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• SQL Server - Error when trying to reference a .mdf file

  - by Amokrane

  Hi, For a NUnit test I need to reference a .mdf file from a .config file. Unfortunately, I get the following error message: The FOR ATTACH option requires that at least the primary file be specified. An attempt to attach an auto-named database for file C:\....\*.mdf A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. I looked for this error on google but didn't find anything that helped me solve my problem. Any idea? Thank you

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• Is it valid to have more than one question mark in a URL?

  - by Bungle

  I came across the following URL today: http://www.sfgate.com/cgi-bin/blogs/inmarin/detail??blogid=122&entry_id=64497 Notice the doubled question mark at the beginning of the query string: ??blogid=122&entry_id=64497 My browser didn't seem to have any trouble with it, and running a quick bookmarklet: javascript:alert(document.location.search); just gave me the query string shown above. Is this a valid URL? The reason I'm being so pedantic (assuming that I am) is because I need to parse URLs like this for query parameters, and supporting doubled question marks would require some changes to my code. Obviously if they're in the wild, I'll need to support them; I'm mainly curious if it's my fault for not adhering to URL standards exactly, or if it's in fact a non-standard URL.

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• Third-party dll's in a website layout

  - by eych

  I have a solution with several projects and one website. The website uses some third-party dll's. I have to place the dll's in the bin folder under the website. This is the same bin where the dll's from the other projects get auto-loaded. Is there a way I can place the third-party dll's in a separate folder? If I 'Add Reference' to the dll when it is in a separate folder, VS always adds it to the GAC. If the separate folder is outside of the website layout, 'Add Reference' never works. My goal is have the bin folder only for auto-updated dll's, and a separate folder for third-party dll's. [This method works fine for the projects; just the website has issues]

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• Zend Framework Error:Invalid parameter number: no parameters were bound'

  - by roast_soul

  I'm using the Zend Frameworker 1.12. According to the help file, I used the Zend_Db_Statement to execute my sql. Below is my php code: $sql = "delete from options where id=?"; $stmt = new Zend_Db_Statement_Mysqli($this->getAdapter(), $sql); return $stmt->execute(array('1')); But the error is exception 'PDOException' with message 'SQLSTATE[HY093]: Invalid parameter number: no parameters were bound' in D:\Zend\workspaces\DefaultWorkspace.metadata.plugins\org.zend.php.framework.resource\resources\ZendFramework-1\library\Zend\Db\Statement\Mysqli.php:209 Stack trace: ......... ......... I googled for days, but nothing works. Any one know how to fix it?

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• Reference the oncomplete event by an external java script function

  - by user339637

  Hi , I want to do some logic at the oncomplete attribute of the a4j:commandButton ,but my logic is too complicated , can I reference the code using a java script functions located in a external java-script file to have a better maintenance ? I found it has error because the JavaScript file cannot understand the EL expression . For example , originally I have , <a4j:commandButton id="btn1" action="#{MBena1.action1}" oncomplete="if( {MBena1.variable1}){Richfaces.showModalPanel('modelPanel1');};if (......) then "> I want to do something like this: <a4j:commandButton action="#{MBena1.action1}" oncomplete="Btn1OnComplete();"> the code is put inside the java script function Btn1OnComplete() which is located in a external java-script file. Thanks

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• C++0x rvalue references - lvalues-rvalue binding

  - by Doug

  This is a follow-on question to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2748866/c0x-rvalue-references-and-temporaries In the previous question, I asked how this code should work: void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } It seems that the move overload should probably be called because of the implicit temporary, and this happens in GCC but not MSVC (or the EDG front-end used in MSVC's Intellisense). What about this code? void f(std::string &&); //NB: No const string & overload supplied void g1(const char * arg) { f(arg); } void g2(const std::string & arg) { f(arg); } It seems that, based on the answers to my previous question that function g1 is legal (and is accepted by GCC 4.3-4.5, but not by MSVC). However, GCC and MSVC both reject g2 because of clause 13.3.3.1.4/3, which prohibits lvalues from binding to rvalue ref arguments. I understand the rationale behind this - it is explained in N2831 "Fixing a safety problem with rvalue references". I also think that GCC is probably implementing this clause as intended by the authors of that paper, because the original patch to GCC was written by one of the authors (Doug Gregor). However, I don't this is quite intuitive. To me, (a) a const string & is conceptually closer to a string && than a const char *, and (b) the compiler could create a temporary string in g2, as if it were written like this: void g2(const std::string & arg) { f(std::string(arg)); } Indeed, sometimes the copy constructor is considered to be an implicit conversion operator. Syntactically, this is suggested by the form of a copy constructor, and the standard even mentions this specifically in clause 13.3.3.1.2/4, where the copy constructor for derived-base conversions is given a higher conversion rank than other implicit conversions: A conversion of an expression of class type to the same class type is given Exact Match rank, and a conversion of an expression of class type to a base class of that type is given Conversion rank, in spite of the fact that a copy/move constructor (i.e., a user-defined conversion function) is called for those cases. (I assume this is used when passing a derived class to a function like void h(Base), which takes a base class by value.) Motivation My motivation for asking this is something like the question asked in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2696156/how-to-reduce-redundant-code-when-adding-new-c0x-rvalue-reference-operator-over ("How to reduce redundant code when adding new c++0x rvalue reference operator overloads"). If you have a function that accepts a number of potentially-moveable arguments, and would move them if it can (e.g. a factory function/constructor: Object create_object(string, vector<string>, string) or the like), and want to move or copy each argument as appropriate, you quickly start writing a lot of code. If the argument types are movable, then one could just write one version that accepts the arguments by value, as above. But if the arguments are (legacy) non-movable-but-swappable classes a la C++03, and you can't change them, then writing rvalue reference overloads is more efficient. So if lvalues did bind to rvalues via an implicit copy, then you could write just one overload like create_object(legacy_string &&, legacy_vector<legacy_string> &&, legacy_string &&) and it would more or less work like providing all the combinations of rvalue/lvalue reference overloads - actual arguments that were lvalues would get copied and then bound to the arguments, actual arguments that were rvalues would get directly bound. Questions My questions are then: Is this a valid interpretation of the standard? It seems that it's not the conventional or intended one, at any rate. Does it make intuitive sense? Is there a problem with this idea that I"m not seeing? It seems like you could get copies being quietly created when that's not exactly expected, but that's the status quo in places in C++03 anyway. Also, it would make some overloads viable when they're currently not, but I don't see it being a problem in practice. Is this a significant enough improvement that it would be worth making e.g. an experimental patch for GCC?

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• Java generics: Illegal forward reference

  - by Arian

  Given a generic interface interface Foo<A, B> { } I want to write an implementation that requires A to be a subclass of B. So I want to do class Bar<A, B super A> implements Foo<A, B> { } // --> Syntax error or class Bar<A extends B, B> implements Foo<A, B> { } // --> illegal forward reference But the only solution that seems to work is this: class Bar<B, A extends B> implements Foo<A, B> { } which is kind of ugly, because it reverses the order of the generic parameters. Are there any solutions or workarounds to this problem?

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• Python and urllib2: how to make a GET request with parameters

  - by Infinity

  I'm building an "API API", it basically a wrapper for a in house REST web service that the web app will be making a lot of requests to. Some of the web service calls need to be GET rather than post, but passing parameters. Is there a "best practice" way to encode a dictionary into a query string? e.g.: ?foo=bar&bla=blah I'm looking at the urllib2 docs, and it looks like it decides by itself wether to use POST or GET based on if you pass params or not, but maybe someone knows how to make it transform the params dictionary into a GET request. Maybe there's a package for something like this out there? It would be great if it supported keep-alive, as the web server will be constantly requesting things from the REST service. Thanks!

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• MVVM View reference to ViewModel

  - by BrettRobi

  I'm using MVVM in a WPF app. I'm very new to both. Let me state that I am not a purest in the MVVM pattern, I am trying to use as many best practices as I can but am trying to make what I think are reasonable compromises to make it work in our environment. For example, I am not trying to achieve 0% code in my View codebehind. I have a couple of questions about best practices. 1) I understand I don't want my VM to know about the attached View, but is it reasonable for the View to have a reference to its VM? 2) If a control in a View opens another View (such as a dialog) should I handle this in the View? It seems wrong to handle it in the VM since then the VM has some knowledge of a specific View.

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• How can I create a collection of references in C#

  - by Jonathan Kaufman

  Ok I am having a cross language hiccup. In C# with it's great collections like List and I have: a Map class with properties of: List<byte[]> Images; List<Tile> Tiles; a Tile Class of: byte[] ImageData; int X; int Y; Now I want to add an image to the Map class and have the ImageData property of the Tile Classes to "reference" it. I have discovered I can't just assign it Images[0]. You can't have a reference to an object of a List. My fix was to create a Dictionary. Is this the best way or can I somehow have a "pointer" to a collection of objects?

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• How can I reference a drawable class in Android XML

  - by James Veenstra

  I've created a class that extends drawable that I'd like to reference inside a resource xml. I happen to need it in a selector, like so: <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_window_focused="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="com.sample.android.contacts.TopBarCollapsed" /> <item android:state_window_focused="true" android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/top_switcher_collapsed_selected" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/top_switcher_collapsed_focused" /> com.sample.android.contacts.TopBarCollapsed is the class that extends drawable.

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• How can I type cast EventArgs to have a .point property in c#? [closed]

  - by Sean Smyth

  I'm working with a double click function in c#. the function takes an object and EventArgs as it's parameters: private void gvHL7_DoubleClick(object sender, EventArgs e){ . . . } However, I want to use the .Point property, and EventArgs doesn't have that property. I know that DevExpress.XtraGrid.Views.Grid.GridMenuEventArgs does, but it's saying that's an invalid casting. What type should I cast my EventArgs instance to if I wish to access the .Point property? Edit: The double click function I'm working with is provided by devexpress for their grids.

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• Autofac: Reference from a SingleInstance'd type to a HttpRequestScoped

  - by Michael Wagner

  I've got an application where a shared object needs a reference to a per-request object. Shared: Engine | Per Req: IExtensions() | Request If i try to inject the IExtensions directly into the constructor of Engine, even as Lazy(Of IExtension), I get a "No scope matching [Request] is visible from the scope in which the instance was requested." exception when it tries to instantiate each IExtension. How can I create a HttpRequestScoped instance and then inject it into a shared instance? Would it be considered good practice to set it in the Request's factory (and therefore inject Engine into RequestFactory)?

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• PUT parameters not working in python / google app engine

  - by magegu

  hi, i'm working on a simple RESTful webservice with python with the webapp framework on the google app engine. Basically i'm sending all request via AJAX/jquery - for POST it works like a charm, but when I'm sending data with PUT, the parameters are empty / not processed. this is my PUT: $.ajax({ type: "PUT", url: "/boxes", data: { name: this.name, archived: this.archived }, success: function(msg){ } }); firebug saids i'm putting: Parameter application/x-www-form-urlencoded archived false name 123112323asdasd but using this python code: from google.appengine.ext import webapp from google.appengine.ext.webapp import util, template from google.appengine.ext import db from google.appengine.api.datastore_types import * from django.utils import simplejson as json import cgi import datetime class BoxHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def post(self): #working print "test" self.response.out.write(self.request.get("name")) def put(self): print "test" #not working self.response.out.write(self.request.get("name")) will just return test Status: 200 OK Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Cache-Control: no-cache Expires: Fri, 01 Jan 1990 00:00:00 GMT Content-Length: 0 so .. hm, is there anything i'm missing here? cheers, Martin

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• Can I destroy a class instance even if there are still references?

  - by DR

  For debugging reasons I want to destroy a class instance which still as references. Is that possible? It doesn't have to be elegant or stable, because this'll never end up in production code. To clarify: Public Sub Main Dim o as MyClass Set o = New MyClass //o is created, one reference DestroyObject o //Class_Terminate is called and the object destroyed //Further code, not using o End Sub //Possible runtime error here (don't care) Is that possible? One way would be to call IUnknown::Release to manually decrease the reference count, but how do I now how often I must call it?

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• Generic Lists copying references rather than creating a copiedList

  - by Dean

  I was developing a small function when trying to run an enumerator across a list and then carry out some action. (Below is an idea of what I was trying to do. When trying to remove I got a "Collection cannot be modified" which after I had actually woken up I realised that tempList must have just been assigned myLists reference rather than a copy of myLists. After that I tried to find a way to say tempList = myList.copy However nothing seems to exist?? I ended up writing a small for loop that then just added each item from myLsit into tempList but I would have thought there would have been another mechanism (like clone??) So my question(s): is my assumption about tempList receiving a reference to myList correct How should a list be copied to another list? private myList as List (Of something) sub new() myList.add(new Something) end sub sub myCalledFunction() dim tempList as new List (Of Something) tempList = myList Using i as IEnumerator = myList.getEnumarator while i.moveNext 'if some critria is met then tempList.remove(i.current) end end using end sub

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• Storing DOM reference elements in Javascript array

  - by webzide

  Dear experts, I was trying to dynamically generate DOM elements using JS. I read from Douglas Crockford's book that DOM is very very poorly structured. Anyways, I would like to create a number of DIVISION elements and store the reference into an array so it could be accessed later. Here's the code for(i=0;i<3;i++){ var div=document.body.appendChild(document.createElement("div")); var arr=new Array(); arr.push(div); } Somehow this would not work..... There is only 1 div element created. When I use the arr.length to test the code there is only 1 element in the array. Is there another way to accomplish this. THanks in advance

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• Getting the rows cell to line up with parameters in a sp c# winform

  - by Yaron Buki

  I am using a datagridview on a win app designed in c#2010 express. In the _row leave event of my datagrid I would like to use the TableAdapter.usp_insert() that I created. But how does one match up the data in the cells of the datagridview row to the parameters in the stored procedure. Thanks in advance I appreciate the education. This is what if found so far! Int i; i = datagridview1.SelectedCells[0].RowIndex; ... .... Eventually string id = dataGridView1.Rows[i].cell[0].Value.ToString(); @para1 = id; Etc.. What do you think?

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• how to get http get request params in jsf 2.0 bakcing bean?

  - by Marko

  Hi all, I having trouble with passing http get parameters to jsf 2.0 backing bean. User will invoke URl with some params containing id of some entity, which is later used to persist some other entity in db. whole process can be summarized by fallowing: 1. user open page http://www.somhost.com/JsfApp/step-one.xhtml?sid=1 2. user fills some data and goes to next page 3. user fills some more data and then entity is saved to db with sid param from step one. I have session scoped backing bean that hold data from all the pages (steps), but I cant pass param to bean property.. any ideas?

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• Basic class returns onject reference instead of Array

  - by php-b-grader

  I have very basic class: class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; return $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); return $this->customer; } } $customer = new Customer($order->customer->id); print_r($customer); This is not doing what I want it to but I understand why... $customer returns a reference to the Customer Object... But what I want is the MySQL row array from the mysql_fetch_row() call... What am I missing?

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• Activator.CreateInstance with type name as string and including parameters

  - by Kelly

  I am working in .Net 3.5, looking at all the various constructors for Activator.CreateInstance. I want to create an instance of a class, calling a particular constructor. I do not have the class type, only its name. I have the following, which works, but actually winds up calling the parameterless constructor first, then the one I want. This is not a terribly big deal, but the parameterless constructor calls a rather busy base constructor, and the constructor I want to call does, too. In other words, given a type, calling CreateInstance with parameters is easy (only the last two lines below), but given only a type name, is there a better way than this? ObjectHandle oh = Activator.CreateInstance( "MyDllName", "MyNS." + "MyClassName" ); object o = oh.Unwrap( ); object newObj = Activator.CreateInstance( o.GetType( ), new object[] { param1 } ); return ( IMyDesiredObject )newObject; Thanks!

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• How to reset Scrapy parameters? (always running under same parameters)

  - by Jean Ventura

  I've been running my Scrapy project with a couple of accounts (the project scrapes a especific site that requieres login credentials), but no matter the parameters I set, it always runs with the same ones (same credentials). I'm running under virtualenv. Is there a variable or setting I'm missing? Edit: It seems that this problem is Twisted related. Even when I run: scrapy crawl -a user='user' -a password='pass' -o items.json -t json SpiderName I still get an error saying: ERROR: twisted.internet.error.ReactorNotRestartable And all the information I get, is the last 'succesful' run of the spider.

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• Using Report (Reporting Services) parameter values in ASP.NET page

  - by noup

  I have a report (Reporting Services) integrated into an ASP.NET that shows dropdownlists to select report parameter values. The dropdownlists are populated using direct database selects, though I see the report RDL files do contain the paramter values and datasets as defined in the report designer. Is it possible to obtain the report parameters "available values" in ASP.NET to populate the dropdownlists? This would avoid some code duplication. Update If the parameter doesn't use a query for available values, the following works: foreach (ValidValue value in this.ReportViewerControl.ServerReport.GetParameters()["myParameter"].ValidValues) { this.DropDownListControl.Items.Add(new ListItem(value.Label, value.Value)); } Still haven't found a way to access report datasets though...

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• Javascript function as a parameter to another function?

  - by Alex

  Hello there, I'm learning lots of javascript these days, and one of the things I'm not quite understanding is passing functions as parameters to other functions. I get the concept of doing such things, but I myself can't come up with any situations where this would be ideal? My question is: When do you want to have your javascript functions take another function as a parameter? Why not just assign a variable to that functions return value and pass that variable to the function like so: // Why not do this var foo = doStuff(params); callerFunction(foo); //instead of this callerFunction(doStuff); I'm confused as to why I would ever choose to do things as in my second example. Why would you do this? What are the use cases? Thanks!!

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• Linq DataContext.Log - logging sql comman with parameters

  - by dzajdol

  Hi. I using Linq DataContext.Log and I want to save sql command with parameters. how may I do this?? Now to log is writing: SELECT [t0].[Id_User], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[UserName], [t0].[Password], [t0].[District_Id], [t0].[Active], [t0].[MobileDevice_Id], [t0].[IsMobile], [t0].[IsWWW], [t0].[IsWholesaler], [t0].[Acc_Admin], [t0].[Warehouse_Id], [t0].[PIN], [t0].[ValidFrom], [t0].[ValidTo], [t0].[IsExternal], [t0].[UserType], [t0].[DefaultDepartment_Id], [t0].[Code], [t0].[RowsOnPage], [t0].[ClientGroup_Id], [t0].[ClientGroup2_Id], [t0].[ServerHash], [t0].[CanOrderInPacks], [t0].[Email], [t0].[IsAdmin], [t0].[HasAccessToAllInferiorsData], [t0].[IsSupplier], [t0].[Position], [t0].[syncstamp] AS [Syncstamp], [t0].[Source], [t0].[Deleted], [t0].[DefaultClient_Id] FROM [dbo].[Users] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[UserName] = @p0) AND ([t0].[Deleted] = @p1) I want write @p0 and @p1 to log Regards

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