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  • Cannot read value from SYS_CONTEXT

    - by AppleGrew
    I have a PL/SQL procedure which sets some variable in user session, like the following:- Dbms_Session.Set_Context( NAMESPACE =>'MY_CTX', ATTRIBUTE => 'FLAG_NAME', Value => 'some value'); Just after this (in the same procedure), I try to read the value of this flag, using:- SYS_CONTEXT('MY_CTX', 'FLAG_NAME'); The above returns nothing. How did the DB lose this value? The weirder part is that if I invoke this proc directly from Oracle SQL Developer then it works. It doesn't work when I invoke this proc from my web application from callable statement. --EDIT-- Added an example as to how we are invoking the proc from our Java code. String statement = "Begin package_name.proc_name( flag_val => :1); END;"; OracleCallableStatement st = <some object by some framework> .createCallableStatement(statement); st.setString(1, 'flag value'); st.execute(); st.close();

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  • How do I get the inserted id (or object) after an insert with the FormView/ObjectDataSource controls

    - by drs9222
    I have a series of classes that loosely fit the following pattern: public class CustomerInfo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } public class CustomerTable { public bool Insert(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public bool Update(CustomerInfo info) { /*...*/ } public CustomerInfo Get(int id) { /*...*/ } /*...*/ } After a successful insert the Insert method will set the Id property of the CustomerInfo object that was passed in. I've used these classes in several places and would prefer to altering them. Now I'm experimenting with writing an ASP.NET page for inserting and updating the records. I'm currently using the ObjectDataSource and FormView controls: <asp:ObjectDataSource TypeName="CustomerTable" DataObjectTypeName="CustomerInfo" InsertMethod="Insert" UpdateMethod="Update" SelectMethod="Get" /> I can successfully Insert and Update records. I would like to switch the FormView's mode from Insert to Edit after a successful insert. My first attempt was to switch the mode in the ItemInserted event. This of course did not work. I was using a QueryStringParameter for the id which of course wan't set when inserting. So, I switched to manually populating the InputParameters during the ObjectDataSource's Selecting event. The problem with this is I need to know the id of the newly inserted record which I can't find a good way to get. I understand that I can access the Insert method's return value, and out parameters in the ItemInserted event of course my method doesn't return the id using any of these methods. I can't find anyway to access the id or the CustomerInfo object that was inserted after the insert completes. The best I've been able to do is to save the CustomerInfo object in the ObjectDataSource's Inserting event. This feels like an odd way to do this. I figure that there must be a better way to do this and I'll kick myself when I see it. Any ideas?

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  • Use Objective-C without NSObject?

    - by Alex I
    I am testing some simple Objective-C code on Windows (cygwin, gcc). This code already works in Xcode on Mac. I would like to convert my objects to not subclass NSObject (or anything else, lol). Is this possible, and how? What I have so far: // MyObject.h @interface MyObject - (void)myMethod:(int) param; @end and // MyObject.m #include "MyObject.h" @interface MyObject() { // this line is a syntax error, why? int _field; } @end @implementation MyObject - (id)init { // what goes in here? return self; } - (void)myMethod:(int) param { _field = param; } @end What happens when I try compiling it: gcc -o test MyObject.m -lobjc MyObject.m:4:1: error: expected identifier or ‘(’ before ‘{’ token MyObject.m: In function ‘-[MyObject myMethod:]’: MyObject.m:17:3: error: ‘_field’ undeclared (first use in this function) EDIT My compiler is cygwin's gcc, also has cygwin gcc-objc package: gcc --version gcc (GCC) 4.7.3 I have tried looking for this online and in a couple of Objective-C tutorials, but every example of a class I have found inherits from NSObject. Is it really impossible to write Objective-C without Cocoa or some kind of Cocoa replacement that provides NSObject? (Yes, I know about GNUstep. I would really rather avoid that if possible...)

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  • Embedding/deploying custom font in .NET app

    - by Swingline Rage
    Is there an official way to distribute (deploy) a specific font with a .NET application? We have a (public domain) "LED font" that prints numbers with the retro LED instrumentface look. This is a standard True Type or Open Type font like any other except it looks funky. Obviously for that to work, this font needs to be on the user's machine. But we'd prefer to not force the user to "install our special font into your font folder". We'd prefer to either load a Font object directly from the TTF, or programatically install the font so it's available. How do applications handle this sort of things? Eg, I notice Adobe XYZ installs various fonts on the system without user intervention. That's what we'd like to do. EDIT: okay, ideally, we'd prefer not to install the font directly. We don't want our nifty themed LED font showing up in the user's font dropdown in MS Word. We'd prefer to use this font, but restrict its use or appearance to our app. Any way to do this? Thanks!

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  • Should I go vor Arrays or Objects in PHP in a CouchDB/Ajax app?

    - by karlthorwald
    I find myself converting between array and object all the time in PHP application that uses couchDB and Ajax. Of course I am also converting objects to JSON and back (for sometimes couchdb but mostly Ajax), but this is not so much disturbing my workflow. At the present I have php objects that are returned by the CouchDB modules I use and on the other hand I have the old habbit to return arrays like array("error"="not found","data"=$dataObj) from my functions. This leads to a mixed occurence of real php objects and nested arrays and I cast with (object) or (array) if necessary. The worst thing is that I know more or less by heart what a function returns, but not what type (array or object), so I often run into type errors. My plan is now to always cast arrays to objects before returning from a function. Of course this implies a lot of refactoring. Is this the right way to go? What about the conversion overhead? Other ideas or tips? Edit: Kenaniah's answer suggests I should go the other way, this would mean I'd cast everything to arrays. And for all the Ajax / JSON stuff and also for CouchDB I would use $myarray = json_decode($json_data,$assoc = false) Even more work to change all the CouchDB and Ajax functions but in the end I have better code.

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • Localization: How to allow the user to define custom resources without compiling?

    - by gehho
    In our application, we have a collection of data items, each with a DisplayedName property. This property should be localized, i.e. it should be displayed in the language selected by the user. Therefore, another property, DisplayedNameResourceKey, specifies which resource should be returned by the DisplayedName property. In simplified code this means something like this: public string DisplayedName { get { return MyResources.ResourceManager.GetObject(this.DisplayedNameResourceKey); } } public string DisplayedNameResourceKey { get; set; } Now, the problem is: The user should be able to edit these items including the DisplayedName, or more precisely the DisplayedNameResourceKey. And not only this, but the user should also be able to somehow define new resources which he can then reference. That is, he can either choose from a predefined set of resources (some commonly used names), or define a custom resource which then needs to be localized by the user as well. However, the user cannot add custom resources to MyResources at runtime and without compiling. Therefore, another approach is needed. It does not have to be an extremely user-friendly way (e.g. UI is not required) because this will typically be done by our service engineers. I was thinking about using a txt or csv file containing pairs of resource keys and the corresponding translations. A separate file would exist for every language at a predefined location. But I am not really satisfied with that idea because it involves a lot of work to resolve the resources. Does anyone know a good approach for such a situation?

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  • Thread Local Memory, Using std::string's internal buffer for c-style Scratch Memory.

    - by Hassan Syed
    I am using Protocol Buffers and OpensSSL to generate, HMACs and then CBC encrypt the two fields to obfuscate the session cookies -- similar Kerberos tokens. Protocol Buffers' API communicates with std::strings and has a buffer caching mechanism; I exploit the caching mechanism, for successive calls in the the same thread, by placing it in thread local memory; additionally the OpenSSL HMAC and EVP CTX's are also placed in the same thread local memory structure ( see this question for some detail on why I use thread local memory and the massive amount of speedup it enables even with a single thread). The generation and deserialization, "my algorithms", of these cookie strings uses intermediary void *s and std::strings and since Protocol Buffers has an internal memory retention mechanism I want these characteristics for "my algorithms". So how do I implement a common scratch memory ? I don't know much about the rdbuf(streambuf - strinbuf ??) of the std::string object. I would presumeably need to grow it to the lowest common size ever encountered during the execution of "my algorithms". Thoughts ? My question I guess would be: " is the internal buffer of a string re-usable, and if so, how ?" Edit: See comments to Vlad's answer please.

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  • Can't Install libcurl PHP on Ubuntu Linux

    - by FranticPedantic
    I am trying to use the new facebook api and it requires libcurl PHP. I used sudo apt-get install php5-curl sudo apachectl -k restart And it didn't work. I get the same error and the phpinfo() page says nothing about libcurl. The source of this problem is probably that I built some of the tools from source (apache2, php), but then I got bored so installed a lot of the extensions with the package manager. But I'm not exactly how to go about diagnosing the point of failure. The apt-get install for curl definitely worked, and can be found in /usr/lib/php5/20060613/curl.so I think a lot of my confusion stems from not knowing which files go where, and what purpose they have. Any help would be appreciated, and please tell me if I need to provide more information. edit: The specific error I get is: Exception: Facebook needs the CURL PHP extension. from line if (!function_exists('curl_init')) { throw new Exception('Facebook needs the CURL PHP extension.'); } Ubuntu: 9.10 PHP: 5.2.13 Loaded Configuration File: /etc/php5/apache2/php.ini

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  • Binding a date string parameter in an MS Access PDO query

    - by harryg
    I've made a PDO database class which I use to run queries on an MS Access database. When querying using a date condition, as is common in SQL, dates are passed as a string. Access usually expects the date to be surrounded in hashes however. E.g. SELECT transactions.amount FROM transactions WHERE transactions.date = #2013-05-25#; If I where to run this query using PDO I might do the following. //instatiate pdo connection etc... resulting in a $db object $stmt = $db->prepare('SELECT transactions.amount FROM transactions WHERE transactions.date = #:mydate#;'); //prepare the query $stmt->bindValue('mydate', '2013-05-25', PDO::PARAM_STR); //bind the date as a string $stmt->execute(); //run it $result = $stmt->fetch(); //get the results As far as my understanding goes the statement that results from the above would look like this as binding a string results in it being surrounded by quotes: SELECT transactions.amount FROM transactions WHERE transactions.date = #'2013-05-25'#; This causes an error and prevents the statement from running. What's the best way to bind a date string in PDO without causing this error? I'm currently resorting to sprintf-ing the string which I'm sure is bad practise. Edit: if I pass the hash-surrounded date then I still get the error as below: Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'PDOException' with message 'SQLSTATE[22018]: Invalid character value for cast specification: -3030 [Microsoft][ODBC Microsoft Access Driver] Data type mismatch in criteria expression. (SQLExecute[-3030] at ext\pdo_odbc\odbc_stmt.c:254)' in C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php:49 Stack trace: #0 C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php(49): PDOStatement-execute() #1 C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php(52): database-execute() #2 C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\try2.php(12): database-resultset() #3 {main} thrown in C:\xampp\htdocs\ips\php\classes.php on line 49

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  • ASP.NET webservice API security.

    - by Tejaswi Yerukalapudi
    Hi, I have an iPhone app accessing an ASP.NET Webservice for data. Since I'm building both the ASP.NET end and the iPhone part of the app, and we'll shortly be publishing it in the Appstore, I'd like to know what security checks I need to make. The basic flow of the program (without divulging too much info about it) is as follows - . Login (Enter Username, pass on the app) . Primary screen where the data is loaded from a webservice and presented . And post data back after a few updates by the user I'm using POST to send the data to the Webservice via HTTPS. I'm sanitizing the inputs, checking for length of the inputs, but that's the limit of my knowledge as far as security goes. Any other tips are greatly appreciated! Edit: I should probably add that our service needs to be subscribed to separately and the iPhone component of it cannot be used alone. So the average user will not have login credentials. And the app itself has healthcare data in it, so I'd rather not have anyone trying attacks from my login page. Thanks, Teja.

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  • Why won't VS2010 RC use my existing types when I add a service reference?

    - by Johan Driessen
    I have a huge problem getting services references in VS2010 RC to use existing assemblies. Even though I have a class library with all the data contracts (classes marked with DataContract and properties with DataMember) that is shared between the service project and the consuming project (which is a class library), when I add a service reference, the data contracts are regenerated withing the service reference instead of using the existing types. When I was using VS2010 beta 2, this worked fine, and I have existing service references using the very same data contracts. But if I add a new service reference, or even update an old one, it won't use the existing types anymore. I have made a mini-test-solution, with one service, one data contract type and one console app as a consumer (all in the same solution), and there it seems to work, but that's no great comfort to me. Is there any way to see why it can't use the existing types? Edit to clearify. It works to generate the proxy classes with svcutil.exe, and point to the data contracts dll, like this: svcutil.exe http://localhost/MyService.svc /reference:[Path To DataContracts]\DataContracts.dll /n:*,MyProject.MyServiceReference /ct:System.Collections.Generic.List`1 The question is, what possible reason could there be for Visual Studio to generate its own datacontracts instead of using the existing ones even though the "reuse" checkbox is checked and the datacontracts assembly is referenced.

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  • Use of var keyword in C#

    - by kronoz
    After discussion with colleagues regarding the use of the 'var' keyword in C# 3 I wondered what people's opinions were on the appropriate uses of type inference via var? For example I rather lazily used var in questionable circumstances, e.g.:- foreach(var item in someList) { // ... } // Type of 'item' not clear. var something = someObject.SomeProperty; // Type of 'something' not clear. var something = someMethod(); // Type of 'something' not clear. More legitimate uses of var are as follows:- var l = new List<string>(); // Obvious what l will be. var s = new SomeClass(); // Obvious what s will be. Interestingly LINQ seems to be a bit of a grey area, e.g.:- var results = from r in dataContext.SomeTable select r; // Not *entirely clear* what results will be here. It's clear what results will be in that it will be a type which implements IEnumerable, however it isn't entirely obvious in the same way a var declaring a new object is. It's even worse when it comes to LINQ to objects, e.g.:- var results = from item in someList where item != 3 select item; This is no better than the equivilent foreach(var item in someList) { // ... } equivilent. There is a real concern about type safety here - for example if we were to place the results of that query into an overloaded method that accepted IEnumerable<int> and IEnumerable<double> the caller might inadvertently pass in the wrong type. Edit - var does maintain strong typing but the question is really whether it's dangerous for the type to not be immediately apparent on definition, something which is magnified when overloads mean compiler errors might not be issued when you unintentionally pass the wrong type to a method. Related Question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/633474/c-do-you-use-var

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  • Django Threaded Commenting System

    - by Yasin Ozel
    (and sorry for my english) I am learning Python and Django. Now, my challange is developing threaded generic comment system. There is two models, Post and Comment. -Post can be commented. -Comment can be commented. (endless/threaded) -Should not be a n+1 query problem in system. (No matter how many comments, should not increase the number of queries) My current models are like this: class Post(models.Model): title = models.CharField(max_length=100) content = models.TextField() child = generic.GenericRelation( 'Comment', content_type_field='parent_content_type', object_id_field='parent_object_id' ) class Comment(models.Model): content = models.TextField() child = generic.GenericRelation( 'self', content_type_field='parent_content_type', object_id_field='parent_object_id' ) parent_content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) parent_object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() parent = generic.GenericForeignKey( "parent_content_type", "parent_object_id") Are my models right? And how can i get all comment (with hierarchy) of post, without n+1 query problem? Note: I know mttp and other modules but I want to learn this system. Edit: I run "Post.objects.all().prefetch_related("child").get(pk=1)" command and this gave me post and its child comment. But when I wanna get child command of child command a new query is running. I can change command to ...prefetch_related("child__child__child...")... then still a new query running for every depth of child-parent relationship. Is there anyone who has idea about resolve this problem?

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  • How to gray out HTML form inputs?

    - by typoknig
    What is the best way to gray out text inputs on an HTML form? I need the inputs to be grayed out when a user checks a check box. Do I have to use JavaScript for this (not very familiar with JScript) or can I use PHP (which I am more familiar with)? EDIT: After some reading I have got a little bit of code, but it is giving me problems. For some reason I cannot get my script to work based on the state of the form input (enabled or disabled) or the state of my checkbox (checked or unchecked), but my script works fine when I base it on the values of the form inputs. I have written my code exactly like several examples online (mainly this one) but to no avail. None of the stuff that is commented out will work. What am I doing wrong here? <label>Mailing address same as residental address</label> <input name="checkbox" onclick="disable_enable() "type="checkbox" style="width:15px"/><br/><br/> <script type="text/javascript"> function disable_enable(){ if (document.form.mail_street_address.value==1) document.form.mail_street_address.value=0; //document.form.mail_street_address.disabled=true; //document.form.mail_city.disabled=true; //document.form.mail_state.disabled=true; //document.form.mail_zip.disabled=true; else document.form.mail_street_address.value=1; //document.form.mail_street.disabled=false; //document.form.mail_city.disabled=false; //document.form.mail_state.disabled=false; //document.form.mail_zip.disabled=false; } </script>

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  • Rails has_many conditions

    - by user305270
    c = "(f.profile_id = #{self.id} OR f.friend_id = #{self.id})" c += AND + "(CASE WHEN f.profile_id=#{self.id} THEN f.friend_id ELSE f.profile_id END = p.id)" c += AND + "(CASE WHEN f.profile_id=#{self.id} THEN f.profile_rejected ELSE f.friend_rejected END = 1)" c += AND + "(p.banned = 0)" I need this to be used in a has_many relationship like this: has_many :removed_friends, :conditions => ??? how do i set there the self.id?, or how do i pass there the id? Then i want to use the will_paginate plugin: @profile.removed_friends.paginate(:page => 1, :per_page => 20) Thanks for your help EDIT: class Profile < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :friendships has_many :removed_friends, :class_name => 'Profile', :through => :friendships, :conditions => "(friendships.profile_id = #{self.id} OR friendships.friend_id = #{self.id})" "AND (CASE WHEN friendships.profile_id=#{self.id} THEN friendships.profile_rejected ELSE friendships.friend_rejected END = 1)" + "AND (p.banned = 0)" end class Friendship < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :profile belongs_to :removed_friend, :class_name => 'Profile', :foreign_key => "(CASE WHEN friendships.profile_id = #{self.id} THEN friend_id ELSE profile_id END)" end

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  • Extension methods conflict

    - by Yochai Timmer
    Lets say I have 2 extension methods to string, in 2 different namespaces: namespace test1 { public static class MyExtensions { public static int TestMethod(this String str) { return 1; } } } namespace test2 { public static class MyExtensions2 { public static int TestMethod(this String str) { return 2; } } } These methods are just for example, they don't really do anything. Now lets consider this piece of code: using System; using test1; using test2; namespace blah { public static class Blah { public Blah() { string a = "test"; int i = a.TestMethod(); //Which one is chosen ? } } } I know that only one of the extension methods will be chosen. Which one will it be ? and why ? How can I choose a certain method from a certain namespace ? Edit: Usually I'd use Namespace.ClassNAME.Method() ... But that just beats the whole idea of extension methods. And I don't think you can use Variable.Namespace.Method()

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  • Getting Error When Opening Files

    - by Nathan Campos
    I'm developing a simple Text Editor to understand better PocketC language, then I've done this: #include "\\Storage Card\\My Documents\\PocketC\\Parrot\\defines.pc" int filehandle; int file_len; string file_mode; initComponents() { createctrl("EDIT", "test", 2, 1, 0, 24, 70, 25, TEXTBOX); wndshow(TEXTBOX, SW_SHOW); guigetfocus(); } main() { filehandle = fileopen(OpenFileDlg("Plain Text Files (*.txt)|*.txt; All Files (*.*)|*.*"), 0, FILE_READWRITE); file_len = filegetlen(filehandle); if(filehandle = -1) { MessageBox("File Could Not Be Found!", "Error", 3, 1); } initComponents(); editset(TEXTBOX, fileread(filehandle, file_len)); } Then I tried to run the application, it opens the Open File Dialog, I select a file(that is at \test.txt) that I've created with notepad, then I got my MessageBox saying that the file wans't found. Then I want to know why I'm getting this if the file is all correct? *PS: When I click to exit the MessageBox, I saw that the TextBox is displaying where the file is(I've tested with many other files, and with all I got the error and this).

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  • Calculating bounding box a certain distance away from a lat/long coordinate in Java

    - by Bryce Thomas
    Given a coordinate (lat, long), I am trying to calculate a square bounding box that is a given distance (e.g. 50km) away from the coordinate. So as input I have lat, long and distance and as output I would like two coordinates; one being the south-west (bottom-left) corner and one being the north-east (top-right) corner. I have seen a couple of answers on here that try to address this question in Python, but I am looking for a Java implementation in particular. Just to be clear, I intend on using the algorithm on Earth only and so I don't need to accommodate a variable radius. It doesn't have to be hugely accurate (+/-20% is fine) and it'll only be used to calculate bounding boxes over small distances (no more than 150km). So I'm happy to sacrifice some accuracy for an efficient algorithm. Any help is much appreciated. Edit: I should have been clearer, I really am after a square, not a circle. I understand that the distance between the center of a square and various points along the square's perimeter is not a constant value like it is with a circle. I guess what I mean is a square where if you draw a line from the center to any one of the four points on the perimeter that results in a line perpendicular to a side of the perimeter, then those 4 lines have the same length.

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  • C# Byte[] to Url Friendly String

    - by LorenVS
    Hello, I'm working on a quick captcha generator for a simple site I'm putting together, and I'm hoping to pass an encrypted key in the url of the page. I could probably do this as a query string parameter easy enough, but I'm hoping not too (just because nothing else runs off the query string)... My encryption code produces a byte[], which is then transformed using Convert.ToBase64String(byte[]) into a string. This string, however, is still not quite url friendly, as it can contain things like '/' and '='. Does anyone know of a better function in the .NET framework to convert a byte array to a url friendly string? I know all about System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode() and its equivalents, however, they only work properly with query string parameters. If I url encode an '=' inside of the path, my web server brings back a 400 Bad Request error. Anyways, not a critical issue, but hoping someone can give me a nice solution **EDIT: Just to be absolutely sure exactly what I'm doing with the string, I figured I would supply a little more information. The byte[] that results from my encryption algorithm should be fed through some sort of algorithm to make it into a url friendly string. After this, it becomes the content of an XElement, which is then used as the source document for an XSLT transformation, and is used as a part of the href attribute for an anchor. I don't believe the xslt transformation is causing the issues, since what is coming through on the path appears to be an encoded query string parameter, but causes the HTTP 400 I've also tried HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode() on a base64 string, but that doesn't seem to do the trick either (I still end up with '/'s in my url)**

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  • Margin on the top in LaTex

    - by Tim
    I am now writing a thesis which is required to have 1 and half inches on the left or binding side, and 1 inch on the other three sides. I just have my print-out checked in the binding office and I was told the margins are not okay, especially the one on the top is not enough, a little less than 1 inch. See the figure below: I wonder which commands are responsible for the margins on the four sides, especially for the one on the top? I provide links to two files I believe that control the layout and format of the thesis:jhu12.clo and thesis.cls. Or instead of modifying the LaTex files, is thre some setting when printing the pdf file to control these margins on the print-out? Thanks and regards! EDIT: This is the print-out of command \layout It shows "one inch + \voffset" for the top (the NO. 2 item). But the staff at the binding office use his ruler to show it is less than 1 inch. How to adjust the margins in LaTex then? Thanks!

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  • Django: Serving Media Behind Custom URL

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I of course know that serving static files through Django will send you straight to hell but I am confused on how to use a custom url to mask the true location of the file using Django. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2681338/django-serving-a-download-in-a-generic-view but the answer I accepted seems to be the "wrong" way of doing things. urls.py: url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), views.py: def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) fsock = open(os.path.join(song.path, song.filename)) response = HttpResponse(fsock, mimetype='audio/mpeg') response['Content-Disposition'] = "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response This solution works perfectly but not perfectly enough it turns out. How can I avoid having a direct link to the mp3 while still serving through nginx/apache? EDIT 1 - ADDITIONAL INFO Currently I can get my files by using an address such as: http://www.example.com/music/song/1692/download/ But the above mentioned method is the devil's work. How can I accomplished what I get above while still making nginx/apache serve the media? Is this something that should be done at the webserver level? Some crazy mod_rewrite? http://static.example.com/music/Aphex%20Twin%20-%20Richard%20D.%20James%20(V0)/10%20Logon-Rock%20Witch.mp3

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  • Issue editing class style properties using js - issue is with IE

    - by Nick
    I have a function to edit the style properties of a class Unfortunately IE does not seem to like it but it does not give me an error. Does anyone know what the issue is? Thanks in advance function myRemoveElement(id) { var Node = document.getElementById(id); Node.parentNode.removeChild(Node); } function boolyChangeFoo(width1, width2, width3, width4) { if(typeof style == 'undefined') { var append = true; myStyle = document.createElement('style'); } else { while (myStyle.hasChildNodes()) { myStyle.removeChild(myStyle.firstChild); } } if (document.getElementById('my_custom_styles')) { myRemoveElement('my_custom_styles'); } var head = document.getElementById('myltd_popup_1'); var rules = document.createTextNode('.my_price_comp_inner { width: ' + width1 + '}' + '.merch_coupons_summary { width: ' + width2 + '}' + '.merch_coupons_data { width: ' + width3 + '}' + '.my_coupon_prod_item { width: ' + width4 + '}' ); myStyle.setAttribute('type','text/css'); myStyle.setAttribute('id', 'my_custom_styles'); if(myStyle.styleSheet) { myStyle.styleSheet.cssText = rules.nodeValue; } else { myStyle.appendChild(rules); } //alert(myStyle); if(append === true) head.appendChild(myStyle); }

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  • Cocoa NSOutlineView and Drag-and-Drop

    - by bobthecoder
    I recently started another thread without an account, so I'm reposting the question here with an account so I can edit current links to the program so other users can follow this. I have also updated the code below. Here is my original question: I read the other post here on Outlineviews and DND, but I can't get my program to work. At the bottom of this post is a link to a zip of my project. Its very basic with only an outlineview and button. I want it to receive text files being dropped on it, but something is wrong with my code or connections. I tried following Apple's example code of their NSOutline Drag and Drop, but I'm missing something. 1 difference is my program is a document based program and their example isn't. I set the File's Owner to receive delegate actions, since that's where my code to handle drag and drop is, as well as a button action. Its probably a simple mistake, so could someone please look at it and tell me what I'm doing wrong? Here is a link to the file: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/7195844/OutlineDragDrop1.zip

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  • Pinyin Character entry on a touchscreen keyboard

    - by mmr
    The app I'm developing requires that it be deployed in China, which means that it needs to have Pinyin and Chinese character handling. I'm told that the way that our customers handle character entry is like so: Enter in the pinyin character, like 'zhang' As they enter the characters, a list of possible Chinese (Mandarin?) characters are presented to the user, like: The user will then select '1' to enter the family name that is roughly translated to 'zhang' How can I hook such programs (I believe one is called 'mspy.exe', from Microsoft, which I'm lead to believe comes with Microsoft versions of XP) into a WPF text box? Right now, the user can enter text either by using their keyboard or by using an on-screen keyboard, so I will probably need to capture the event of a keypress from either source and feed it to some OS event or to MSPY.exe or some similar program. Or is there some other way to enter pinyin and have it converted to Mandarin? Is there a program other than MSPY I should look at? EDIT: For those of you who think that this should 'just work', it does not. Chinese character entry will work just fine if entering text into notepad or the start-run menu or whatever, but it will not work in WPF. That's the key to this question: how do I enable WPF entry? There's the Google Pinyin and Sogou pinyin, but the websites are in Mandarin or Chinese or something similar and I don't read the language.

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