text, list item level and its bullet indent. But I can't see the way of how I can reach the same result using C#. Let's add a COM-reference to Microsoft.Office.Interop.PowerPoint 2.9.0.0 (taken from MSPPT.OLB, MS Office 12): // presentation = ...("presentation.ppt")... // a PowerPoint 2003 presentation Slide slide = presentation.Slides[1]; Shape shape = slide.Shapes[1]; for (int i = 1; i<=shape.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs(-1, -1).Count; i++) { TextRange paragraph = shape.TextFrame.TextRange.Paragraphs(i, 1); Console.WriteLine("{0} {1} {2}", paragraph.Text, paragraph.IndentLevel, shape.TextFrame.Ruler.Levels[paragraph.IndentLevel].FirstMargin); } Oh, man... What's it? I've got problems here. First, the paragraph.Text value is trimmed until the '\r' character is found (however paragraph.Text[0] really returns the first character O_o). But it's ok, I can shut my eyes to this. But... But, second, I can't understand why the first margins are always zero and it does not matter which level they belong to. They are always zero in the compatibility mode... It's hard to believe it... :) So is there any way to fix it or just to find a workaround? I'd like to accept any help regarding to the solution of the subject. I can't even find any article related to the issue. :( Probably you have ever been face to face with it... Or is it just a bug with no fix and must it be reported to Microsoft? Thanks you.

    Read the article

  • How to combine designable components with dependency injection

    - by Wim Coenen
    When creating a designable .NET component, you are required to provide a default constructor. From the IComponent documentation: To be a component, a class must implement the IComponent interface and provide a basic constructor that requires no parameters or a single parameter of type IContainer. This makes it impossible to do dependency injection via constructor arguments. (Extra constructors could be provided, but the designer would ignore them.) Some alternatives we're considering: Service Locator Don't use dependency injection, instead use the service locator pattern to acquire dependencies. This seems to be what IComponent.Site.GetService is for. I guess we could create a reusable ISite implementation (ConfigurableServiceLocator?) which can be configured with the necessary dependencies. But how does this work in a designer context? Dependency Injection via properties Inject dependencies via properties. Provide default instances if they are necessary to show the component in a designer. Document which properties need to be injected. Inject dependencies with an Initialize method This is much like injection via properties but it keeps the list of dependencies that need to be injected in one place. This way the list of required dependencies is documented implicitly, and the compiler will assists you with errors when the list changes. Any idea what the best practice is here? How do you do it? edit: I have removed "(e.g. a WinForms UserControl)" since I intended the question to be about components in general. Components are all about inversion of control (see section 8.3.1 of the UMLv2 specification) so I don't think that "you shouldn't inject any services" is a good answer. edit 2: It took some playing with WPF and the MVVM pattern to finally "get" Mark's answer. I see now that visual controls are indeed a special case. As for using non-visual components on designer surfaces, I think the .NET component model is fundamentally incompatible with dependency injection. It appears to be designed around the service locator pattern instead. Maybe this will start to change with the infrastructure that was added in .NET 4.0 in the System.ComponentModel.Composition namespace.

    Read the article

  • Where can I find information on the Get, Set and Address methods for multidimensional System.Array i

    - by Rob Smallshire
    System.Array serves as the base class for all arrays in the Common Language Runtime (CLR). According to this article, For each concrete array type, [the] runtime adds three special methods: Get/Set/Address. and indeed if I disassemble this C# code, int[,] x = new int[1024,1024]; x[0,0] = 1; x[1,1] = 2; x[2,2] = 3; Console.WriteLine(x[0,0]); Console.WriteLine(x[1,1]); Console.WriteLine(x[2,2]); into CIL I get, IL_0000: ldc.i4 0x400 IL_0005: ldc.i4 0x400 IL_000a: newobj instance void int32[0...,0...]::.ctor(int32, int32) IL_000f: stloc.0 IL_0010: ldloc.0 IL_0011: ldc.i4.0 IL_0012: ldc.i4.0 IL_0013: ldc.i4.1 IL_0014: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_0019: ldloc.0 IL_001a: ldc.i4.1 IL_001b: ldc.i4.1 IL_001c: ldc.i4.2 IL_001d: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_0022: ldloc.0 IL_0023: ldc.i4.2 IL_0024: ldc.i4.2 IL_0025: ldc.i4.3 IL_0026: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_002b: ldloc.0 IL_002c: ldc.i4.0 IL_002d: ldc.i4.0 IL_002e: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_0033: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_0038: ldloc.0 IL_0039: ldc.i4.1 IL_003a: ldc.i4.1 IL_003b: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_0045: ldloc.0 IL_0046: ldc.i4.2 IL_0047: ldc.i4.2 IL_0048: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_004d: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) where the calls to the aforementioned Get and Set methods can be clearly seen. It seems the arity of these methods is related to the dimensionality of the array, which is presumably why they are created by the runtime and are not pre-declared. I couldn't locate any information about these methods on MSDN and their simple names makes them resistant to Googling. I'm writing a compiler for a language which supports multidimensional arrays, so I'd like to find some official documentation about these methods, under what conditions I can expect them to exist and what I can expect their signatures to be. In particular, I'd like to know whether its possible to get a MethodInfo object for Get or Set for use with Reflection.Emit without having to create an instance of the array with correct type and dimensionality on which to reflect, as is done in the linked example.

    Read the article

  • Available Coroutine Libraries in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    I would like to do some stuff in Java that would be clearer if written using concurrent routines, but for which full-on threads are serious overkill. The answer, of course, is the use of coroutines, but there doesn't appear to be any coroutine support in the standard Java libraries and a quick Google on it brings up tantalising hints here or there, but nothing substantial. Here's what I've found so far: JSIM has a coroutine class, but it looks pretty heavyweight and conflates, seemingly, with threads at points. The point of this is to reduce the complexity of full-on threading, not to add to it. Further I'm not sure that the class can be extracted from the library and used independently. Xalan has a coroutine set class that does coroutine-like stuff, but again it's dubious if this can be meaningfully extracted from the overall library. It also looks like it's implemented as a tightly-controlled form of thread pool, not as actual coroutines. There's a Google Code project which looks like what I'm after, but if anything it looks more heavyweight than using threads would be. I'm basically nervous of something that requires software to dynamically change the JVM bytecode at runtime to do its work. This looks like overkill and like something that will cause more problems than coroutines would solve. Further it looks like it doesn't implement the whole coroutine concept. By my glance-over it gives a yield feature that just returns to the invoker. Proper coroutines allow yields to transfer control to any known coroutine directly. Basically this library, heavyweight and scary as it is, only gives you support for iterators, not fully-general coroutines. The promisingly-named Coroutine for Java fails because it's a platform-specific (obviously using JNI) solution. And that's about all I've found. I know about the native JVM support for coroutines in the Da Vinci Machine and I also know about the JNI continuations trick for doing this. These are not really good solutions for me, however, as I would not necessarily have control over which VM or platform my code would run on. (Indeed any bytecode manipulation system would suffer similar problems -- it would be best were this pure Java if possible. Runtime bytecode manipulation would restrict me from using this on Android, for example.) So does anybody have any pointers? Is this even possible? If not, will it be possible in Java 7? Edited to add: Just to ensure that confusion is contained, this is a related question to my other one, but not the same. This one is looking for an existing implementation in a bid to avoid reinventing the wheel unnecessarily. The other one is a question relating to how one would go about implementing coroutines in Java should this question prove unanswerable. The intent is to keep different questions on different threads.

    Read the article

  • How to keep multiple connectionString passwords safe, separate, and easy to deploy?

    - by Funka
    I know there are plenty of questions here already about this topic (I've read through as many as I could find), but I haven't yet been able to figure out how best to satisfy my particular criteria. Here are the goals: The ASP.NET application will run on a few different web servers, including localhost workstations for development. This means encrypting web.config using a machine key is out. The application will decide which connection string to use based on the server name (using a switch statement). For example, "localhost" and "dev.example.com" will use the DevDatabaseConnectionString, "test.example.com" will use the TestDatabaseConnectionString, and "www.example.com" will use the ProdDatabaseConnectionString, for example. Ideally, the exact same executables and web.config should be able to run on any of these environments, without needing to tailor or configure each environment separately every time that we deploy (something that seems like it would be easy to forget/mess up one day during a deployment, which is why we moved away from having just one connectionstring that has to be changed on each target). Deployment is currently accomplished via FTP. We will not have command-line access to the production web server. This means using aspnet_regiis.exe is out. (I could run on localhost, however, if this would still work.) We would prefer to not have to recompile the application whenever a password changes, so using web.config (or db.config or whatever) seems to make the most sense. A developer should not be able to decrypt the production database password. If a developer checks the source code out onto their localhost laptop (which would determine that it should be using the DevDatabaseConnectionString, remember?) and the laptop gets lost or stolen, it should not be possible to get at the other connection strings. Thus, having a single RSA private key to un-encrypt all three passwords cannot be considered. (Contrary to #3 above, it does seem like we'd need to have three separate key files if we went this route; these could be installed once per machine, and should the wrong key file get deployed to the wrong server, the worst that should happen is that the app can't decrypt anything---and not allow the wrong host to access the wrong database!) I know this is probably a subjective question (asking for a "best" way to do something), but given the criteria I've mentioned, I'm hoping that a single best answer will indeed arise. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • How to use Crtl in a Delphi unit in a C++Builder project? (or link to C++Builder C runtime library)

    - by Craig Peterson
    I have a Delphi unit that is statically linking a C .obj file using the {$L xxx} directive. The C file is compiled with C++Builder's command line compiler. To satisfy the C file's runtime library dependencies (_assert, memmove, etc), I'm including the crtl unit Allen Bauer mentioned here. unit FooWrapper; interface implementation uses Crtl; // Part of the Delphi RTL {$L FooLib.obj} // Compiled with "bcc32 -q -c foolib.c" procedure Foo; cdecl; external; end. If I compile that unit in a Delphi project (.dproj) everthing works correctly. If I compile that unit in a C++Builder project (.cbproj) it fails with the error: [ILINK32 Error] Fatal: Unable to open file 'CRTL.OBJ' And indeed, there isn't a crtl.obj file in the RAD Studio install folder. There is a .dcu, but no .pas. Trying to add crtdbg to the uses clause (the C header where _assert is defined) gives an error that it can't find crtdbg.dcu. If I remove the uses clause, it instead fails with errors that __assert and _memmove aren't found. So, in a Delphi unit in a C++Builder project, how can I export functions from the C runtime library so they're available for linking? I'm already aware of Rudy Velthuis's article. I'd like to avoid manually writing Delphi wrappers if possible, since I don't need them in Delphi, and C++Builder must already include the necessary functions. Edit For anyone who wants to play along at home, the code is available in Abbrevia's Subversion repository at https://tpabbrevia.svn.sourceforge.net/svnroot/tpabbrevia/trunk. I've taken David Heffernan's advice and added a "AbCrtl.pas" unit that mimics crtl.dcu when compiled in C++Builder. That got the PPMd support working, but the Lzma and WavPack libraries both fail with link errors: [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external '_beginthreadex' referenced from ABLZMA.OBJ [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external 'sprintf' referenced from ABWAVPACK.OBJ [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external 'strncmp' referenced from ABWAVPACK.OBJ [ILINK32 Error] Error: Unresolved external '_ftol' referenced from ABWAVPACK.OBJ AFAICT, all of them are declared correctly, and the _beginthreadex one is actually declared in AbLzma.pas, so it's used by the pure Delphi compile as well. To see it yourself, just download the trunk (or just the "source" and "packages" directories), disable the {$IFDEF BCB} block at the bottom of AbDefine.inc, and try to compile the C++Builder "Abbrevia.cbproj" project.

    Read the article

  • Trying to style the first tbody different than others without introducing another class.

    - by mwiik
    I have a table with multiple tbody's, each of which has a classed row, and I want it so that the classed row in the first tbody has style differences, but am unable to get tbody:first-child to work in any browser. Perhaps I am missing something, or maybe there is a workaround. Ideally, I would like to provide the programmers with a single tbody section they can use as a template, but will otherwise have to add a class to the first tbody, making for an extra test in the programming. The html is straightforward: <tbody class="subGroup"> <tr class="subGroupHeader"> <th colspan="8">All Grades: Special Education</th> <td class="grid" colspan="2"><!-- contains AMO line --></td> <td><!-- right 100 --></td> </tr> <tr>...</tr> <!-- several more rows of data --> </tbody> There are several tbody's per table. I want to style the th and td's within tr.subGroupHeader in the very first tbody differently than the rest. Just to illustrate, I want to add a border-top to the tr.subGroupHeader cells. The tr.subGroupHeader will be styled with a border-top, such as: table.databargraph.continued tr.subGroupHeader th, table.databargraph.continued tr.subGroupHeader td { border-top: 6px solid red; } For the first tbody, I am trying: table.databargraph.continued tbody:first-child tr.subGroupHeader th { border-top: 6px solid blue ; } However, this doesn't seem to work in any browser (I've tested in Safari, Opera, Firefox, and PrinceXML, all on my Mac) Curiously, the usually excellent Xyle Scope tool indicates that the blue border should be taking precedence, though it obviously is not. See the screenshot at http://s3.amazonaws.com/ember/kUD8DHrz06xowTBK3qpB2biPJrLWTZCP_o.png This screenshot shows (top left) the American Indian th is selected, and (bottom right), shows (via black instead of gray text for the css declaration), that, indeed, the blue border should be given precedence. Yet the border is red. I may be missing something fundamental, like pseudo-classes not working for tbodys at all... This really only needs to work in PrinceXML, and maybe Safari so I can see what I'm doing with webkit-based css tools. Note I did try a selector like tr.subGroupHeader:first-child, but such tr's apparently consider the tbody the parent (as I would suspect), thus made every border blue. Thanks...

    Read the article

  • Increase efficiency for an R simulator of the Monty Hall Puzzle

    - by jahan_m
    The Monty Hall Problem is a simple puzzle involving probability that even stumps professionals in careers dealing with some heavy-duty math. Here's the basic problem: Suppose you're on a game show, and you're given the choice of three doors: Behind one door is a car; behind the others, goats. You pick a door, say No. 1, and the host, who knows what's behind the doors, opens another door, say No. 3, which has a goat. He then says to you, "Do you want to pick door No. 2?" Is it to your advantage to switch your choice? You can find numerous explanations of the solution here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monty_Hall_problem Goal of my simulation: Prove that a switching strategy will win you the car 2/3 of the time. I got curious and wanted to write a little function that simulates the problem many times and returns the proportion of wins if you switched and the proportion of wins if you stayed with your first choice. The function then plots the cumulative wins. First and foremost, I'm interested in hearing if my simulation is indeed replicating the Monty Problem, or if some aspect of the code got it wrong. Secondly, this function takes a long time to run once I get to about 10,000 simulations. I know I don't need this many simulations to prove this but I'd love to hear some ideas on how to make it more efficient. Thanks for your feedback! Monty_Hall=function(repetitions){ doors=c('A','B','C') stay_wins=0 switch_wins=0 series=data.frame(sim_num=seq(repetitions),cum_sum_stay=replicate(repetitions,0),cum_sum_switch=replicate(repetitions,0)) for(i in seq(repetitions)){ winning_door=sample(doors,1) contestant_chooses=sample(doors,1) if(contestant_chooses==winning_door) stay_wins=stay_wins+1 else switch_wins=switch_wins+1 series[i,'cum_sum_stay']=stay_wins series[i,'cum_sum_switch']=switch_wins } plot(series$sim_num,series$cum_sum_switch,col=2,ylab='Cumulative # of wins', xlab='Simulation #',main=sprintf('%d Simulations of the Monty Hall Paradox',repetitions),type='l') lines(series$sim_num,series$cum_sum_stay,col=4) legend('topleft',legend=c('Cumulative wins from switching', 'Cumulative wins from staying'),col=c(2,4),lty=1) result=list(series=series,stay_wins=stay_wins,switch_wins=switch_wins, proportion_stay_wins=stay_wins/repetitions, proportion_switch_wins=switch_wins/repetitions) return(result) } #Theory predicts that it is to the contestant's advantage if he #switches his choice to the other door. This function simulates the game #many times, and shows you the proportion of games in which staying or #switching would win the car. It also plots the cumulative wins for each strategy. Monty_Hall(100)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66  | Next Page >