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  • My site not directing links correctly.

    - by mystycs
    I have a site at http://badassmonkeys.com/ and when i click any of the links it does not direct it to the actual page but still pulls up the link. For some reason it works perfectly on linux cpanel and actually loads the pages, but on windows in apache, or in IIS even with a rewrite mod for it, it just doesnt work. The links dont go correctly. Is it a php.ini setting? This is my htaccess file if curious, but it works perfect in linux, but not on windows.... DirectoryIndex index.html index.htm default.htm index.php Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^(.*\.(css|swf|js|xml|gif|jpg))$ $1 [L,QSA,NE] RewriteRule ^((images|contactus|css|blog|script|style|docs|admin|fck|swf|Scripts|includes|images|img|uploads|templates|js|css|calendar|expert_area|fckfiles|flvplayer|highslide)/.*) $1 [L,QSA,NE] RewriteRule ((fb_login|phpinfo|aim|csql|info|cron|index|site|simg|img|ajax|ari|fck_install|ffmpeg_test|file|redirect|rss_blogs|rss_info)\.php) $1 [L,QSA,NE] RewriteRule ^ajax/?$ ajax.php [L,QSA,NE] RewriteRule ((xd_receiver)\.htm) $1 [L,QSA,NE] RewriteRule ((google7a9ea27ccf395e97)\.html) $1 [L,QSA,NE] RewriteRule ((favicon)\.ico) $1 [L,QSA,NE] RewriteRule ((W4uFNrPc9U9SAfP7qiJFwCfp7vk)\.txt) $1 [L,QSA,NE] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?htaccesss=%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} [L,QSA,NE]

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  • C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

    - by Wardy
    I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

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  • Modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately

    - by Superstringcheese
    I'm working with the Microsoft ADO.NET Entity Framework for a game project. Following the advice of other posters on SO, I'm considering modelling deterministic and nondeterministic data separately. The idea for this came from a discussion on multiplayer games, but it seemed to make sense in a single-player scenario as well. Deterministic (things that aren't going to change during gameplay) Attributes (Strength, Agility, etc.) and their descriptions Skills and their descriptions and requirements Races, Factions, Equipment, etc. Base Attribute/Skill/Equipment loadouts for monsters Nondeterministic (things that will change a lot during gameplay) Beings' current AttributeModifers (Potion of Might = +10 Strength), current health and mana, etc. Player inventory, cash, experience, level Player quests states Player FactionRelationships ...and so on. My deterministic model would serve as a set of constants. My nondeterministic model would provide my on-the-fly operable data and would be serialized to a savegame file to maintain game state between play sessions. The data store will be an embedded SQL Compact database. So I might want to create relations between my Attributes table (deterministic model) and my BeingAttributeModifiers table (nondeterministic model), but how do I set that up across models? Det model/db Nondet model/db ____________ ________________________ |Attributes | |PlayerAttributeModifiers| |------------| |------------------------| |Id | |Id | |Name | |AttributeId | |Description | |SourceId | ------------ |Value | ------------------------ Should I use two separate models (edmx) that transact with a single database containing both deterministic-type and nondeterministic-type tables? Or should/can I use two separate databases in one model? Or two models each with their own database? With distinct models/dbs it seems like this will get really complicated and I'll end up fighting EF a lot, rolling my own transaction code, and generally losing out on a lot of the advantages of the framework. I know these are vague questions, I'm just looking for a sanity check before I forge ahead any further.

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  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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  • While loop problems

    - by Luke
    I have put together the following code, the problem is that each while loop is only returning one set of data. $result = mysql_query("SELECT date FROM ".TBL_FIXTURES." WHERE compname = '$comp_name' GROUP BY date"); $i = 1; echo "<table cellspacing=\"10\" style='border: 1px dotted' width=\"300\" bgcolor=\"#eeeeee\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $date=date("F j Y", $row['date']); echo $date; echo " <tr> <td>Fixture $i - Deadline on $date</td> </tr> "; $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM ".TBL_FIXTURES." WHERE compname = '$comp_name' AND date = '$row[date]' ORDER BY date"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { extract ($row); echo " <tr> <td>$home_user - $home_team V $away_user - $away_team</td> </tr> "; } $i++; } echo "</table>"; I should get many dates, and then each set of fixture below. At the moment, the first row from the first while loop is present, along with the data from the second while loop. However, it doesn't continue? Any ideas where I can correct this? Thanks

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  • SQL Server: preventing dirty reads in a stored procedure

    - by pcampbell
    Consider a SQL Server database and its two stored procs: *1. A proc that performs 3 important things in a transaction: Create a customer, call a sproc to perform another insert, and conditionally insert a third record with the new identity. BEGIN TRAN INSERT INTO Customer(CustName) (@CustomerName) SELECT @NewID = SCOPE_IDENTITY() EXEC CreateNewCustomerAccount @NewID, @CustomerPhoneNumber IF @InvoiceTotal > 100000 INSERT INTO PreferredCust(InvoiceTotal, CustID) VALUES (@InvoiceTotal, @NewID) COMMIT TRAN *2. A stored proc which polls the Customer table for new entries that don't have a related PreferredCust entry. The client app performs the polling by calling this stored proc every 500ms. A problem has arisen where the polling stored procedure has found an entry in the Customer table, and returned it as part of its results. The problem was that it has picked up that record, I am assuming, as part of a dirty read. The record ended up having an entry in PreferredCust later, and ended up creating a problem downstream. Question How can you explicitly prevent dirty reads by that second stored proc? The environment is SQL Server 2005 with the default configuration out of the box. No other locking hits are given in either of these stored procedures.

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  • entity framework vNext wish list

    - by Fred Yang
    I have been intensively studying and use ef4 in my project. I do feel the improvement that it has over version 1. But I found that I have something I cannot get around easily. Here is a list I want it to be better in ef vNext. the model designer should allow multiple view of the same model, so that I don't need cram all my entity into a single view. respect user's manual edit of edmx. Currently, the some database view object simply can not be imported to the model because the designer "smartly" think that the view does not have a primary key, so that I have to manually edit the edmx to correct designer's behavior. But in the next "update from database" task, designer will revert my customization. For now, I simply fallback to manually edit the edmx file at all, or I have to use compare tool to keep the new update, and rollback and put the new update into my old edmx file manually. Designer should be improved to allow default behavior and user's manual control. I want control not to let the designer refresh the change of imported object. support user defined table function. linq is about Composability, stored proc dos not support composability. I wish I could use user defined table function which support this. What are you wishes for EF vNext?

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  • copy entire row (without knowing field names)

    - by Todd Webb
    Using SQL Server 2008, I would like to duplicate one row of a table, without knowing the field names. My key issue: as the table grows and mutates over time, I would like this copy-script to keep working, without me having to write out 30+ ever-changing fields, ugh. Also at issue, of course, is IDENTITY fields cannot be copied. My code below does work, but I wonder if there's a more appropriate method than my thrown-together text string SQL statement? So thank you in advance. Here's my (yes, working) code - I welcome suggestions on improving it. Todd alter procedure spEventCopy @EventID int as begin -- VARS... declare @SQL varchar(8000) -- LIST ALL FIELDS (*EXCLUDE* IDENTITY FIELDS). -- USE [BRACKETS] FOR ANY SILLY FIELD-NAMES WITH SPACES, OR RESERVED WORDS... select @SQL = coalesce(@SQL + ', ', '') + '[' + column_name + ']' from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS where TABLE_NAME = 'EventsTable' and COLUMNPROPERTY(OBJECT_ID('EventsTable'), COLUMN_NAME, 'IsIdentity') = 0 -- FINISH SQL COPY STATEMENT... set @SQL = 'insert into EventsTable ' + ' select ' + @SQL + ' from EventsTable ' + ' where EventID = ' + ltrim(str(@EventID)) -- COPY ROW... exec(@SQL) -- REMEMBER NEW ID... set @EventID = @@IDENTITY -- (do other stuff here) -- DONE... -- JUST FOR KICKS, RETURN THE SQL STATEMENT SO I CAN REVIEW IT IF I WISH... select EventID = @EventID, SQL = @SQL end

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  • Update or Insert Row depending on whether row is present in Microsoft SQL Server 2005

    - by Srikanth
    Hi, I am passing a XML document as a input to a stored procedure in Microsoft SQL Server 2005. This is the sample XML being passed as input <Strategy StrategyID="0" TOStrategyID="8" ShutdownQtySell="1" ShutdownQtyBuy="1"> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="1" ParameterRangeFrom="0" ParameterRangeTo="20" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="4" ParameterRangeFrom="21" ParameterRangeTo="40" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="5" ParameterRangeFrom="41" ParameterRangeTo="60" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="6" ParameterRangeFrom="61" ParameterRangeTo="80" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> <ParameterRange ParameterSetID="6" ParameterRangeID="7" ParameterRangeFrom="81" ParameterRangeTo="100" ParameterAutoTakeOut="False"> </ParameterRange> </Strategy> I am able to retrieve the data using OpenXML functionality in SQL server I am using this to get the data corresponding to ParameterRange rows SELECT ParameterRangeID as iRangeID, ParameterSetID as iSetID, ParameterRangeFrom as fRangeFrom, ParameterRangeTo as fRangeTo, ParameterAutoTakeOut as bTakeoutEnabled FROM OPENXML(@idoc, '/Strategy/ParameterRange', 1) WITH (ParameterSetID int,ParameterRangeID int,ParameterRangeFrom float,ParameterRangeTo float,ParameterAutoTakeOut bit) Now, I need to insert/update these rows into a table TempRanges which has (iRangeID,iSetID) as the primary key. If there is a row with the primary key, I want to update it the latest values and If there is no row with that primary key, I need to insert into the table. How can I accomplish this inside the Stored Procedure ? Thanks, Sri

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  • function binding and the clone() function - Jquery

    - by Sam Vloeberghs
    Hi I have problems with my keyup binding when cloning an element. Here's the scenario: I have an html markup like this: <tr class="rijbasis"> <td> <input type="text" class="count" /> </td> <td> <span class="cost">10</span> </td> <td> <span class="total">10</span> </td> </tr> I'm binding an keyup function to the input element of my table row like this: $('.rijbasis input').keyup(function(){ var parent = $(this).parent().parent(); $('.total',parent).text(parseInt($('.cost',parent).text()) * parseInt($('.count',parent).val())); } I designed the function like this so I could clone the table row on a onclick event and append it to the tbody: $('.lineadd').click(function(){ $('.contract tbody').append($('.contract tbody tr:last').clone()); $('.contract tbody tr:last input').val("0"); }); This al works , but the keyup function doesnt work on the input elements of the cloned row.. Can anybody help or advice? I hope I was clear enough and I'll be surely adding details if needed to solve this problem. Greetings

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  • Highlighting correctly in an emacs major mode

    - by Paul Nathan
    Hi, I am developing an emacs major mode for a language (aka mydsl). However, using the techniques on xahlee's site doesn't seem to be working for some reason (possibly older emacs dialect..) The key issues I am fighting with are (1) highlighting comments is not working and (2), the use of regexp-opt lines is not working. I've reviewed the GNU manual and looked over cc-mode and elisp mode... those are significantly more complicated than I need. ;;;Standard # to newline comment ;;;Eventually should also have %% to %% multiline block comments (defun mydsl-comment-dwim (arg) "comment or uncomment" (interactive "*P") (require 'newcomment) (let ((deactivate-mark nil) (comment-start "#") (comment-end "") comment-dwim arg))) (defvar mydsl-events '("reservedword1" "reservedword2")) (defvar mydsl-keywords '("other-keyword" "another-keyword")) ;;Highlight various elements (setq mydsl-hilite '( ; stuff between " ("\"\\.\\*\\?" . font-lock-string-face) ; : , ; { } => @ $ = are all special elements (":\\|,\\|;\\|{\\|}\\|=>\\|@\\|$\\|=" . font-lock-keyword-face) ( ,(regexp-opt mydsl-keywords 'words) . font-lock-builtin-face) ( ,(regexp-opt mydsl-events 'words) . font-lock-constant-face) )) (defvar mydsl-tab-width nil "Width of a tab for MYDSL mode") (define-derived-mode mydsl-mode fundamental-mode "MYDSL mode is a major mode for editing MYDSL files" ;Recommended by manual (kill-all-local-variables) (setq mode-name "MYDSL script") (setq font-lock-defaults '((mydsl-hilite))) (if (null mydsl-tab-width) (setq tab-width mydsl-tab-width) (setq tab-width default-tab-width) ) ;Comment definitions (define-key mydsl-mode-map [remap comment-dwim] 'mydsl-comment-dwim) (modify-syntax-entry ?# "< b" mydsl-mode-syntax-table) (modify-syntax-entry ?\n "> b" mydsl-mode-syntax-table) ;;A gnu-correct program will have some sort of hook call here. ) (provide 'mydsl-mode)

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  • Private member vector of vector dynamic memory allocation

    - by Geoffroy
    Hello, I'm new to C++ (I learned programming with Fortran), and I would like to allocate dynamically the memory for a multidimensional table. This table is a private member variable : class theclass{ public: void setdim(void); private: std::vector < std::vector <int> > thetable; } I would like to set the dimension of thetable with the function setdim(). void theclass::setdim(void){ this->thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); } I have no problem compiling this program, but as I execute it, I've got a segmentation fault. The strange thing for me is that this piece (see under) of code does exactly what I want, except that it doesn't uses the private member variable of my class : std::vector < std::vector < int > > thetable; thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); By the way, I have no trouble if thetable is a 1D vector. In theclass : std::vector < int > thetable; and if in setdim : this->thetable.assign(1000,2); So my question is : why is there such a difference with "assign" between thetable and this-thetable for a 2D vector? And how should I do to do what I want? Thank-you for your help, Best regards, -- Geoffroy

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  • SQL UNION ALL with a INNER JOIN

    - by kOhm
    I'm looking for the best way to display all rows from two tables while joining first by one field (dwg) then where applicable a 2nd join on part. Table1 data consists of schematics(dwg) along with a list of parts required to build the item depicted in the drawing. Table2 consists of data about the actual parts ordered to build the schematic. Some parts in table2 are a combination of parts in table1 (ex: foo and bar in table1 were ordered as foobar in table2). I can display all rows in both tables with UNION ALL, but this doesn't join on both the dwg and part fields. I looked at FULL OUTER JOIN also, but I haven't figured out how to join first by dwg, then by part. Here is an example of the data. table1 table2 dwg part qty order dwg part qty ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- 123 foo 1 ord1 123 foobar 1 123 bar 1 ord1 123 bracket 2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 screw 4 123 bracket 4 ord2 123 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 bracket 2 ord3 456 foo 1 Desired output: The goal is to create a view that provides visibility to all parts in table1 and the associated orders in table2 (including those parts that appear in one but not the other table) so that I can see all the drawing parts in table1 and the associated records in table2 along with records in table2 where the part wasn't in table1. part_request_order_report dwg part qty order part qty ----- ----- ----- ------ ----- ----- 123 foo 1 123 bar 1 123 widget 2 ord2 widget 2 123 bracket 4 ord1 bracket 2 123 bracket 4 ord2 bracket 2 123 ord1 foobar 1 123 ord1 screw 4 123 ord1 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord3 foo 1 Is this possible? Or am I better off iterating through the data to build the report table? Thanks in advance.

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  • Distribute budget over for ranked components in SQL

    - by Lee
    Assume I have a budget of $10 (any integer) and I want to distribute it over records which have rank field with varying needs. Example: rank Req. Fulfilled? 1 $3 Y 2 $4 Y 3 $2 Y 4 $3 N Those ranks from 1 to 3 should be fulfilled because they are within budget. whereas, the one ranked 4 should not. I want an SQL query to solve that. Below is my initial script: CREATE TABLE budget ( id VARCHAR (32), budget INTEGER, PRIMARY KEY (id)); CREATE TABLE component ( id VARCHAR (32), rank INTEGER, req INTEGER, satisfied BOOLEAN, PRIMARY KEY (id)); INSERT INTO budget (id,budget) VALUES ('1',10); INSERT INTO component (id,rank,req) VALUES ('1',1,3); INSERT INTO component (id,rank,req) VALUES ('2',2,4); INSERT INTO component (id,rank,req) VALUES ('3',3,2); INSERT INTO component (id,rank,req) VALUES ('4',4,3); Thanks in advance for your help. Lee

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  • How to Specify Columntype in fluent nHibernate?

    - by Bipul
    I have a class CaptionItem public class CaptionItem { public virtual int SystemId { get; set; } public virtual int Version { get; set; } protected internal virtual IDictionary<string, string> CaptionValues {get; private set;} } I am using following code for nHibernate mapping Id(x => x.SystemId); Version(x => x.Version); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.CaptionValues) .KeyColumn("CaptionItem_Id") .AsMap<string>(idx => idx.Column("CaptionSet_Name"), elem => elem.Column("Text")) .Not.LazyLoad() .Cascade.Delete() .Table("CaptionValue") .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); So in database two tables get created. One CaptionValue and other CaptionItem. In CaptionItem table has three columns 1. CaptionItem_Id int 2. Text nvarchar(255) 3. CaptionSet_Name nvarchar(255) Now, my question is how can I make the columnt type of Text to nvarchar(max)? Thanks in advance.

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  • MySQL default value based on view

    - by Jake
    Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

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  • Ruby on Rails Associations

    - by Eef
    Hey all, I am starting to create my sites in Ruby on Rails these days instead of PHP. I have picked up the language easily but still not 100% confident with associations :) I have this situation: User Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles Roles Model has_and_belongs_to_many :users Journal Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles So I have a roles_users table and a journals_roles table I can access the user roles like so: user = User.find(1) User.roles This gives me the roles assigned to the user, I can then access the journal model like so: journals = user.roles.first.journals This gets me the journals associated with the user based on the roles. I want to be able to access the journals like so user.journals In my user model I have tried this: def journals self.roles.collect { |role| role.journals }.flatten end This gets me the journals in a flatten array but unfortunately I am unable to access anything associated with journals in this case, e.g in the journals model it has: has_many :items When I try to access user.journals.items it does not work as it is a flatten array which I am trying to access the has_many association. Is it possible to get the user.journals another way other than the way I have shown above with the collect method? Hope you guys understand what I mean, if not let me know and ill try to explain it better. Cheers Eef

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  • how to get Contact database schema.

    - by kamiomar
    Dear, is there any link that provide me the Contact Schema. when i store new phone number in mobile, the informaion store in the database. so i need schema to create my own table for back purpose. i have alreay get People table column by the follwoing code. boolean displayFlag = false; String str = ""; Uri CONTACT_URI = People.CONTENT_URI; Cursor cursor = mContext.getContentResolver().query(CONTACT_URI, null, null, null, null); String columnNames = ""; if (cursor != null) { try { cursor.getCount(); if (cursor.moveToFirst()) { String[] columns = cursor.getColumnNames(); for (int i = 0; i < columns.length; i++) { columnNames += "colName" + cursor.getColumnName(i) + " : " + cursor.getString(i) + "colValue"; } } } finally { cursor.close(); } } createImage(columnNames); if (displayFlag) { Toast.makeText(mContext, str, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } Thanks

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  • how to determine xpaths for ajax element.

    - by Anjali
    I need to detemine xpath for element 'mainForm:queryConfigure:fetchReport'. <span id="mainForm:queryConfigure:j_id18"> <table id="mainForm:queryConfigure:j_id19" class="showReportTable" align="center"> <tbody> <tr> <td> <input id="mainForm:queryConfigure:fetchReport" type="image" src="images/show_report.gif" name="mainForm:queryConfigure:fetchReport"/> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> </span> i tried selenium.click("//input[@id='mainForm:queryConfigure:fetchReport'][@type='image'][@src='images/show_report.gif']"); AND selenium.click("//input[@id='mainForm:queryConfigure:fetchReport']"); One more case: <div class="tabUnselectedText" align="center"> <a href="javascript:renderPage('mainForm:consoleBeanId.1','Notifications' , 'notifications.faces');">Notifications</a> </div>

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  • LaTex: how does the include-command work?

    - by HH
    I supposed the include-command copy-pastes code in the compilation, it is wrong because the code stopped working. Please, see the middle part in the code. I only copy-pasted the code to the file and added the include-command. $ cat results/frames.tex 10.31 & 8.50 & 7.40 \\ 10.34 & 8.53 & 7.81 \\ 8.22 & 8.62 & 7.78 \\ 10.16 & 8.53 & 7.44 \\ 10.41 & 8.38 & 7.63 \\ 10.38 & 8.57 & 8.03 \\ 10.13 & 8.66 & 7.41 \\ 8.50 & 8.60 & 7.15 \\ 10.41 & 8.63 & 7.21 \\ 8.53 & 8.53 & 7.12 \\ Latex code \begin{table} \begin{tabular}{ | l | m | r |} \hline $t$ / s & $d_{1}$ / s & $d_{2}$ / s \\ $\Delta h = 0,01 s$ & $\Delta d = 0,01 s$ & $\Delta d = 0,01 s$ \\ \hline % I JUST COPIED THE CODE from here to the file, included. % It stopped working, why? \include{results/frames.tex} \hline $\pi (\frac{d_{1}}{2} - \frac{d_{2}}{2})$ & $2 \pi R h$ & $2 \pi r h$ \\ \hline \end{tabular} \end{table}

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  • LinqToSQL not updating database

    - by codegarten
    Hi. I created a database and dbml in visual studio 2010 using its wizards. Everything was working fine until i checked the tables data (also in visual studio server explorer) and none of my updates were there. using (var context = new CenasDataContext()) { context.Log = Console.Out; context.Cenas.InsertOnSubmit(new Cena() { id = 1}); context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code i am using to update my database. At this point my database has one table with one field (PK) named ID. *INSERT INTO [dbo].Cenas VALUES (@p0) -- @p0: Input Int (Size = -1; Prec = 0; Scale = 0) [1] -- Context: SqlProvider(Sql2008) Model: AttributedMetaModel Build: 4.0.30319.1* This is LOG from the execution (printed the context log into the console). The problem i'm having is that these updates are not persistent in the database. I mean that when i query my database (visual studio server explorer - new query) i see the table is empty, every time. I am using a SQL Server database file (.mdf).

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  • LinQ XML mapping to a generic type

    - by Manuel Navarro
    I´m trying to use an external XML file to map the output from a stored procedure into an instance of a class. The problem is that my class is of a generic type: public class MyValue<T> { public T Value { get; set; } } Searching through a lot of blogs an articles I've managed to get this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Database Name="" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="MyValue" Member="MyNamespace.MyValue`1" > <Type Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"> <Column Name="Category" Member="Value" DbType="VarChar(100)" /> </Type> </Table> <Function Method="GetResourceCategories" Name="myprefix_GetResourceCategories" > <ElementType Name="MyNamespace.MyValue`1"/> </Function> </Database> The MyNamespace.MyValue`1 trick works fine, and the class is recognized. I expect four rows from the stored procedure, and I'm getting four MyValue<string> instances, but the big problem is that the property Value for the all four instances is null. The property is not getting mapped and I don't really get why. Maybe worth noting that the property Value is generic, and that when the mapping is done using attributes it works perfect. Anyone have a clue? BTW the method GetResourceCategories: public ISingleResult<MyValue<string>> GetResourceCategories() { IExecuteResult result = this.ExecuteMethodCall( this, (MethodInfo)MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod()); return (ISingleResult<MyValue<string>>)result.ReturnValue; }

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  • Sql server query using function and view is slower

    - by Lieven Cardoen
    I have a table with a xml column named Data: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Users]( [UserId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [FirstName] [nvarchar](max) NOT NULL, [LastName] [nvarchar](max) NOT NULL, [Email] [nvarchar](250) NOT NULL, [Password] [nvarchar](max) NULL, [UserName] [nvarchar](250) NOT NULL, [LanguageId] [int] NOT NULL, [Data] [xml] NULL, [IsDeleted] [bit] NOT NULL,... In the Data column there's this xml <data> <RRN>...</RRN> <DateOfBirth>...</DateOfBirth> <Gender>...</Gender> </data> Now, executing this query: SELECT UserId FROM Users WHERE data.value('(/data/RRN)[1]', 'nvarchar(max)') = @RRN after clearing the cache takes (if I execute it a couple of times after each other) 910, 739, 630, 635, ... ms. Now, a db specialist told me that adding a function, a view and changing the query would make it much more faster to search a user with a given RRN. But, instead, these are the results when I execute with the changes from the db specialist: 2584, 2342, 2322, 2383, ... This is the added function: CREATE FUNCTION dbo.fn_Users_RRN(@data xml) RETURNS varchar(100) WITH SCHEMABINDING AS BEGIN RETURN @data.value('(/data/RRN)[1]', 'varchar(max)'); END; The added view: CREATE VIEW vwi_Users WITH SCHEMABINDING AS SELECT UserId, dbo.fn_Users_RRN(Data) AS RRN from dbo.Users Indexes: CREATE UNIQUE CLUSTERED INDEX cx_vwi_Users ON vwi_Users(UserId) CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX cx_vwi_Users__RRN ON vwi_Users(RRN) And then the changed query: SELECT UserId FROM Users WHERE dbo.fn_Users_RRN(Data) = '59021626919-61861855-S_FA1E11' Why is the solution with a function and a view going slower?

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  • How do I push another viewController onto the navigationController from within a tabviewController?

    - by user207788
    Hi, I have a project set up using these two tutorials. http://twilloapp.blogspot.com/2009/03/how-to-embed-navigation-controller.html and the link for the second tutorial is at the bottom of the first. The tutorial is slightly outdated but I managed to get it to work as advertised. Now I want to push a new detailedView onto the NavigationController when a user touches a row in the table view. So I added this to my MyTableViewController.m file. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here. Create and push another view controller. SecondViewController *detailViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondViewController.xib" bundle:nil]; // ... // Pass the selected object to the new view controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailViewController animated:YES]; [detailViewController release]; } Now when I run this project and touch a row in my table view I am getting an error: asm_Terminating_due_to_uncaught_exception IT seems to be having an issue loading the SecondViewController from nib, however I checked the detailViewController and it is not nil. I know I am missing something and it is more than likely something simple. Please help. Thanks, Bruce

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  • JQuery UI drag and drop doesn't notice DOM changes happening during the dragging ?

    - by user315677
    Hi everybody, I have a html table in which each line (<tr>) represents a group of client computers. Each line can be expanded to show the clients belonging to the group. The <tr> containing the clients are always generated but hidden and showed when clicking the plus button at the beginning of each line. The clients themselves (they are <div>) can be dragged and dropped in another group as long as this group is already expanded. So far it works fine. What I am trying to achieve now is that the client can be dragged to a collapsed group and after a second or so hovering the group it will be expanded and the client can be dropped amongst the other clients of the group. I programmed the hover using the in and outevents of the droppable and it expands the group all right, but (and now it starts to be hard to explain with words ;) the behavior of the droppable (the client) is still as if the table line that appeared were not there : the in out and drop events of the droppable are fired on the old position of the elements, and the in out and drop events of the newly appeared <tr> are never fired. It looks as if JQuery memorizes the position, size etc. of the elements when the drag starts, and these values are not updated if there is a change in the DOM before the drop happens... Can someone confirm this behavior is normal, or can it be caused by another problem in my own code ? Any workaround ? (the question is quite bloated already so I don't include any code but I'll gladly upload it if required)

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