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  • CQRS - Should a Command try to create a "complex" master-detail entity?

    - by Simon Crabtree
    I've been reading Greg Young and Udi Dahan's thoughts on Command Query Responsibilty Separation and a lot of what I read strikes a chord with me. My domain (we track vehicles which are doing deliveries) has the concept of a Route which contains one or more Stops. I need my customers to be able to set these up in our system by calling a webservice, and then be able to retrieve information about a Route and how the vehicle is progressing. In the past I would have "cut-down" DTO classes which closely resemble my domain classes, and the customer would create a RouteDto with an array of StopDto(s), and call our CreateRoute webmethod, passing in the RouteDto. When they query our system by calling the GetRouteDetails method, I would return exactly the same objects to them. One of the appealing aspects of CQRS is that the RouteDto might have all manner of properties that the customer wants to query, but have no business setting when they create a Route. So I create a separate CreateRouteRequest class which is passed in when calling the CreateRoute "command", and a Route DTO class which gets returned as a query result. class Route{ string Reference; List<Stop> Stops; } But I need my customer to provide me with Route AND Stop details when they create a route. As I see it I could either... Give my CreateRouteRequest class a Stops(s) property which is an array of "something" representing the data they need to provide about each stop - but what do I call this class? It's not a Stop as that's what I'm calling the list of DTO inside my Route DTO, but I don't like "CreateStopRequest". I also wonder if I'm stuck in a CRUD mindset here thinking in terms of master-detail information and asking the customer to think like that too. class CreateRouteRequest{ string Reference; ... List<CreateStopRequest> Stops; } or They call CreateRoute, and then make a number of calls to an AddStopToRoute method. This feels a bit more "behavioural" but I'm going to lose the ability to treat creating a route including its stops as a single atomic command. If they create a Route and then try to add a Stop which fails due to some validation problem they're going to have a partially correct Route. The fact that I can't come up with a good name for the list of "StopCreationData" objects I'd be working with in option 1, makes me wonder if there's something I'm missing.

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  • How to overlay a div (or any element) over a table row (tr)?

    - by slolife
    I'd like to overlay a div (or any element that'll work) over a table row (tr tag) that happens to have more than one column. I have tried a few methods, which don't seem to work. I've posted my current code below. I do get an overlay, but not directly over just the row. I tried setting the overlay top to $divBottom.css('top'), but that is always 'auto'. So, am I on the right track, or is there a better way of doing it? Utilizing jQuery is fine as you can see. If I am on the right track, how do I get the div placed correctly? Is the offsetTop an offset in the containing element, the table, and I need to do some math? Any other gotchas I'll run into with that? <html> <head> <title>Overlay Tests</title> <style> #rowBottom { outline:red solid 2px } #divBottom { margin:1em; font-size:xx-large; position:relative; } #divOverlay { background-color:Silver; text-align:center; position:absolute; z-index:10000; opacity:0.5; } </style> </head> <body> <p align="center"><a id="lnkDoIt" href="#">Do it!</a></p> <table width="100%" border="0" cellpadding="10" cellspacing="3" style="position:relative"> <tr> <td><p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.</p></td> </tr> <tr id="rowBottom"> <td><div id="divBottom"><p align="center">This is the bottom text</p></div></td> </tr> <tr> <td><p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit.</p></td> </tr> </table> <div id="divOverlay" style=""><p>This is the overlay div.</p><p id="info"></p></div> <script src="../includes/javascript/jquery/jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#lnkDoIt').click(function() { var $divBottom = $('#rowBottom'); var $divOverlay = $('#divOverlay'); var bottomTop = $divBottom.attr('offsetTop'); var bottomLeft = $divBottom.attr('offsetLeft'); var bottomWidth = $divBottom.css('width'); var bottomHeight = $divBottom.css('height'); $divOverlay.css('top', bottomTop); $divOverlay.css('left', bottomLeft); $divOverlay.css('width', bottomWidth); $divOverlay.css('height', bottomHeight); $('#info').text('Top: ' + bottomTop + ' Left: ' + bottomLeft); }); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • .NET unit test runner outputting FaultException.Detail

    - by Adam
    Hello, I am running some unit tests on a WCF service. The service is configured to include exception details in the fault response (with the following in my service configuration file). <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> If a test causes an unhandled exception on the server the fault is received by the client with a fully populated server stack trace. I can see this by calling the exception's ToString() method. The problem is that this doesn't seem to be output by any of the test runners that I have tried (xUnit, Gallio, MSTest). They appear to just output the Message and the StackTrace properties of the exception. To illustrate what I mean, the following unit test run by MSTest would output three sections: Error Message Error Stack Trace Standard Console Output (contains the information I would like, e.g. "Fault Detail is equal to An ExceptionDetail, likely created by IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults=true, whose value is: ..." try { service.CallMethodWhichCausesException(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex); // this outputs the information I would like throw; } Having this information will make the initial phase of testing and deployment a lot less painful. I know I can just wrap each unit test in a generic exception handler and write the exception to the console and rethrow (as above) within all my unit tests but that seems a very long-winded way of achieving this (and would look pretty awful). Does anyone know if there's any way to get this information included for free whenever an unhandled exception occurs? Is there a setting that I am missing? Is my service configuration lacking in proper fault handling? Perhaps I could write some kind of plug-in / adapter for some unit testing framework? Perhaps theres a different unit testing framework which I should be using instead! My actual set-up is xUnit unit tests executed via Gallio for the development environment, but I do have a separate suite of "smoke tests" written which I would like to be able to have our engineers run via the xUnit GUI test runner (or Gallio or whatever) to simplify the final deployment. Thanks. Adam

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  • Microsoft Word Document Controls not accepting carriage returns

    - by Scott
    So, I have a Microsoft Word 2007 Document with several Plain Text Format (I have tried Rich Text Format as well) controls which accept input via XML. For carriage returns, I had the string being passed through XML containing "\r\n" when I wanted a carriage return, but the word document ignored that and just kept wrapping things on the same line. I also tried replacing the \r\n with System.Environment.NewLine in my C# mapper, but that just put in \r\n anyway, which still didn't work. Note also that on the control itself I have set it to "Allow Carriage Returns (Multiple Paragrpahs)" in the control properties. This is the XML for the listMapper <Field id="32" name="32" fieldType="SimpleText"> <DataSelector path="/Data/DB/DebtProduct"> <InputField fieldType="" path="/Data/DB/Client/strClientFirm" link="" type=""/> <InputField fieldType="" path="strClientRefDebt" link="" type=""/> </DataSelector> <DataMapper formatString="{0} Account Number: {1}" name="SimpleListMapper" type=""> <MapperData> </MapperData> </DataMapper> </Field> Note that this is the listMapper C# where I actually map the list (notice where I try and append the system.environment.newline) namespace DocEngine.Core.DataMappers { public class CSimpleListMapper:CBaseDataMapper { public override void Fill(DocEngine.Core.Interfaces.Document.IControl control, CDataSelector dataSelector) { if (control != null && dataSelector != null) { ISimpleTextControl textControl = (ISimpleTextControl)control; IContent content = textControl.CreateContent(); CInputFieldCollection fileds = dataSelector.Read(Context); StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(); if (fileds != null) { foreach (List<string> lst in fileds) { if (CanMap(lst) == false) continue; if (builder.Length > 0 && lst[0].Length > 0) builder.Append(Environment.NewLine); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(FormatString)) builder.Append(lst[0]); else builder.Append(string.Format(FormatString, lst.ToArray())); } content.Value = builder.ToString(); textControl.Content = content; applyRules(control, null); } } } } } Does anybody have any clue at all how I can get MS Word 2007 (docx) to quit ignoring my newline characters??

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  • Looking for RESTful Suggestions In Porting ASP.NET to MVC.NET

    - by DaveDev
    I've been tasked with porting/refactoring a Web Application Platform that we have from ASP.NET to MVC.NET. Ideally I could use all the existing platform's configurations to determine the properties of the site that is presented. Is it RESTful to keep a SiteConfiguration object which contains all of our various page configuration data in the System.Web.Caching.Cache? There are a lot of settings that need to be loaded when the user acceses our site so it's inefficient for each user to have to load the same settings every time they access. Some data the SiteConfiguration object contains is as follows and it determines what Master Page / site configuration / style / UserControls are available to the client, public string SiteTheme { get; set; } public string Region { private get; set; } public string DateFormat { get; set; } public string NumberFormat { get; set; } public int WrapperType { private get; set; } public string LabelFileName { get; set; } public LabelFile LabelFile { get; set; } // the following two are the heavy ones // PageConfiguration contains lots of configuration data for each panel on the page public IList<PageConfiguration> Pages { get; set; } // This contains all the configurations for the factsheets we produce public List<ConfiguredFactsheet> ConfiguredFactsheets { get; set; } I was thinking of having a URL structure like this: www.MySite1.com/PageTemplate/UserControl/ the domain determines the SiteConfiguration object that is created, where MySite1.com is SiteId = 1, MySite2.com is SiteId = 2. (and in turn, style, configurations for various pages, etc.) PageTemplate is the View that will be rendered and simply defines a layout for where I'm going to inject the UserControls Can somebody please tell me if I'm completely missing the RESTful point here? I'd like to refactor the platform into MVC because it's better to work in but I want to do it right but with a minimum of reinventing-the-wheel because otherwise it won't get approval. Any suggestions otherwise? Thanks

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  • Conflict between some JavaScript and jQuery on same page

    - by hollyb
    I am using a JavaScript function and some jQuery to perform two actions on a page. The first is a simple JS function to hide/show divs and change the active state of a tab: This is the JS that show/hides divs and changes the active state on some tabs: var ids=new Array('section1','section2','section3'); function switchid(id, el){ hideallids(); showdiv(id); var li = el.parentNode.parentNode.childNodes[0]; while (li) { if (!li.tagName || li.tagName.toLowerCase() != "li") li = li.nextSibling; // skip the text node if (li) { li.className = ""; li = li.nextSibling; } } el.parentNode.className = "active"; } function hideallids(){ //loop through the array and hide each element by id for (var i=0;i<ids.length;i++){ hidediv(ids[i]); } } function hidediv(id) { //safe function to hide an element with a specified id document.getElementById(id).style.display = 'none'; } function showdiv(id) { //safe function to show an element with a specified id document.getElementById(id).style.display = 'block'; } The html: <ul> <li class="active"><a onclick="switchid('section1', this);return false;">ONE</a></li> <li><a onclick="switchid('section2', this);return false;">TWO</a></li> <li><a onclick="switchid('section3', this);return false;">THREE</a></li> </ul> <div id="section1" style="display:block;">TEST</div> <div id="section2" style="display:none;">TEST 2</div> <div id="section3" style="display:none;">TEST 3</div> Now the problem.... I've added the jQuery image gallery called galleria to one of the tabs. The gallery works great when it resides in the div that is intially set to display:block. However, when it is in one of the divs that is set to display: none; part of the gallery doesn't work when the div is toggled to be visible. Specifically, the following css ceases to be written (this is created by galleria jQuery): element.style { display:block; height:50px; margin-left:-17px; width:auto; } For the life of me, I can't figure out why the gallery fails when it's div is set to display: none. Since this declaration is overwritten when a tab is clicked (via the Javascript functions above), why would this cause a problem? As I mentioned, it works perfectly when it lives the in display: block; div. Any ideas? I don't expect anybody to be familiar with the jQuery galleria image gallery... but perhaps an idea of how one might repair this problem? Thanks!

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  • Using a Button to navigate to another Page in a NavigationWindow

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use the navigation command framework in WPF to navigate between Pages within a WPF application (desktop; not XBAP or Silverlight). I believe I have everything configured correctly, yet its not working. I build and run without errors, I'm not getting any binding errors in the Output window, but my navigation button is disabled. Here's the app.xaml for a sample app: <Application x:Class="Navigation.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" StartupUri="First.xaml"> </Application> Note the StartupUri points to First.xaml. First.xaml is a Page. WPF automatically hosts my page in a NavigationWindow. Here's First.xaml: <Page x:Class="Navigation.First" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="First"> <Grid> <Button CommandParameter="/Second.xaml" CommandTarget="{Binding RelativeSource= {RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type NavigationWindow}}}" Command="NavigationCommands.GoToPage" Content="Go!"/> </Grid> </Page> The button's CommandTarget is set to the NavigationWindow. The command is GoToPage, and the page is /Second.xaml. I've tried setting the CommandTarget to the containing Page, the CommandParameter to "Second.xaml" (First.xaml and Second.xaml are both in the root of the solution), and I've tried leaving the CommandTarget empty. I've also tried setting the Path to the Binding to various navigational-related public properties on the NavigationWindow. Nothing has worked so far. What am I missing here? I really don't want to do my navigation in code. Clarification. If, instead of using a button, I use a Hyperlink: <Grid> <TextBlock> <Hyperlink NavigateUri="Second.xaml">Go! </Hyperlink> </TextBlock> </Grid> everything works as expected. However, my UI requirements means that using a Hyperlink is right out. I need a big fatty button for people to press. That's why I want to use the button to navigate. I just want to know how I can get the Button to provide the same ability that the Hyperlink does in this case.

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  • WCF Service with callbacks coming from background thread?

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my situation. I have written a WCF service which calls into one of our vendor's code bases to perform operations, such as Login, Logout, etc. A requirement of this operation is that we have a background thread to receive events as a result of that action. For example, the Login action is sent on the main thread. Then, several events are received back from the vendor service as a result of the login. There can be 1, 2, or several events received. The background thread, which runs on a timer, receives these events and fires an event in the wcf service to notify that a new event has arrived. I have implemented the WCF service in Duplex mode, and planned to use callbacks to notify the UI that events have arrived. Here is my question: How do I send new events from the background thread to the thread which is executing the service? Right now, when I call OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<IMyCallback>(), the OperationContext is null. Is there a standard pattern to get around this? I am using PerSession as my SessionMode on the ServiceContract. UPDATE: I thought I'd make my exact scenario clearer by demonstrating how I'm receiving events from the vendor code. My library receives each event, determines what the event is, and fires off an event for that particular occurrence. I have another project which is a class library specifically for connecting to the vendor service. I'll post the entire implementation of the service to give a clearer picture: [ServiceBehavior( InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession )] public class VendorServer:IVendorServer { private IVendorService _vendorService; // This is the reference to my class library public VendorServer() { _vendorServer = new VendorServer(); _vendorServer.AgentManager.AgentLoggedIn += AgentManager_AgentLoggedIn; // This is the eventhandler for the event which arrives from a background thread } public void Login(string userName, string password, string stationId) { _vendorService.Login(userName, password, stationId); // This is a direct call from the main thread to the vendor service to log in } private void AgentManager_AgentLoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { var agentEvent = new AgentEvent { AgentEventType = AgentEventType.Login, EventArgs = e }; } } The AgentEvent object contains the callback as one of its properties, and I was thinking I'd perform the callback like this: agentEvent.Callback = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<ICallback>(); How would I pass the OperationContext.Current instance from the main thread into the background thread?

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  • many-to-many performance concerns with fluent nhibernate.

    - by Ciel
    I have a situation where I have several many-to-many associations. In the upwards of 12 to 15. Reading around I've seen that it's generally believed that many-to-many associations are not 'typical', yet they are the only way I have been able to create the associations appropriate for my case, so I'm not sure how to optimize any further. Here is my basic scenario. class Page { IList<Tag> Tags { get; set; } IList<Modification> Modifications { get; set; } IList<Aspect> Aspects { get; set; } } This is one of my 'core' classes, and coincidentally one of my core tables. Virtually half of the objects in my code can have an IList<Page>, and some of them have IList<T> where T has its own IList<Page>. As you can see, from an object oriented standpoint, this is not really a problem. But from a database standpoint this begins to introduce a lot of junction tables. So far it has worked fine for me, but I am wondering if anyone has any ideas on how I could improve on this structure. I've spent a long time thinking and in order to achieve the appropriate level of association required, I cannot think of any way to improve it. The only thing I have come up with is to make intermediate classes for each object that has an IList<Page>, but that doesn't really do anything that the HasManyToMany does not already do except introduce another class. It does not extend the functionality and, from what I can tell, it does not improve performance. Any thoughts? I am also concerned about Primary Key limits in this scenario. Most everything needs to be able to have these properties, but the Pages cannot be unique to each object, because they are going to be frequently shared and joined between multiple objects. All relationships are one-sided. (That is, a Page has no knowledge of what owns it). Because of this, I also have no Inverse() mapped HasManyToMany collections. Also, I have read the similar question : Usage of ORMs like NHibernate when there are many associations - performance concerns But it really did not answer my concerns.

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  • Why does Module::Build's testcover gives me "use of uninitialized value" warnings?

    - by Kurt W. Leucht
    I'm kinda new to Module::Build, so maybe I did something wrong. Am I the only one who gets warnings when I change my dispatch from "test" to "testcover"? Is there a bug in Devel::Cover? Is there a bug in Module::Build? I probably just did something wrong. I'm using ActiveState Perl v5.10.0 with Module::Build version 0.31012 and Devel::Cover 0.64 and Eclipse 3.4.1 with EPIC 0.6.34 for my IDE. UPDATE: I upgraded to Module::Build 0.34 and the warnings are still output. *UPDATE: Looks like a bug in B::Deparse. Hope it gets fixed someday.* Here's my unit test build file: use strict; use warnings; use Module::Build; my $build = Module::Build->resume ( properties => { config_dir => '_build', }, ); $build->dispatch('test'); When I run this unit test build file, I get the following output: t\MyLib1.......ok t\MyLib2.......ok t\MyLib3.......ok All tests successful. Files=3, Tests=24, 0 wallclock secs ( 0.00 cusr + 0.00 csys = 0.00 CPU) But when I change the dispatch line to 'testcover' I get the following output which always includes a bunch of "use of uninitialized value in bitwise and" warning messages: Deleting database D:/Documents and Settings/<username>/My Documents/<SNIP>/cover_db t\MyLib1.......ok Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. t\MyLib2.......ok Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. t\MyLib3.......ok Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. Use of uninitialized value in bitwise and (&) at D:/Perl/lib/B/Deparse.pm line 4252. All tests successful. Files=3, Tests=24, 0 wallclock secs ( 0.00 cusr + 0.00 csys = 0.00 CPU) Reading database from D:/Documents and Settings/<username>/My Documents/<SNIP>/cover_db ---------------------------- ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ File stmt bran cond sub pod time total ---------------------------- ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ .../lib/ActivePerl/Config.pm 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 n/a 0.0 ...l/lib/ActiveState/Path.pm 0.0 0.0 0.0 0.0 100.0 n/a 4.8 <SNIP> blib/lib/<SNIP>/MyLib2.pm 100.0 90.0 n/a 100.0 100.0 0.0 98.5 blib/lib/<SNIP>/MyLib3.pm 100.0 90.9 100.0 100.0 100.0 0.6 98.0 Total 14.4 6.7 3.8 18.3 20.0 100.0 11.6 ---------------------------- ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ ------ Writing HTML output to D:/Documents and Settings/<username>/My Documents/<SNIP>/cover_db/coverage.html ... done.

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • Making a login Using JavaScript, Will Incorporate PHP Later

    - by TIMOTHY
    not sure why my code wont work, im teaching myself javascript i know php moderatly and i also know the intelligence of using java to hold a password and username, but at the moment i just want the script to work. <html> <head> <title>34webs</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/lightbox.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" href="main.css"> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/prototype.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/scriptaculous.js?load=effects,builder"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/lightbox.js"></script> <script type="javascript" > function logintry (){ var usern = document.logn.username.value; var passw = document.logn.password.value; if(usern == blue && passw == bluee){ alert('password is correct!'); }else{ alert('password is wrong'); } } </script> </head> <body> <div id="bod"> <div id="nav"> <p id="buttonhead">34 web</p> <a href="#" class="button">HOME</a> <a href="#" class="button">NEWS</a> <a href="#" class="button">DOWNLOADS</a> <a href="#" class="button">ERA</a> <a href="#" class="button">IE BROWSER</a> <a href="#" class="button">DRIVERS</a> <form name="logn"> <table style="margin:0 auto; background:#0174DF; color:white;"> <tr> <td> Username<br> <input type="text" name="username" value=""> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Password<br> <input type="password" name="password" value=""> </td> </tr> <tr> <td style="text-align:center;"> <input type="button" name="Submit" value="submit" onclick= javascript: logintry()> </td> </tr> </table> </form> </div>

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  • Decentralized synchronized secure data storage

    - by Alberich
    Introduction Hi, I am going to ask a question which seems utopic for me, but I need to know if there is a way to achieve what I need. And if not, I need to know why not. The idea Suppose I have a database structure, in MySql. I want to create some solution to allow anyone (no matter who, no matter where) to have a synchronized copy (updated clone) of this database (with its content) Well, and it is not going to be just one synchronized copy, it could (and should) be a multiple replication (supposing the basic, this means, for example, ten copies all over the world) And, the most important thing: It must be secure. By secure I mean only real-accepted transactions will be synchronized with all the others (no matter how many) database copies/clones. Note: Since it would be quite difficult to make the synchronization in real-time, I will design everything to make this feature dispensable. So it is not required. My auto-suggestion This is how I am thinking to manage it: Time identifiers and Updates checking: Every action (insert, update, delete...) will be stored as the action instruction itself, associated to the time identifier. [I think better than a DATETIME field, it'll be an INT one, with the number of miliseconds passed from 1st january 2013 on, for example]. So each copy is going to ask to the "neighbour copy" for new actions done since last update, and execute them after checking they are allowed. Problem 1: the "neighbour copy" could be outdated too. Solution 1: do not ask just one neighbour, create a random list with some of the copies/clones and ask them for news (I could avoid the list and ask ALL the clones for updates, but this will be inefficient if clones number ascends too much). Problem 2: Real-time global synchronization is not active. What if... Someone at CLONE_ENTERPRISING inserts a row into TABLE. ... this row goes to every clone ... Someone at CLONE_FIXEMALL deletes this row. ... and at the same time, somewhere in an outdated clone ... Someone at CLONE_DROPOUT edits this row (now inexistent at the other clones) Solution 2: easy stuff, force a GLOBAL synchronization before doing any new "depending-on-third-data action" (edit, for example). This global synch. will be unnecessary when making an INSERT, for instance. Note: Well, someone could have some fun, and make the same insert in two clones... since they're not getting updated in real-time, this row will exist twice. But, it's the same as when we have one single database, in some needed cases we check if there is an existing same-row before doing the final action. Not a problem. Problem 3: It is possible to edit the code and do not filter actions, so someone could spread instructions to delete everything, or just make some trolling activity. This is not a problem, since good clones will always be somewhere. Those who got bad won't interest anymore. I really appreciate if you read. I know this is not the perfect solution, it has possibly hundred of holes, but it is my basic start. I will now appreciate anything you can teach me now. Thanks a lot. PS.: It could be that all this I am trying already exists and has its own name. Sorry for asking then (I'd anyway thank this name, if it exists)

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  • Unable to add item to dataset in Linq to SQL

    - by Mike B
    I am having an issue adding an item to my dataset in Linq to SQL. I am using the exact same method in other tables with no problem. I suspect I know the problem but cannot find an answer (I also suspect all i really need is the right search term for Google). Please keep in mind this is a learning project (Although it is in use in a business) I have posted my code and datacontext below. What I am doing is: Create a view model (Relevant bits are shown) and a simple wpf window that allows editing of 3 properties that are bound to the category object. Category is from the datacontext. Edit works fine but add does not. If I check GetChangeSet() just before the db.submitChanges() call there are no adds, edits or deletes. I suspect an issue with the fact that a Category added without a Subcategory would be an orphan but I cannot seem to find the solution. Command code to open window: CategoryViewModel vm = new CategoryViewModel(); AddEditCategoryWindow window = new AddEditCategoryWindow(vm); window.ShowDialog(); ViewModel relevant stuff: public class CategoryViewModel : ViewModelBase { public Category category { get; set; } // Constructor used to Edit a Category public CategoryViewModel(Int16 categoryID) { db = new OITaskManagerDataContext(); category = QueryCategory(categoryID); } // Constructor used to Add a Category public CategoryViewModel() { db = new OITaskManagerDataContext(); category = new Category(); } } The code for saving changes: // Don't close window unless all controls are validated if (!vm.IsValid(this)) return; var changes = vm.db.GetChangeSet(); // DEBUG try { vm.db.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode.ContinueOnConflict); } catch (ChangeConflictException) { vm.db.ChangeConflicts.ResolveAll(RefreshMode.KeepChanges); vm.db.SubmitChanges(); } The Xaml (Edited fror brevity): <TextBox Text="{Binding category.CatName, Mode=TwoWay, ValidatesOnDataErrors=True, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding category.CatDescription, ValidatesOnDataErrors=True, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> <CheckBox IsChecked="{Binding category.CatIsInactive, Mode=TwoWay}" /> IssCategory in the Issues table is the old, text based category. This field is no longer used and will be removed from the database as soon as this is working and pushed live.

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  • Send Mail through Jsp page.

    - by sourabhtaletiya
    hi friends ,i have tried alot to send mail via jsp page but i am not succeded. A error is coming javax.servlet.ServletException: 530 5.7.0 Must issue a STARTTLS command first. x1sm5029316wbx.19 <html> <head> <title>JSP JavaMail Example </title> </head> <body> <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@ page import="javax.mail.*" %> <%@ page import="javax.mail.internet.*" %> <%@ page import="javax.activation.*" %> <% java.security.Security.addProvider(new com.sun.net.ssl.internal.ssl.Provider()); Properties props = System.getProperties(); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.required","true"); String host = "smtp.gmail.com"; String to = request.getParameter("to"); String from = request.getParameter("from"); String subject = request.getParameter("subject"); String messageText = request.getParameter("body"); boolean sessionDebug = false; props.put("mail.smtp.host", "smtp.gmail.com"); props.put("mail.transport.protocol", "smtp"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", "25"); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.debug", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port","25"); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); Session mailSession = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); mailSession.setDebug(sessionDebug); Message msg = new MimeMessage(mailSession); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); msg.setFrom(new InternetAddress(from)); InternetAddress[] address = {new InternetAddress(to)}; msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, address); msg.setSubject(subject); msg.setSentDate(new Date()); msg.setText(messageText); props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); Transport tr = mailSession.getTransport("smtp"); tr.connect(host, "sourabh.web7", "june251989"); msg.saveChanges(); // don't forget this props.put("mail.smtp.starttls.enable","true"); tr.sendMessage(msg, msg.getAllRecipients()); tr.close(); // Transport.send(msg); /* out.println("Mail was sent to " + to); out.println(" from " + from); out.println(" using host " + host + ".");*/ %> </table> </body> </html>

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  • Class not overwriting with addClass

    - by scatteredbomb
    I'm using jQuery's addClass to add a class to an tab so when clicked it'll change the class so it's obvious the tab is highlighted. My HTML <div id="mainNav"> <ul> <li id="LinktheBand" onclick="nav('theBand')">The Band</li> <li id="linkTheMusic" onclick="nav('theMusic')">The Music</li> My CSS #mainNav li { float:left; margin-right:5px; color:white; font-family:Tahoma; font-weight:bold; padding: 10px 8px 0px 8px; background:url('../images/transparent-65.png'); height:40px; height: 25px !important; border:1px solid #000; } #mainNav li:hover { float:left; margin-right:5px; color:white; font-family:Tahoma; font-weight:bold; padding: 10px 8px 0px 8px; background: #660000; height:40px; height: 25px !important; border:1px solid #660000; } .mainNavSelected { float:left; margin-right:5px; color:white; font-family:Tahoma; font-weight:bold; padding: 10px 8px 0px 8px; background: #660000; height:40px; height: 25px !important; border:1px solid #660000; } My Javascript function nav(a) { $('#'+a).show(); $('#Link'+a).addClass('mainNavSelected'); } This works properly, I check firebug and can see the class="mainNavSelected" is added, but the list element doesn't take any properties of the new class. Firebug lists all the class items for mainNavSelected, but has them all crossed out. What am i missing to replace the class of this element?

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  • Wrapping a paragraph inside a div?

    - by LOD121
    How do I make my paragraph wrap inside my div? It is currently overflowing outside of the div and I have no idea how to stop the paragraph from overflowing over the edge. I do not want a scroll bar with: overflow: scroll; and the other overflow options don't seem to help here either... I have the following code: div { width: 1200px; margin: 0 auto; } .container { overflow: hidden; } .content { width: 1000px; float: left; margin-left: 0; text-align: left; } .rightpanel { width: 190px; float: right; margin-right: 0; } <div class="container"> <div class="content"> <p>Some content flowing over more than one line</p> </div> <div class="rightpanel"> <!-- content --> </div> </div> Edit: <div class="container"> <div class="content"> <div class="leftcontent"> </div> <div class="newsfeed"> <div class="newsitem"> <p>Full age sex set feel her told. Tastes giving in passed direct me valley as supply. End great stood boy noisy often way taken short. Rent the size our more door. Years no place abode in no child my. Man pianoforte too solicitude friendship devonshire ten ask. Course sooner its silent but formal she led. Extensive he assurance extremity at breakfast. Dear sure ye sold fine sell on. Projection at up connection literature insensible motionless projecting.<br><br>Be at miss or each good play home they. It leave taste mr in it fancy. She son lose does fond bred gave lady get. Sir her company conduct expense bed any. Sister depend change off piqued one. Contented continued any happiness instantly objection yet her allowance. Use correct day new brought tedious. By come this been in. Kept easy or sons my it done.</p> </div> </div> </div> <div class="rightpanel"> </div>

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  • What is a proper way to store site-level global variables in a SharePoint site?

    - by ccomet
    One thing that has driven me nuts about SharePoint2007 is the apparent inability to have defineable settings that apply specifically to a site or site collection itself, and not the content. I mean, you have some pre-defined settings like the Site Logo, the Site Name, and various other things, but there doesn't appear to be anywhere to add new kinds of settings. The application I am working on needs to be able to create multiple kinds of "project site collections" that all follow a basic template, but have certain additional settings that apply specifically to that site collection and that one alone. In addition to the standard site name we also need to define the Project Number, the Project Name, and the Client Name. And given the requests of some of our clients, we also reach a point where we have to have configurable settings that alter how some of the workflows work, like whether files are marked with Letters or Numbers. Our current solution, which I'm hesitant about, has been to store an XML file on the SharePoint server. This file contains one node for each site collection, identified by the URL of the root site. Inside the node are all of the elements that need to be defined for that site collection. When we need them, we have to access the XML file (which will always require SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to access files right on the server) every time to load it and retrieve the data. There are a lot of automated processes which will have to do this, and I'm hesitant about the stability of this method when we reach hundreds of sites with thousands of files running tens of thousands of workflows, all wanting to access this file. Maybe they're unfounded worries, but I'd rather worry than risk everything breaking in a couple years. I was looking into the SPWeb object and found the AllProperties hashtable. It looks like just the kind of thing which might work, but I don't know how safe it is to be modifying this. I read through both MSDN and the WSS SDK but found nothing that clarified on adding completely new properties into AllProperties. Is it safe to use AllProperties for this kind of thing? Or is there yet another feature that I am missing, which could handle the concept of global variables at the site collection or site scope?

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  • WPF Binding when setting DataTemplate Programically

    - by Daniel
    Hello, I have my little designer tool (my program). On the left side I have TreeView and on the right site I have Accordion. When I select a node I want to dynamically build Accordion Items based on Properties from DataContext of selected node. Selecting nodes works fine, and when I use this sample code for testing it works also. XAML code: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous"> <layoutToolkit:AccordionItem Header="Controller Info"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </layoutToolkit:AccordionItem> </layoutToolkit:Accordion> C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; //e.NewValue is a class that contains Name property } } } But the problem occurs when I'm trying to achive this using DateTemplate and dynamically build AccordingItem, the Binding is not working: <layoutToolkit:Accordion x:Name="accPanel" SelectionMode="ZeroOrMore" SelectionSequence="Simultaneous"> </layoutToolkit:Accordion> and DateTemplate in my ResourceDictionary <DataTemplate x:Key="dtSceneNodeContent"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" DataContext="{Binding}"> <TextBlock Text="Content:" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and C# code: private void treeSceneNode_SelectedItemChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<object> e) { if (e.NewValue != e.OldValue) { ResourceDictionary rd = new ResourceDictionary(); rd.Source = new Uri("/SilverGL.GUI;component/SilverGLDesignerResourceDictionary.xaml", UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute); if (e.NewValue is SceneNode) { accPanel.DataContext = e.NewValue; AccordionItem accController = new AccordionItem(); accController.Header = "Controller Info"; accController.ContentTemplate = rd["dtSceneNodeContent"] as DataTemplate; accPanel.Items.Add(accController); } else { // Other type of node } } } I really need help with this issue. Thanks for any support. Daniel

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  • MasterDetails Loading on Demand problem

    - by devnet247
    Hi As an exercise to learn wpf and understand how binding works I have an example that works.However when I try to load on demand I fail miserably. I basically have 3 classes Country-City-Hotels If I load ALL in one go it all works if I load on demand it fails miserably. What Am I doing wrong? Works <Window x:Class="MasterDetailCollectionViewSource.CountryCityHotelWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="CountryCityHotelWindow" Height="300" Width="450"> <Window.Resources> <CollectionViewSource Source="{Binding}" x:Key="cvsCountryList"/> <CollectionViewSource Source="{Binding Source={StaticResource cvsCountryList},Path=Cities}" x:Key="cvsCityList"/> <CollectionViewSource Source="{Binding Source={StaticResource cvsCityList},Path=Hotels}" x:Key="cvsHotelList"/> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition/> <ColumnDefinition/> <ColumnDefinition/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="Auto"/> <RowDefinition/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0" Text="Countries"/> <TextBlock Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="0" Text="Cities"/> <TextBlock Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="0" Text="Hotels"/> <ListBox Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Name="lstCountries" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource cvsCountryList}}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectionChanged="OnSelectionChanged"/> <ListBox Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Name="lstCities" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource cvsCityList}}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectionChanged="OnSelectionChanged"/> <ListBox Grid.Column="2" Grid.Row="1" Name="lstHotels" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource cvsHotelList}}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectionChanged="OnSelectionChanged"/> </Grid> </Window> DOES NOT WORK Xaml is the same as above, however I have added the following that fetches stuff on demand. It loads the countries only as opposed to the other one where it Loads everything at once and not code behind is necessary. public CountryCityHotelWindow() { InitializeComponent(); //Load only country Initially lstCountries.ItemsSource=Repository.GetCountries(); DataContext = lstCountries; } private void OnSelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { var lstBox = (ListBox)e.OriginalSource; switch (lstBox.Name) { case "lstCountries": var country = lstBox.SelectedItem as Country; if (country == null) return; lstCities.ItemsSource = Repository.GetCities(country.Name); break; case "lstCities": var city = lstBox.SelectedItem as City; if (city == null) return; lstHotels.ItemsSource = Repository.GetHotels(city.Name); break; case "lstHotels": break; } } What Am I doing Wrong? Thanks

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  • Generate MetaData with ANT

    - by Neil Foley
    I have a folder structure that contains multiple javascript files, each of these files need a standard piece of text at the top = //@include "includes.js" Each folder needs to contain a file named includes.js that has an include entry for each file in its directory and and entry for the include file in its parent directory. I'm trying to achive this using ant and its not going too well. So far I have the following, which does the job of inserting the header but not without actually moving or copying the file. I have heard people mentioning the <replace> task to do this but am a bit stumped. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="JavaContentAssist" default="start" basedir="."> <taskdef resource="net/sf/antcontrib/antcontrib.properties"> <classpath> <pathelement location="C:/dr_workspaces/Maven Repository/.m2/repository/ant-contrib/ant-contrib/20020829/ant-contrib-20020829.jar"/> </classpath> </taskdef> <target name="start"> <foreach target="strip" param="file"> <fileset dir="${basedir}"> <include name="**/*.js"/> <exclude name="**/includes.js"/> </fileset> </foreach> </target> <target name="strip"> <move file="${file}" tofile="${a_location}" overwrite="true"> <filterchain> <striplinecomments> <comment value="//@" /> </striplinecomments> <concatfilter prepend="${basedir}/header.txt"> </concatfilter> </filterchain> </move> </target> </project> As for the generation of the include files in the dir I'm not sure where to start at all. I'd appreciate if somebody could point me in the right direction.

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  • Invoke a SOAP method with namespace prefixes

    - by mvladic
    My C# web service client sends following soap message to Java-based web service: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soap:Body> <getData> <request> <requestParameters xmlns="http://b..."> <equals> ... </equals> </requestParameters> </request> </getData> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> and Java-based web service returns error: 500 Internal Server Error ... Cannot find dispatch method for {}getData ... Client written in Java, which works, sends the following message: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <soap:Body> <ns2:getData xmlns:ns2="http://a..."> <ns2:request> <ns3:requestParameters xmlns:ns3="http://b..."> <ns3:equals> ... </ns3:equals> </ns3:requestParameters> </ns2:request> </ns2:getData> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> Is there an easy way in C# to send SOAP messages the same way Java client sends: with namespace prefixes? Following is C# code that sends message: // class MyService is auto-generated using wsdl.exe tool MyService service = new MyService(); RequestMessage request = new RequestMessage(); ... ResponseMessage response = service.getData(request); ... UPDATE: RequestMessage class looks like this: /// <remarks/> [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("svcutil", "3.0.4506.2152")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThroughAttribute()] [System.ComponentModel.DesignerCategoryAttribute("code")] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="http://uri.etsi.org/02657/v1.5.1#/RetainedData")] public partial class RequestMessage { private byte[] requestPriorityField; private RequestConstraints requestParametersField; private string deliveryPointHIBField; private string maxHitsField; private NationalRequestParameters nationalRequestParametersField; private System.Xml.XmlElement anyField; /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(DataType="hexBinary", Order=0)] public byte[] requestPriority { get { return this.requestPriorityField; } set { this.requestPriorityField = value; } } /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Order=1)] public RequestConstraints requestParameters { get { return this.requestParametersField; } set { this.requestParametersField = value; } } /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Order=2)] public string deliveryPointHIB { get { return this.deliveryPointHIBField; } set { this.deliveryPointHIBField = value; } } /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(DataType="integer", Order=3)] public string maxHits { get { return this.maxHitsField; } set { this.maxHitsField = value; } } /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Order=4)] public NationalRequestParameters nationalRequestParameters { get { return this.nationalRequestParametersField; } set { this.nationalRequestParametersField = value; } } /// <remarks/> [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlAnyElementAttribute(Order=5)] public System.Xml.XmlElement Any { get { return this.anyField; } set { this.anyField = value; } } }

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  • IE 6 and 7 background inheritance problem, how do I solve this?

    - by Evilalan
    When I'm trying to create a rounded shaded box it works fine on FF and IE8 but on IE6 and IE7, any div inside the box gets the last background but if you set that all divs on the level where there should not be a background have background:none it doesn't show any background on the level that comes before *The code is pointing to live images on Image Shack so you can save and run that it will work normally on Firefox but you can see what happen on IE6/7. Also I can't give a specific class for the intens inside the containet "background" because it's a CMS that I'm trying to style! the code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Problem With IE6 and 7</title> <style type="text/css"> * {padding:0px; margin:0px auto;} body {font-family:Verdana, Geneva, sans-serif; color:#666; font-size:14px; text-align:justify;} .background {width:300px;} .background div {background:url(http://img6.imageshack.us/img6/5763/76022084.png) repeat-y;} .background div div {background:url(http://img253.imageshack.us/img253/444/97936614.png) top left no-repeat;} .background div div div {background:url(http://img13.imageshack.us/img13/3667/45918712.png) bottom left no-repeat;} .background div div div div {padding:15px; background:none;} </style> </head> <body> <div class="background"> <div><div><div><div> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Duis ut sagittis nisl. Nullam facilisis volutpat metus eu semper. Sed eleifend, mi sed rhoncus interdum, neque quam pellentesque diam, in tincidunt metus nulla in ligula. Donec dui tellus, ultricies vel venenatis vitae, aliquam et purus. Cras eu nunc urna, in placerat quam. Pellentesque lobortis pellentesque orci, a tempus diam consequat nec. Aliquam erat volutpat. Aliquam laoreet blandit tellus in mollis. Duis tincidunt, justo sit amet lacinia ultrices, nibh justo venenatis erat, non commodo libero ligula quis ante. Cras eget nulla nec est accumsan porttitor at euismod nulla. Integer pharetra lacinia malesuada. Donec commodo vestibulum est, eget pellentesque velit volutpat nec. In id erat nec ipsum consequat convallis id non libero. Sed dui nisl, molestie vel dignissim sed, mattis in est. Vestibulum porttitor posuere ipsum, id facilisis libero dapibus et. Fusce consequat malesuada nulla, vitae faucibus neque consectetur eget. Curabitur porta dapibus justo dictum porttitor. Curabitur facilisis faucibus diam, vel dapibus ipsum ornare sed. Vestibulum turpis nulla, facilisis condimentum sodales sed, imperdiet placerat mi. Cras ac risus ipsum. </p> </div></div></div> </div><!-- class background end here --> </body> </html>

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  • save the transient instance before flushing

    - by eugenn
    Exception: object references an unsaved transient instance - save the transient instance before flushing: Child How to reproduce issue: 1. Hibernate is load the entity "Parent". The property "child" is null 2. The "Parent" is rendered on the screen and after that the "child" property is auto instantiated. So I have the following graph: Parent.child != null Parent.child.childId = null Parent.child.childKey = "" Parent.child.childName = "" Question: How I could to force the Hibernate to ignore updating or inserting Child entity WHEN childId = null? If childId != null I would like just create relation. <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.test.Parent" entity-name="ParentObject" table="parent" dynamic-insert="false" dynamic-update="true" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="rowId" type="long"> <column name="RowID" /> <generator class="native" /> </id> <version name="versionSequence" type="integer" unsaved-value="null" generated="never" insert="false"> <column name="VersionSequence" /> </version> <many-to-one name="child" entity-name="Child" fetch="select" optimistic-lock="true" embed-xml="false" update="true" insert="false"> <column name="ChildID" /> </many-to-one> <property name="dateCreated" type="timestamp"> <column name="DateCreated" length="0" /> </property> <property name="dateUpdated" type="timestamp" update="false"> <column name="DateUpdated" length="0" /> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.Child" entity-name="Child" table="Child" dynamic-insert="false" dynamic-update="true" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="childId" type="long" > <column name="ChildID" /> <generator class="native" /> </id> <version name="versionSequence" type="integer" insert="false" generated="never" > <column name="VersionSequence" /> </version> <property name="childKey" type="string" > <column name="ChildKey" length="20" /> </property> <property name="childName" type="string" > <column name="ChildName" length="30" /> </property> <property name="childNumber" type="string" > <column name="ChildNumber" /> </property> <property name="dateCreated" type="timestamp"> <column name="DateCreated" /> </property> <property name="dateUpdated" type="timestamp" update="false"> <column name="DateUpdated" /> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

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