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  • ListBox selector odd behavior when there are dupes

    - by byte1918
    I'm working on a bigger project atm, but I made this simple example to show you what happens.. using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Windows; namespace txt { public partial class MainWindow { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var obsLst = new List<Info> { new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" }, new Info { name = "asd" } }; var temp = new List<Info>(); for (var i = 1; i <= 3; i++) { temp.Add(obsLst[0]); //I add 3 of the same item from obsLst to temp } lst.DataContext = temp; //lst = ListBox } } public class Info { public string name { get; set; } } } The ListBox ItemsSource is set to {Binding}.. When I start the application I get 3 txt.Info objects displayed and if I click any of them, 2 or even all of them get selected aswell. From my understanding the problem relies in the fact that the listbox selector cannot differentiate between the items and therefor doesn't know which one I selected. Here's a picture of what it looks like.. I only clicked on the second txt.Info item. I found a solution where someone said that I have to specify the DisplayMemberPath, but I can't really do that in the other project because I have a datatemplate for the object. Any ideas on how I could fix this would be great.. Thx in advance.

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  • Help with jQuery Ajax calling ASMX which returns string.

    - by Jason Evans
    Hi there. I have the following jQuery ajax call setup: function Testing() { var result = ''; $.ajax({ url: 'BookingUtils.asmx/GetNonBookableSlots', dataType: 'text', error: function(error) { alert('GetNonBookableSlots Error'); }, success: function(data) { alert('GetNonBookableSlots'); result = data; } }); return result; } Here is the web service I'm trying to call: [WebMethod] public string GetNonBookableSlots() { return "fhsdfuhsiufhsd"; } When I run the jQuery code, there is no error or success event fired (none of the alerts are called). In fact, nothing happens at all, the javascript code just moves on to return statement at the end. I put a breakpoint in the web service code and it does get hit, but when I leave that method I end up on the return statement anyway. Can someone give me some tips on how I should be configuring the ajax call correctly, as I feel that I'm doing this wrong. The webservice just needs to return a string, no XML or JSON involved. Cheers. Jas.

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  • Internet Explorer randomly drops sessions between pages in cakePHP

    - by Emerson Taymor
    Hello everyone, I've come across an extremely unusual bug that my team has literally no idea how to solve. Doing some research, I found some similar solutions that I thought would work, but alas did not. Here is my situation, let me know if I can provide additional insight to help solve the problem. The first step is that someone chooses a country via a flash map. Flash passes this region name (as well as a date) through the URL, which we then convert to a session. The next page contains no Flash and doesn't display the selected region, but it does hold on to it for further down the process. Everything works perfectly in Safari and Firefox; however, in IE sometimes unexpected results occur. Frequently (but not always), the session is dropped completely and no sessions are stored between the first and 2nd pages. Here are the steps that I have taken thus far, unsuccessfully: 1. Changed Security from Medium - Low 2. Changed CheckUserAgent from True - False 3. Changed storing of sessions from PHP - Database Some additional information that may be useful: I have tried printing out the session data in Debug (debug($_SESSION) on my view file and debug set to 2 in config). In Internet Explorer everything prints out as expected EXCEPT when the region and date don't get set. For example: If the region and date don't get set NOTHING is printed out for debug. I don't get the session details at the top, and I don't get the normal dump of calls at the bottom of the page either. I am not using redirection on these pages. Please let me know if you have ANY idea of what is causing this or any solutions. I am beyond frustrated and have tried as much as I can to solve this. Thanks!

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  • Unable to turn off notice errors in PHP 5.3.2

    - by knkk
    Hi everyone, I recently migrated to PHP 5.3.2, and realized that I am unable to turn off notice errors in my site now. I went to php.ini, and in these lines: ; Common Values: ; E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE (Show all errors, except for notices and coding standards warnings.) ; E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE | E_STRICT (Show all errors, except for notices) ; E_COMPILE_ERROR|E_RECOVERABLE_ERROR|E_ERROR|E_CORE_ERROR (Show only errors) ; E_ALL | E_STRICT (Show all errors, warnings and notices including coding standards.) ; Default Value: E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE ; Development Value: E_ALL | E_STRICT ; Production Value: E_ALL & ~E_DEPRECATED ; http://php.net/error-reporting error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE ...I've tried setting everything (and I restart apache each time), but I am unable to get rid of notices. The only way I'm able to get rid of notice errors is by setting : display_errors = Off That is, of course, not something I can do since I need to see errors to fix them, and I would like to see errors on the webpage that I am coding rather than log them somewhere. Can someone help? Is this a bug in PHP 5.3.2 or something I am doing wrong? Thank you very much for your time! P. S. Also, would anyone know how I can get PHP 5.3.2 to support the .php3 extension?

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  • Faking Fixed Position in IE6

    - by Andrew
    I have a site that utilizes a bottom fixed position masthead here: http://www.entheospartners.com/newsite/ This setup works great in all browsers except IE6, which doesn't support fixed positioning in the least, so here's what I've done: When an IE6 user comes to the page, I make the determination if scrolling is necessary using this bit of code: var windowHeight = $(window).height(); var totalHeight = windowHeight - 100; // where 100 is the sum of the top nav height + footer height var contentHeight; if($('#subpage-content-small').length) { // main content div for a three column layout contentHeight = $('#subpage-content-small').height(); }; if($('#subpage-content-wide').length) { // main content div for a two column layout contentHeight = $('#subpage-content-wide').height(); }; if(contentHeight > totalHeight) { $('#container-container').css({ 'overflow-y' : "scroll", 'height' : totalHeight }); }; ...which calculates everything correctly, puts the scrollbars where they need to be (flush right), and sets them to the appropriate height. The problem is that the scrollbars don't move the content. I can't say that I've ever seen anything quite like this before, so I'm hoping someone else on here has. Thanks in advance! PS - Obviously, this needs to be looked at in IE6 for troubleshooting, which I know will be as painful for you as it is for me.

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  • Manually filling opcode cache for entire app using apc_compile_file, then switching to new release.

    - by Ben
    Does anyone have a great system, or any ideas, for doing as the title says? I want to switch production version of web app-- written in PHP and served by Apache-- from release 1234 to release 1235, but before that happens, have all files already in the opcode cache (APC). Then after the switch, remove the old cache entries for files from release 1234. As far as I can think of there are three easy ways of atomically switching from one version to the next. Have a symbolic link, for example /live, that is always the document root but is changed to point from one version to the next. Similarly, have a directory /live that is always the document root, but use mv live oldversion && mv newversion live to switch to new version. Edit apache configuration to change the document root to newversion, then restart apache. I think it is preferable not to have to do 3, but I can't think of anyway to precompile all php files AND use 1 or 2 to switch release. So can someone either convince me its okay to rely on option 3, or tell me how to work with 1 or 2, or reveal some other option I am not thinking of?

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  • npgsql Leaking Postgres DB Connections: Way to monitor connections?

    - by Alan
    Background: I'm moving my application from npgsql v1 to npgsql v2.0.9. After a few minutes of running my application, I get a System.Exception: Timeout while getting a connection from the pool. The web claims that this is due to leaking connections (opening a db connection, but not properly closing them). So I'm trying to diagnose leaking postgres connections in npgsql. From the various web literature around; one way to diagnose leaking connections is to setup logging on npgsql, and look for the leaking connection warning message in the log. Problem is, I'm not seeing this message in the logs anywhere. I also found utility that monitors npgsql connections, but it's unstable and crashes. So I'm left manually inspecting code. For everyplace that creates an npgsql connection, there is a finally block disposing of it. For everyplace that opens a datareader, CommandBehavior.CloseConnection is used (and the datareader is disposed). Any other places to check or can someone recommend a way to look for leaking pool connections?

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  • Writing a VM - well formed bytecode?

    - by David Titarenco
    Hi, I'm writing a virtual machine in C just for fun. Lame, I know, but luckily I'm on SO so hopefully no one will make fun :) I wrote a really quick'n'dirty VM that reads lines of (my own) ASM and does stuff. Right now, I only have 3 instructions: add, jmp, end. All is well and it's actually pretty cool being able to feed lines (doing it something like write_line(&prog[1], "jmp", regA, regB, 0); and then running the program: while (machine.code_pointer <= BOUNDS && DONE != true) { run_line(&prog[machine.cp]); } I'm using an opcode lookup table (which may not be efficient but it's elegant) in C and everything seems to be working OK. My question is more of a "best practices" question but I do think there's a correct answer to it. I'm making the VM able to read binary files (storing bytes in unsigned char[]) and execute bytecode. My question is: is it the VM's job to make sure the bytecode is well formed or is it just the compiler's job to make sure the binary file it spits out is well formed? I only ask this because what would happen if someone would edit a binary file and screw stuff up (delete arbitrary parts of it, etc). Clearly, the program would be buggy and probably not functional. Is this even the VM's problem? I'm sure that people much smarter than me have figured out solutions to these problems, I'm just curious what they are!

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  • Execute Stored Procedure from Classic ASP

    - by Jaco Pretorius
    For some fantastic reason I find myself debugging a problem in a Classic ASP page (at least 10 years of my life lost in the last 2 days). I'm trying to execute a stored procedure which contains some OUT parameters. The problem is that one of the OUT parameters is not being populated when the stored procedure returns. I can execute the stored proc from SQL management studio (this is 2008) and all the values are being set and returned exactly as expected. declare @inVar1 varchar(255) declare @inVar2 varchar(255) declare @outVar1 varchar(255) declare @outVar2 varchar(255) SET @inVar2 = 'someValue' exec theStoredProc @inVar1 , @inVar2 , @outVar1 OUT, @outVar2 OUT print '@outVar1=' + @outVar1 print '@outVar2=' + @outVar2 Works great. Fantastic. Perfect. The exact values that I'm expecting are being returned and printed out. Right, since I'm trying to debug a Classic ASP page I copied the code into a VBScript file to try and narrow down the problem. Here is what I came up with: Set Conn = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open "xxx" Set objCommandSec = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") objCommandSec.ActiveConnection = Conn objCommandSec.CommandType = 4 objCommandSec.CommandText = "theStoredProc " objCommandSec.Parameters.Refresh objCommandSec.Parameters(2) = "someValue" objCommandSec.Execute MsgBox(objCommandSec.Parameters(3)) Doesn't work. Not even a little bit. (Another ten years of my life down the drain) The third parameter is simply NULL - which is what I'm experiencing in the Classic ASP page as well. Could someone shed some light on this? Am I completely daft for thinking that the classic ASP code would be the same as the VBScript code? I think it's using the same scripting engine and syntax so I should be ok, but I'm not 100% sure. The result I'm seeing from my VBScript is the same as I'm seeing in ASP.

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  • PHP webservice for c# application

    - by user293995
    Hi, I want to create a php webservice server to be used from a C# application. I want to have a library who autogenerate wsdl file for easy management (That's the reason why I choosed NuSoap). I tried to use nusoap on PHP5. I have some problems with charset and Content-Type. Visual Studio gives this error : The HTML document does not contain Web service discovery information. Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'https://www.xxx.yy'. There is a problem with the XML that was received from the network. See inner exception for more details. The encoding in the declaration 'ISO-8859-1' does not match the encoding of the document 'utf-8'. If the service is defined in the current solution, try building the solution and adding the service reference again. $soap= new soap_server(); $soap-xml_encoding = 'utf-8'; $soap-configureWSDL('Bonjour', 'https://www.xxx.yy'); $soap-wsdl-schemaTargetNamespace = 'http://soapinterop.org/xsd/'; $soap-register('bonjour', array('prenom' = 'xsd:string')); $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA = file_get_contents("php://input"); $soap-service($HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA); header('Content-Type: application/soap+xml; charset=utf-8'); function bonjour($prenom) { return "Bonjour ".$prenom; } ? Does someone knows how to change that to make it compliant and working ? Thanks

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  • Membership.Updateuser not really updating the database.

    - by Shimrod
    Hi everybody, I'm currently working on a membership system for my web application, which is based on forms authentication from the framework. I created some users with the integrated tool, and the login is perfectly working. But now what I want to do is to give administrator the capability to create, modify, delete users. So here is what I've got right now: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim muc As MembershipUserCollection = Membership.GetAllUsers() ComboBox1.DataSource = muc ComboBox1.DataValueField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataTextField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataBind() End Sub Protected Sub ComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles ComboBox1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) Dim userRoles As String() = Roles.GetRolesForUser(userName) tbComments.Text = mu.Comment tbEmail.Text = mu.Email lblUserName.Text = mu.UserName End Sub Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) If Not mu Is Nothing Then Try mu.Comment = tbComments.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.Email = tbEmail.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.IsApproved = True Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu = Nothing Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()) End Try End If DetailPanel.Visible = False End Sub The problem is that the record doesn't seem to be updated in the database. I made the multiple calls to Membership.UpdateUser after reading this blog entry, but it didn't change anything. A strange think I noticed while debugging, is that when I enter the Button1_Click method, Membership.GetUser(userName) returns me values from my precedent attempt ! I don't really understand what I'm missing. Does someone have a clue ? Thanks in advance !

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  • Rewrite a URL that's already been redirected?

    - by Jack
    Hi guys, I'm running an Apache2 web server with a dynamic IP address. I bought exampledomain.net, and I use no-ip.com's domain-update service to redirect any visitors to my current ip address (endnote #1). For example, someone visits exampledomain.net and they get redirected to 73.181.57.34. It works like a charm. However, it isn't all that user-friendly. Can I rewrite the redirected, ip-address URL? I tried these rewrite rules in the root folder's .htaccess... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I simplified the RewriteCond. I would use regex in a real situation. Of course, this creates an infinite loop. The user visits www.exampledomain.net. They're redirected to 73.181.57.34:88 by no-ip. Apache redirects them to www.exampledomain.net which redirects them back to 73.181.57.34:88... so on and so forth. I'm a noob when it comes to rewriting, but is there a way to rewrite a URL without redirecting? I tried these rewrite rules too (a shot in the dark)... RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^73\.181\.57\.34:88 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ my.exampledomain.net/$1 [L,NC] # I'd read that Apache replied with a redirect header when you include http Thanks! (1) No-IP works like this: You download and install their dynamic update client on your server. Every couple of minutes it polls your server for its current external ip address. If it's changed, it updates your server's ip address in no-ip's records.

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  • xPath Groupings how?

    - by David
    OK So, I'm learning/using xpath for a basic application thats effectively ripping data off another website. I need to gain the knowledge of each persons Countryy/Suburb/area. In some instances you can get Australia/Victoria/melborne for instance. Others may just be Australia/Melbourne. Or even just Melbourne OR just AUSTRALIA. who knows. So I'm current able to view the below code and rip all of the information with the string xpath search:@" //table/tr/td/tabke/tr/td/font/a, this returns every entry, but what I really want is to group each lot separately. I hope someone out there on planet earth knows what I just tried to explain... and can help... Good day! <font face="arial" size="2"> <strong>Location:</strong> <a href="http://maps.google.com/maps?q=Australia" target="mapblast" style="text-decoration:none">Australia</a>, <a href='http://maps.google.com/maps?q=Australia%20Victoria'target="mapblast" style='text-decoration:none'>Victoria</a>, <a href='http://maps.google.com/maps?q=Australia%20Melbourne%20Victoria'target="mapblast" style='text-decoration:none'>Melbourne</a> </font> </td> </tr>

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  • WordPress Get 1 attachment per post from X category outside the loop

    - by davebowker
    Hey, Hope someone can help with this. What I want is to display 5 attachments but only 1 attachment from each post from a specific category in the sidebar, which links to the posts permalink. I'm using the following code so far which gets all attachments from all posts, but some posts have more than 1 attachment and I just want to show the first one, and link it to the permalink of the post. So although the limit is 5 posts, if one post has 4 attachments then currently it will show 4 from one, and 1 from the other totalling 5, when what I want it to do is just show 1 from each of 5 different posts. <?php $args = array( 'post_type' => 'attachment', 'numberposts' => 5, 'post_status' => null, 'post_parent' => null, // any parent 'category_name' => 'work', ); $attachments = get_posts($args); if ($attachments) { foreach ($attachments as $post) { setup_postdata($post); the_title(); the_permalink(); the_attachment_link($post->ID, false); the_excerpt(); } } ?> Cheers. Dave

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  • Comparing textbox.text value to value in SQL Server

    - by Anicho
    Okay so I am trying to compare a login textbox password and username with a custom validator using linq to get information from the database it always returns false though on the validator could someone please tell me where my code below is going wrong. This will be very much appreciated... thank you in advanced... protected void LoginValidate(object source, ServerValidateEventArgs args) { TiamoDataContext context = new TiamoDataContext(); var UsernameCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Username; var PasswordCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Password; String test1 = PasswordCheck.ToString(); String test2 = UsernameCheck.ToString(); if (test1 == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text && test2 == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text) { args.IsValid = true; Session["Username"] = TextBoxLoginUsername; Response.Redirect("UserProfile.aspx"); } else { args.IsValid = false; } } I dont know where I am going wrong I know its most probably some sort of silly mistake and me being inexperienced at this...

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  • Prevent two users from editing the same data

    - by Industrial
    Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

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  • Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

    - by Brann
    I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

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  • Python: Access dictionary value inside of tuple and sort quickly by dict value

    - by Aquat33nfan
    I know that wasn't clear. Here's what I'm doing specifically. I have my list of dictionaries here: dict = [{int=0, value=A}, {int=1, value=B}, ... n] and I want to take them in combinations, so I used itertools and it gave me a tuple (Well, okay it gave me a memory object that I then used enumerate on so I could loop over it and enumerate gave ma tuple): for (index, tuple) in enumerate(combinations(dict, 2)): and this is where I have my problem. I want to identify which of the two items in the combination has the bigger 'int' value and which has the smaller value and assign them to variables (I'm actually using more than 2 in the combination so I can't just say if tuple[0]['int'] tuple[1]['int'] and do the assignment because I'd have to list this out a bunch of times and that's hard to manage). I was going to assign each 'int' value to a variable, sort it in a list, index the 'int' value in the list by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 ... etc., then go back and access the dictionary I wanted by the int value and then assign the dictionary to a variable so I knew which was bigger. But I have a big list and lists and variable assignments are resource intensive and this is taking a long time (I had only a little bit of that written and it was taking forever to run). So I was hoping someone knew a fast way to do this. I actually could list out every possible combination of assignmnets using the if/thens but it's just like 5 pages of if/thens and assignments and is hard to read and manage when I want to change it. You've probably gathered this, but I"m new at programming. thx

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  • XMLHttpRequest() and Google Analytics Tracking

    - by sjw
    I have implemented an XMLHttpRequest() call to a standalone html page which simply has an html, title & body tag which Google Analytics Tracking code. I want to track when someone makes a request to display information (i.e. phone number) to try and understand what portion of people look at my directory versus obtaining a phone number to make a call. It is very simple code: var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhReq.open("GET", "/registerPhoneClick.htm?id=" + id, false); xhReq.send(null); var serverResponse = xhReq.responseText Yet I cannot see the "hit" in Analytics... Has anyone had this issue? All the analytics tracking code does is call: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-XXXXXXX"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> So realistically, my XmlHTTPRequest() calls an htm file within which a script is execute to make an outbound call to Google Analytics. Is there any reason why an XmlHTTPRequest() would not execute this? Does an XmlHTTPRequest() still bring the code to the client before execution? Help Please

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  • C# Tupel group limitation

    - by user609511
    How can i controll the loop of Tupel Repeatation ? Someone has give me a hint about my algorithm. I modified a little bit his algorithm. int LimCol = Convert.ToInt32(LimitColis); result = oListTUP .GroupBy(x => x.Item1) .Select(g => new { Key = g.Key, Sum = g.Sum(x => x.Item2), Poids = g.Sum(x => x.Item3), }) .Select(p => new { Key = p.Key, Items = Enumerable.Repeat(LimCol , p.Sum / LimCol).Concat(Enumerable.Repeat(p.Sum % LimCol, 1)), CalculPoids = p.Poids / (Enumerable.Repeat(LimCol, p.Sum / LimCol).Concat(Enumerable.Repeat(p.Sum % LimCol, 1))).Count() }) .SelectMany(p => p.Items.Select(i => Tuple.Create(p.Key, i, p.CalculPoids))) .ToList(); foreach (var oItem in result) { Label1.Text += oItem.Item1 + "--" + oItem.Item2 + "--" + oItem.Item3 + "<br>"; } the result with LimCol = 3 as you can see i colored with red is the problem. i expected: 0452632--3--3,75 0452632--3--3,75 0452632--3--3,75 0452632--3--3,75 essai 49--3--79,00 essai 49--2--79,00 Thanks you in advance

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  • Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

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  • Spring 2.0.0/2.0.6 to 3.0.5 migration stories

    - by Pangea
    We are in the process of migrating to 3.0.5 of spring from 2.0.x. We mainly use spring in below scenarios custom scope: thread local scope persistence: jdbc+hibernate 3.6 (but moving to mix of ejb 3.0+jpa 2.0+hibernate, not sure if all 3 can co-exist in 1 app) transactions: local (but planning to use jta due to the necessity of using multiple persistence inits, and has to use ejb+jpa+hibernate in 1 single trans), declarative trans mgmt parent-child contexts cxf annotations+xml OracleLobHandler Resource/ResourceBundleMessageResource JSF/Facelets with FacesSpringVariableResolver ActiveMQ integration Quartz integration TaskExecutor JMX exporter HttpExporter/Invoker Appreciate if someone can share their experiences like what to watch out for head aches/pain points which ones to drop for better alternate choices in new 3.0.5 release Is it better to switch from commons/iscreen validator to Hibernate Validator (Spec impl) or Spring Validator Is there a bean mapping framework in spring that i can use instead of Dozer XSLT transformation helper: currently we have small homegrown framework to cache xslts during load. if spring can do that for me then I would like to drop this Encryption/Decryption support. Password generation support. Authentication with SALT any SAML (or claims based secur New ideas Suggestions Switch to latest version of aspectj Upgrade guide from 2.5 to 3.0.5

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  • Nhibernate - stuck with detached criteria (asp.net mvc 1 with nhibernate 2) c#

    - by Jen
    OK so I can't find a good example of this so I can better understand how to use detached criteria (assuming that's what I want to use in the first place). I have 2 tables. Placement and PlacementSupervisor My PlacementSupervisor table has a FK of PlacementID which relates to Placement.PlacementID - though my nhibernate model class has PlacementSupervisor . Placement (rather than specifically specifying a property of placement ID - not sure if this is important). What I am trying to do is - if values are passed through for the supervisor ID I want to restrict placements with that supervisor id. Have tried: ICriteria query = m_PlacementRepository.QueryAlias("p") .... if (criteria.SupervisorId > 0 && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(criteria.SupervisorTypeId)) { DetachedCriteria entityQuery = DetachedCriteria.For<PlacementSupervisor>("sup") .Add(Restrictions.And( Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorId", criteria.SupervisorId), Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorTypeId", criteria.SupervisorTypeId) )) .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .AddPropertyAlias("Placement.PlacementId", "PlacementId") ); query.Add(Subqueries.PropertyIn("p.PlacementId", entityQuery)); } Which just gives me the error: Could not find a matching criteria info provider to: (sup.supervisorId = 5 and sup.supervisorTypeId = U) Firstly supervisorTypeId is a string. Secondly I don't understand how to achieve what I'm trying to do so have just been trying various combinations of projections, and property aliases and subquery options..as I don't get how I'm supposed to join to another table/entity when the FK key sits in the second table. Can someone point me in the right direction. It seems like such an easy thing to do from a data perspective that hopefully I'm just missing something obvious!!

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  • OpenID Authentication using AuthLogic Error

    - by Steve
    Hi, I am trying to implement openid authentication using authlogic. I have installed the open_id_authentication in the process but when I entered rake open_id_authentication:db:create --trace I get the following error (in /Users/felix/login) rake aborted! Don't know how to build task 'open_id_authentication:db:create' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1728:in `[]' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2050:in `invoke_task' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2029:in `block (2 levels) in top_level' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2029:in `each' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2029:in `block in top_level' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2023:in `top_level' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2001:in `block in run' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:2068:in `standard_exception_handling' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/lib/rake.rb:1998:in `run' /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.9.1/gems/rake-0.8.7/bin/rake:31:in `<top (required)>' /usr/local/bin/rake:19:in `load' /usr/local/bin/rake:19:in `<main>' Can someone tell what am i doing incorrectly Thanks

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  • Getting a UDP socket program in Python to accept messages from a Syslog client?

    - by Elvar
    I'm trying to write a Syslog listener and so far so good on getting it to accept incoming messages through TCP but I also want UDP to function. This is the UDP server code I'm using, which works using a python client app. I also have another app which also works just using the python client app. # Server program # UDP VERSION from socket import * # Set the socket parameters host = "localhost" port = 514 buf = 1024 addr = (host,port) # Create socket and bind to address UDPSock = socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM) UDPSock.bind(addr) # Receive messages while 1: data,addr = UDPSock.recvfrom(buf) if not data: print "Client has exited!" break else: print "\nReceived message '", data,"'" # Close socket UDPSock.close() Using this code I can send to the server and have it display the code. # Client program from socket import * # Set the socket parameters host = "localhost" port = 514 buf = 1024 addr = (host,port) # Create socket UDPSock = socket(AF_INET,SOCK_DGRAM) def_msg = "===Enter message to send to server==="; print "\n",def_msg # Send messages while (1): data = raw_input('>> ') if not data: break else: if(UDPSock.sendto(data,addr)): print "Sending message '",data,"'....." # Close socket UDPSock.close() I have tried the Kiwi Syslog Message Generator and Snare to send syslog messages to the UDP server and nothing comes up. Could someone help me understand?

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