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  • php session_start() error

    - by tooepic
    Hi, i've used a sample found on online and applied it to my code: <?php session_start(); if (isset($_REQUEST["email"])) { $_SESSION["name"] = true; $host = $_SERVER["HTTP_HOST"]; $path = dirname($_SERVER["PHP_SELF"]); $sid = session_name() . "=" . session_id(); header("Location: index.php?$sid"); exit; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> ... ... and rest of the html code When I open this page, I got an error: Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cookie - headers already sent by (output started at /data/server/user/directory/sub-directory/login.php:1) in /data/server/user/directory/sub-directory/login.php on line 2 Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at /data/server/user/directory/sub-directory/login.php:1) in /data/server/user/directory/sub-directory/login.php on line 2 I looked around to resolve this issue and saw few posts about this in this site also, but I just can't get a good grip on this...can't find the answer. Please help. Thanks.

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  • How do I populate an NSMutableArray in one class with another object?

    - by AngeloS
    Hello, I know this is a simple answer, but I can't seem to find the solution. I created an object in its own class and I am trying to populate it with data from another class. For simple data types like NSString, I have no problem, but when trying make an NSMutableArray equal to another NSMutableArray or when I try to populate a NSMutableArray with another objects (like strings), I keep getting exception errors... Here is the object I am trying to populate: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface RSSFeedList : NSObject { NSString *subject; NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subject; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; @end This is how I was able to populate the NSString 'subject' in another class: rssFeedList.subject = @"test"; However, if I follow similar convention within that same class with respect to an Array, it throws an exception: rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail = rssItemDetailArray; Where rssItemDetailArray is a NSMutableArray that I have built in the same class. I have also tried to add items (i tried strings for testing) to the NSMutableArray directly like so to no avail: [rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail addObject:@"test"]; Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!!

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  • Subdomain Routing Rules (using chaining) Broke after upgrading to Zend Framework 1.9.5, but only for

    - by Dan
    I asked a similar question months ago (see How do I write Routing Chains for a Subdomain in Zend Framework in a routing INI file?), on how to write chaining rules in an app.ini format. The answer to this question worked wonderfully! Now, however, I have upgraded to the latest version of the Zend Framework 1.9.5 (I needed to upgrade for another issue) and now my subdomains no longer work! To clarify, if I visit subdomain.domain.com, it does not recognize my rule. However, if I visit subdomain.domain.com/somepage/ it does recognize my routing rule. Here is my code: ;; the following is apparently being ignored, and does not work routes.manager.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Hostname" routes.manager.route = "manager.sitename.com" routes.manager.defaults.module = "manager" ;; this is not being ignored and works! routes.manager.chains.settings.type = "Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Static" routes.manager.chains.settings.route = "/settings" routes.manager.chains.settings.defaults.controller = "manager" routes.manager.chains.settings.defaults.action = "settings" So for example, if I go to manager.sitename.com, it just redirects to my default index and controller (does not access the module, $this-getRequest()-getModuleName() is blank). However, if I go to manager.sitename.com/settings, the page comes up! This app.ini configuration works fine in ZF 1.7.8, But now since I upgraded to 1.9.5, it no longer works. I have tried adding routes.manager.defaults.controller = "manager" and routes.manager.defaults.action = 'index" to my configuration as well, but this didn't work. There is not much out there on the internet with chaining and app.ini dealing with Zend Framework. Any help on this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Basic C# problem

    - by Juan
    Determine if all the digits of the sum of n -numbers and swapped n are odd. For example: 36 + 63 = 99, y 409 + 904 = 1313. Visual Studio builds my code, there is still something wrong with it ( it doesnt return an answer) can you please help me here? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { long num = Convert.ToInt64(Console.Read()); long vol = voltea(num); long sum = num + vol; bool simp = simpares(sum); if (simp == true) Console.Write("Si"); else Console.Write("No"); } static private bool simpares(long x) { bool s = false; long [] arreglo = new long [1000]; while ( x > 0) { arreglo [x % 10] ++; x /=10; } for (long i=0 ; i <= arreglo.Length ; i++) { if (arreglo [i]%2 != 0) s = true; } return s; } static private long voltea(long x) { long v = 0; while (v > 0) { v = 10 * v + x % 10; x /= 10; } return v; } } }

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  • JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

    - by Xaris
    Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

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  • Why in the world is this Moq + NUnit test failing?

    - by Dave Falkner
    I have this dataAccess mock object and I'm trying to verify that one of its methods is being invoked, and that the argument passed into this method fulfills certain constraints. As best I can tell, this method is indeed being invoked, and with the constraints fulfilled. This line of the test throws a MockException: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.Is<Invoice>(i => i.TermPaymentAmount == 0m)), Times.Once()); However, removing the constraint and accepting any invoice passes the test: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>()), Times.Once()); I've created a test windows form that instantiates this test class, runs its .Setup() method, and then calls the method which I am wishing to test. I insert a breakpoint on the line of code where the mock object is failing the test data.InsertInvoice(invoice); to actually hover over the invoice, and I can confirm that its .TermPaymentAmount decimal property is indeed zero at the time the method is invoked. Out of desperation, I even added a call back to my dataAccess mock: data.Setup(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>())).Callback((Invoice inv) => System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(inv.TermPaymentAmount.ToString("G17"))); And this gives me a message box showing "0". This is really baffling me, and no one else in my shop has been able to figure this out. Any help would be appreciated. A barely related question, which I should probably ask independently, is whether it is preferable to use Mock.Verify(...) as I have here, or to use Mock.Expect(...).Verifiable followed by Mock.VerifyAll() as I have seen other people doing? If the answer is situational, which situations would warrent the use of one over the other?

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  • Convert C# (with typed events) to VB.NET

    - by Steven
    I have an ASPX page (with VB Codebehind). I would like to extend the GridView class to show the header / footer when no rows are returned. I found a C# example online (link) (source). However, I cannot convert it to VB because it uses typed events (which are not legal in VB). I have tried several free C# to VB.NET converters online, but none have worked. Please convert the example to VB.NET or provide an alternate method of extending the GridView class. Notes / Difficulties: If you get an error with DataView objects, specify the type as System.Data.DataView and the type comparison could be the following: If data.[GetType]() Is GetType(System.Data.DataView) Then Since the event MustAddARow cannot have a type in VB (and RaiseEvent event doesn't have a return value), how can I compare it to Nothing in the function OnMustAddARow()? EDIT: The following is a sample with (hopefully) relevant code to help answer the question. namespace AlwaysShowHeaderFooter { public delegate IEnumerable MustAddARowHandler(IEnumerable data); public class GridViewAlwaysShow : GridView { ////////////////////////////////////// // Various member functions omitted // ////////////////////////////////////// protected IEnumerable OnMustAddARow(IEnumerable data) { if (MustAddARow == null) { throw new NullReferenceException("The datasource has no rows. You must handle the \"MustAddARow\" Event."); } return MustAddARow(data); } public event MustAddARowHandler MustAddARow; } }

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  • Is there a maximum number of input controls that can be used on an HTML form?

    - by Rich
    I have an ambitious requirement for an asp.net 2.0 web page that contains a table (gridview), and each row in the grid contains 6 select (dropdown) controls for data entry. The number of rows that will be displayed is dependent upon the user's search parameters, which are specified in another area of the page. Unfortunately, with the default (and even basic) search parameters specified, the grid could contain several hundred rows. I've noticed that the browser, in this case IE8, starts behaving rather erratically once I reach a large number of rows -- no documented evidence for the number of rows where this begins to be a problem. For example, trying to view the source of the page results in a message from IE stating that there was a problem with the page that forced the browser to reload it, and I never get the source. Obviously the page loads and renders rather slowly also. I know that my solution is probably going to involve paging the gridview such that it only displays 20 or so rows per page, and I'll have to write code to handle the saving of changes in the dropdown values when the user changes pages. I can probably turn off viewstate on the gridview also. However, the question I really want to pose is this -- has anyone seen a documented rule indicating the maximum number of input controls that an HTML browser form is supposed to be able to contain? I could not find anything on the Internet after doing a search, and I suspect the answer may be whatever the browser can handle based on the machine configuration it is running on. Any rules of thumb you use? Thanks for any suggestions. Rich

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  • Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

    - by StackedCrooked
    Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

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  • Get parameter values from method at run time

    - by Landin Martens
    I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

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  • Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

    - by Tyler
    I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

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  • Entities used to serialize data have changed. How can the serialized data be upgraded for the new entities?

    - by i8abug
    Hi, I have a bunch of simple entity instances that I have serialized to a file. In the future, I know that the structure of these entities (ie, maybe I will rename Name to Header or something). The thing is, I don't want to lose the data that I have saved in all these old files. What is the proper way to either load the data from the old entities into new entities upgrade the old files so that they can be used with new entities Note: I think I am stuck with binary serialization, not xml serialization. Thanks in advance! Edit: So I have an answer for the case I have described. I can use a dataContractSerializer and do something like [DataMember("bar")] private string foo; and change the name in the code and keep the same name that was used for serialization. But what about the following additional cases: The original entity has new members which can be serialized Some serialized members that were in the original entity are removed Some members have actually changed in function (suppose that the original class had a FirstName and LastName member and it has been refactored to have only a FullName member which combines the two) To handle these, I need some sort of interpreter/translator deserialization class but I have no idea what I should use

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  • Parallelize or vectorize all-against-all operation on a large number of matrices?

    - by reve_etrange
    I have approximately 5,000 matrices with the same number of rows and varying numbers of columns (20 x ~200). Each of these matrices must be compared against every other in a dynamic programming algorithm. In this question, I asked how to perform the comparison quickly and was given an excellent answer involving a 2D convolution. Serially, iteratively applying that method, like so list = who('data_matrix_prefix*') H = cell(numel(list),numel(list)); for i=1:numel(list) for j=1:numel(list) if i ~= j eval([ 'H{i,j} = compare(' char(list(i)) ',' char(list(j)) ');']); end end end is fast for small subsets of the data (e.g. for 9 matrices, 9*9 - 9 = 72 calls are made in ~1 s). However, operating on all the data requires almost 25 million calls. I have also tried using deal() to make a cell array composed entirely of the next element in data, so I could use cellfun() in a single loop: # who(), load() and struct2cell() calls place k data matrices in a 1D cell array called data. nextData = cell(k,1); for i=1:k [nextData{:}] = deal(data{i}); H{:,i} = cellfun(@compare,data,nextData,'UniformOutput',false); end Unfortunately, this is not really any faster, because all the time is in compare(). Both of these code examples seem ill-suited for parallelization. I'm having trouble figuring out how to make my variables sliced. compare() is totally vectorized; it uses matrix multiplication and conv2() exclusively (I am under the impression that all of these operations, including the cellfun(), should be multithreaded in MATLAB?). Does anyone see a (explicitly) parallelized solution or better vectorization of the problem?

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  • NSMutableArray accessing issue.

    - by Danegraphics
    I've searched and have no answer. I've created an NSMutableArray and am getting an EXC_BAD_ACCESS error in one place of access. Here. This is declaring in the .h file: NSMutableArray *buttons; ... @property (nonatomic, retain)NSMutableArray *buttons; And this is the synthesizing and implimenting: @synthesize buttons; ... - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self != nil) { buttons = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; } return self; } ... -(void)addButtonWithImage:(Image*)image { Image *button = image; [buttons addObject:button]; [button release]; } ... -(void)replaceButtonAt:(int)num with:(Image*)image { Image *button = image; [buttons replaceObjectAtIndex:num withObject:button]; <<===EXC_BAD_ACCESS [button release]; } But when I use this: -(void)renderButton:(int)num atPoint:(CGPoint)point center:(BOOL)center{ Image *button = [buttons objectAtIndex:num]; [button renderAtPoint:point centerOfImage:center]; } It works

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  • How do I access a value of a nested Perl hash?

    - by st
    I am new to Perl and I have a problem that's very simple but I cannot find the answer when consulting my Perl book. When printing the result of Dumper($request); I get the following result: $VAR1 = bless( { '_protocol' => 'HTTP/1.1', '_content' => '', '_uri' => bless( do{\(my $o = 'http://myawesomeserver.org:8081/counter/')}, 'URI::http' ), '_headers' => bless( { 'user-agent' => 'Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux i686; en; rv:1.9.0.4) Gecko/20080528 Epiphany/2.22 Firefox/3.0', 'connection' => 'keep-alive', 'cache-control' => 'max-age=0', 'keep-alive' => '300', 'accept' => 'text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8', 'accept-language' => 'en-us,en;q=0.5', 'accept-encoding' => 'gzip,deflate', 'host' => 'localhost:8081', 'accept-charset' => 'ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7' }, 'HTTP::Headers' ), '_method' => 'GET', '_handle' => bless( \*Symbol::GEN0, 'FileHandle' ) }, 'HTTP::Server::Simple::Dispatched::Request' ); How can I access the values of '_method' ('GET') or of 'host' ('localhost:8081'). I know that's an easy question, but Perl is somewhat cryptic at the beginning.

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  • Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

    - by John Sullivan
    Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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  • Failed to load url in Dom Document?

    - by Lakhan
    im trying to get latitude and longtitude from google map by giving address. But its giving error.when i directly copy url to browser url bar.its giving correct result.If anybody know the answer .Plz reply. Thanx in advance Here is my code. <?php $key = '[AIzaSyAoPgQlfKsBKQcBGB01cl8KmiPee3SmpU0]'; $opt = array ( 'address' => urlencode('Kolkata,India, ON') , 'output' => 'xml' ); $url = 'http://maps.google.com/maps/geo?q='.$opt['address'].'&output='.$opt['output'].'&oe=utf8&key='.$key; $dom = new DOMDocument(); $dom->load($url); $xpath = new DomXPath($dom); $xpath->registerNamespace('ge', 'http://earth.google.com/kml/2.0'); $statusCode = $xpath->query('//ge:Status/ge:code'); if ($statusCode->item(0)->nodeValue == '200') { $pointStr = $xpath->query('//ge:coordinates'); $point = explode(",", $pointStr->item(0)->nodeValue); $lat = $point[1]; $lon = $point[0]; echo '<pre>'; echo 'Lat: '.$lat.', Lon: '.$lon; echo '</pre>'; } ?> Following error has occured: Warning: DOMDocument::load(http://maps.google.com/maps/geo? q=Kolkata%252CIndia%252C%2BON&output=xml&oe=utf8&key=%5BAIzaSyAoPgQlfKsBKQcBGB01cl8KmiPee3SmpU0%5D) [domdocument.load]: failed to open stream: HTTP request failed! HTTP/1.0 400 Bad Request in C:\xampp\htdocs\draw\draw.php on line 19 Warning: DOMDocument::load() [domdocument.load]: I/O warning : failed to load external entity "http://maps.google.com/maps/geo?q=Kolkata%252CIndia%252C%2BON&output=xml&oe=utf8&key=%5BAIzaSyAoPgQlfKsBKQcBGB01cl8KmiPee3SmpU0%5D" in C:\xampp\htdocs\draw\draw.php on line 19 Notice: Trying to get property of non-object in C:\xampp\htdocs\draw\draw.php on line 26

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  • jQuery fade li elemet and cycle it when mouse hovered.

    - by Pennf0lio
    I'm trying to recreate an effect in jQuery, where an element(<li> <img>) will be cycled and has a fading effect when hovered. The '<li>' contains '<img>' (image screenshots). when the mouse is on top of element it will keep cycling all that are in '<ul>' with a fading effect. when the mouse is away it will stop cycling the list. I also want to add a pager where you can navigate to the list. My Existing Code: link text My Problem: The current code has some problem with the pagination, it added all images that can be seen on the code. instead of 1-8 only, it continued to add another 1-8 and another. Second problem is, It also start cycling and fading when the page loads. The cycling and fading should only be working when the mouse is on top of the element. I don't know if the 'Cycle Plugin' is really required on this approach, I wan't it to be minimal as much as possible. I just use 'Cycle Plugin' because it's a quick answer to my problem. The effect i'm trying to achieve: link text (WARNING: Contains some Pornography), Sorry of my example, I tried finding other alternative but no luck. Thanks and merry xmas!

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  • In maven2, how do I assemble bits and pieces of different modules to create final distributions?

    - by Carcassi
    I have four maven project: client api jar web service war ui jar web interface war The service war will need to be packaged to include the client api jar, together with javadocs (so that each version is distributed with a matching client and documentation). The web interface war will need the ui jar and all the dependencies (webstart/applet deployment). So I need a 5th project that does all the packaging. How to do this with ant or a script is perfectly clear to me, but not in maven. I tried the following: having the javadocs included as part of the war packaging: this requires the execution of the javadocs goal in project 1 before execution of package in project 2. Haven't found a way to bind plugins/goals across different projects. Using the assembly plugin in project2 had the same problem. create a fifth project and use the assembly plugin. Still the same problems as before, with the problem that since I need different pieces from each sub-project I do not understand how this can be done using the assembly. Is this too hard to do in maven, and should I just give up? Or I am looking at it wrong, in which case, how should I be looking at it? Thanks! Upon further reflection, here is a partial answer: Each project should build all its artifacts. This is done by having the plugins configured to run as per the prepare-resources and package phases. So, in my case, I prepare all that needs to be generated (jar, javadocs, xsd documentation, ...) as different artifacts so that a single "package" goal execution creates all. So, it's not "how project 2 forces project 1 to run different goals", but it's "make project 1 create all of its artifact as part as the normal lifecycle). This seems to simplify things.

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  • Project Euler #119 Make Faster

    - by gangqinlaohu
    Trying to solve Project Euler problem 119: The number 512 is interesting because it is equal to the sum of its digits raised to some power: 5 + 1 + 2 = 8, and 8^3 = 512. Another example of a number with this property is 614656 = 28^4. We shall define an to be the nth term of this sequence and insist that a number must contain at least two digits to have a sum. You are given that a2 = 512 and a10 = 614656. Find a30. Question: Is there a more efficient way to find the answer than just checking every number until a30 is found? My Code int currentNum = 0; long value = 0; for (long a = 11; currentNum != 30; a++){ //maybe a++ is inefficient int test = Util.sumDigits(a); if (isPower(a, test)) { currentNum++; value = a; System.out.println(value + ":" + currentNum); } } System.out.println(value); isPower checks if a is a power of test. Util.sumDigits: public static int sumDigits(long n){ int sum = 0; String s = "" + n; while (!s.equals("")){ sum += Integer.parseInt("" + s.charAt(0)); s = s.substring(1); } return sum; } program has been running for about 30 minutes (might be overflow on the long). Output (so far): 81:1 512:2 2401:3 4913:4 5832:5 17576:6 19683:7 234256:8 390625:9 614656:10 1679616:11 17210368:12 34012224:13 52521875:14 60466176:15 205962976:16 612220032:17

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  • MySQL Join/Comparison on a DATETIME column (<5.6.4 and > 5.6.4)

    - by Simon
    Suppose i have two tables like so: Events ID (PK int autoInc), Time (datetime), Caption (varchar) Position ID (PK int autoinc), Time (datetime), Easting (float), Northing (float) Is it safe to, for example, list all the events and their position if I am using the Time field as my joining criteria? I.e.: SELECT E.*,P.* FROM Events E JOIN Position P ON E.Time = P.Time OR, even just simply comparing a datetime value (taking into consideration that the parameterized value may contain the fractional seconds part - which MySQL has always accepted) e.g. SELECT E.* FROM Events E WHERE E.Time = @Time I understand MySQL (before version 5.6.4) only stores datetime fields WITHOUT milliseconds. So I would assume this query would function OK. However as of version 5.6.4, I have read MySQL can now store milliseconds with the datetime field. Assuming datetime values are inserted using functions such as NOW(), the milliseconds are truncated (<5.6.4) which I would assume allow the above query to work. However, with version 5.6.4 and later, this could potentially NOT work. I am, and only ever will be interested in second accuracy. If anyone could answer the following questions would be greatly appreciated: In General, how does MySQL compare datetime fields against one another (consider the above query). Is the above query fine, and does it make use of indexes on the time fields? (MySQL < 5.6.4) Is there any way to exclude milliseconds? I.e. when inserting and in conditional joins/selects etc? (MySQL 5.6.4) Will the join query above work? (MySQL 5.6.4) EDIT I know i can cast the datetimes, thanks for those that answered, but i'm trying to tackle the root of the problem here (the fact that the storage type/definition has been changed) and i DO NOT want to use functions in my queries. This negates all my work of optimizing queries applying indexes etc, not to mention having to rewrite all my queries. EDIT2 Can anyone out there suggest a reason NOT to join on a DATETIME field using second accuracy?

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  • Help me convert C# 1.1 Xml validation code to C# 2.0 please.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    It would be fantastic if you could help me rid of these warnings below. I have not been able to find a good document. Since the warnings are concentrated in just the private void ValidateConfiguration( XmlNode section ) section, hopefully this is not terribly hard to answer, if you have encountered this before. Thanks! 'System.Configuration.ConfigurationException.ConfigurationException(string)' is obsolete: 'This class is obsolete, to create a new exception create a System.Configuration!System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException' 'System.Xml.XmlValidatingReader' is obsolete: 'Use XmlReader created by XmlReader.Create() method using appropriate XmlReaderSettings instead. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202' private void ValidateConfiguration( XmlNode section ) { // throw if there is no configuration node. if( null == section ) { throw new ConfigurationException("The configuration section passed within the ... class was null ... there must be a configuration file defined.", section ); } //Validate the document using a schema XmlValidatingReader vreader = new XmlValidatingReader( new XmlTextReader( new StringReader( section.OuterXml ) ) ); // open stream on Resources; the XSD is set as an "embedded resource" so Resource can open a stream on it using (Stream xsdFile = XYZ.GetStream("ABC.xsd")) using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(xsdFile)) { vreader.ValidationEventHandler += new ValidationEventHandler(ValidationCallBack); vreader.Schemas.Add(XmlSchema.Read(new XmlTextReader(sr), null)); vreader.ValidationType = ValidationType.Schema; // Validate the document while (vreader.Read()) { } if (!_isValidDocument) { _schemaErrors = _sb.ToString(); throw new ConfigurationException("XML Document not valid"); } } } // Does not cause warnings. private void ValidationCallBack( object sender, ValidationEventArgs args ) { // check what KIND of problem the schema validation reader has; // on FX 1.0, it gives a warning for "<xs:any...skip" sections. Don't worry about those, only set validation false // for real errors if( args.Severity == XmlSeverityType.Error ) { _isValidDocument = false; _sb.Append( args.Message + Environment.NewLine ); } }

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  • choose javascript variable based on element id from jquery

    - by phoffer
    I feel like this is a simple question, but I am still relatively new to javascript and jquery. I am developing a site for a touch interface that uses unordered lists and jquery .click functions to take input data. I have a section to input a m:ss time, with 3 divs, each containing a list of digits for time. I need to get the input for each column and set it as a variable. I originally designed the inputs to change form inputs, because I didn't understand javascript very much. It was easy to change the 3 hidden inputs by using div id's, but I can't figure out how to do it now with javascript variables. Here is my original jquery code... $("div#time>div>ul>li").click(function() { var id = $(this).parents(".time").attr("name"); var number = $(this).html(); $("input#"+id).val(number); }); The last line sets one of 3 hidden inputs equal to whatever was clicked. I need to make it so separate variables take the inputs, then I can manipulate those variables however I want. Here's a short snippet of the html, to have an idea of how jquery grabs it. <div id="time"> <h1>Time</h1> <div name="minute" class="time" id="t_minute"> M : <ul> The full time html is here: link text Thanks everyone! I've been using SO to answer many questions I've had, but I couldn't find something for this, so I figured I would join, since I'm sure I will have more questions along the way.

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  • Java JCheckBox ArrayList help needed

    - by user2929626
    I'm new to Java and struggling with something which I'm sure must have a simple answer but I can't seem to find it. I have an array of checkbox objects defined as: ArrayList<JCheckBox> checkBoxList A JPanel is created with a grid layout and the checkboxes are added to the JPanel and the ArrayList: for (int i = 0; i < 256; i++) { JCheckBox c = new JCheckBox(); c.setSelected(false); checkBoxList.add(c); mainPanel.add(c); } Yes, there are 256 checkboxes! The panel is added to a JFrame and eventually the GUI is displayed. The user can select any combination of the 256 checkboxes. My class implements Serializable and this ArrayList of checkboxes can be saved and restored using 'Save' and 'Load' GUI buttons. My code to load the saved object is as below: public class LoadListener implements ActionListener { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent a) { try { // Prompt the user for a load file JFileChooser fileLoad = new JFileChooser(); fileLoad.showOpenDialog(mainFrame); // Create a object/file input stream linking to the selected file ObjectInputStream is = new ObjectInputStream(new FileInputStream(fileLoad.getSelectedFile())); // Read the checkBox array list checkBoxList = (ArrayList<JCheckBox>) is.readObject(); is.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } On loading the ArrayList object, the values of the checkboxes are correctly populated, however I want to update the checkboxes on the GUI to reflect this. Is there an easy way to do this? I assumed as the array of checkboxes had the correct values that I could just repaint the panel / frame but this doesn't work. I'd like to understand why - does my loaded array of checkbox objects no longer reflect the checkbox objects on the GUI? Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • javascript unable to locate a form using the ID tag

    - by ihake
    Here's my problem: I'm trying to set up a simple mobile contact form with a captcha built in. The page I'm working on can be found here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/contact.php I'm using the following php contact form: http://www.html-form-guide.com/contact-form/php-email-contact-form.html I want to first say that I'm not the only one to run into this problem. After googling the issue, I've found multiple people struggling with this, but no-one seems to have an answer. Now for the problem... As you can see if you visit the page, each time the page is accessed, an error appears that says "Error: couldnot get Form object contact_form". I cannot--for the life of me--figure out why the javascript can't find the form I pass it. I call the function that generates this error at the top of the page: var frmvalidator = new Validator("contact_form"); The form I'm referencing is as follows in the HTML code: <div data-role="page" data-theme="e" id="contact_form" name="contact_form" data-position="inline"> ... And the function that is called that generates the error can be found in an external .js file here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/scripts/gen_validatorv31.js Is there something that I am simply not seeing? Why can't the javascript locate the form? Thanks so much to anyone that helps with this.

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