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  • Dynamically find other hosts in a LAN in Java

    - by Federico Cristina
    A while ago I developed a little LAN chat app. in Java which allows chatting with other hosts, send images, etc. Although it was created just for fun, now it's being used where I work. Currently, there is no "chat server" on the app. where each client registers, updates it's status, etc. (I liked the idea of symmetric design and not depending on a server running on some other machine). Instead, each host is a client/server which has a hosts.properties file with the hostname of the other hosts, and - for instance - broadcasts to each one of them when sending a massive message/image/whatever. In the beginning there were just a couple of hosts, so this hosts.properties file wasn't an issue. But as the amount of users increased, the need of updating that file was a bit daunting. So now I've decided to get rid of it, and each time the app. starts, dynammically find the other active hosts. However, I cannot find the correct way of implement this. I've tried starting different threads, each one of them searching for other hosts in a known range of IP addresses. Something like this (simplified for the sake of readability): /** HostsLocator */ public static void searchForHosts(boolean waitToEnd) { for (int i=0; i < MAX_IP; i+= MAX_IP / threads) { HostsLocator detector = new HostsLocator(i, i+(MAX_IP / threads - 1)); // range: from - to new Thread(detector).start(); } } public void run() { for (int i=from; i<=to; i++) findHosts( maskAddress + Integer.toString(i) ); } public static boolean findHosts(String IP) { InetAddress address = InetAddress.getByName(IP); if ( address.isReachable(CONNECTION_TIME_OUT) ) // host found! } However: With a single thread and a low value in CONNECTION_TIME_OUT (500ms) I get wrong Host Not Found status for for hosts actually active. With a high value in CONNECTION_TIME_OUT (5000ms) and only one single thread takes forever to end With several threads I've also found problems similar like the first one, due to collisions. So... I guess there's a better way of solving this problem but I couldn't find it. Any advice? Thanks!

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  • Implementing a scalable and high-performing web app

    - by Christopher McCann
    I have asked a few questions on here before about various things relating to this but this is more of a consolidation question as I would like to check I have got the gist of everything. I am in the middle of developing a social media web app and although I have a lot of experience coding in Java and in PHP I am trying things a bit different this time. I have modularised each component of the application. So for example one component of the application allows users to private message each other and I have split this off into its own private messaging service. I have also created a user data service the purpose of which is to return data about the user for example their name, address, age etc etc from the database. Their is also another service, the friends service, which will work off the neo4j database to create a social graph. My reason for doing all this is to allow me up to update seperate modules when I need to - so while they mostly all run off MySQL right now I could move one to Cassandra later if I thought it approriate. The actual code of the web app is really just used for the final construction. The modules behind it dont really follow any strict REST or SOAP protocol. Basically each method on our API is turned into a PHP procedural script. This then may make calls to other back-end code which tends to be OO. The web app makes CURL requests to these pages and POSTs data to them or GETs data from them. These pages then return JSON where data is required. I'm still a little mixed up about how I actually identify which user is logged in at that moment. Do I just use sessions for that? Like if we called the get-messages.php script which equates to the getMessages() method for that user - returning all the private messages for that user - how would the back-end code know which user it is as posting the users ID to the script would not be secure. Anyone could do that and get all the messages. So I thought I would use sessions for it. Am I correct on this? Can anyone spot any other problems with what I am doing here? Thanks

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  • NSSortDescriptor for NSFetchRequestController causes crash when value of sorted attribute is changed

    - by AJ
    I have an Core Data Entity with a number of attributes, which include amount(float), categoryTotal(float) and category(string) The initial ViewController uses a FethchedResultsController to retrieve the entities, and sorts them based on the category and then the categoryTotal. No problems so far. NSManagedObjectContext *moc = [self managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entityDescription = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Transaction" inManagedObjectContext:moc]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setEntity:entityDescription]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(dateStamp >= %@) AND (dateStamp =< %@)", startDate, endDate]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByCategory = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"category" ascending:sortOrder]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortByTotals, sortByCategory, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:@"category" cacheName:nil]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; On selecting a row (tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath), another view controller is loaded that allows editing of the amount field for the selected entity. Before returning to the first view, categoryTotal is updated by the new ‘amount’. The problem comes when returning to the first view controller, the app bombs with *Serious application error. Exception was caught during Core Data change processing: Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (1) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 1 deleted). with userInfo (null) Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.* This seems to be courtesy of NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; If I remove this everything works as expected, but obviously without the sorting I want. I'm guessing this is to do with the sorting order changing due to categoryTotal changing (deletion / insertion) but can't find away fix this. I've verified that values are being modified correctly in the second view, so it appears down to the fetchedResultsController being confused. If the categoryAmount is changed to one that does not change the sort order, then no error is generated I'm not physically changing (ie deleting) the number of items the fetchedResultsController is returning ... the only other issue I can find that seem to generate this error Any ideas would be most welcome Thanks, AJ

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  • JNI cached jclass global reference variables being garbage collected?

    - by bubbadoughball
    I'm working in the JNI Invocation API, calling into Java from C. I have some upfront initialization to cache 30+ Java classes into global references. The results of FindClass are passed into NewGlobalRef to acquire a global reference to the class. I'm caching these class variables to reuse them later. I have 30+ global references to classes (and 30+ global methodIDs for the class constructors). In the following sample, I've removed exception handling as well as JNI invocation for the purpose of shortening the code snippet. My working code has exception checks after every JNI call and I'm running with -Xcheck:jni. Here's the snippet: jclass aClass; jclass bClass; jmethodID aCtor; jmethodID bCtor; void getGlobalRef(const char* clazz, jclass* globalClass) { jclass local = (*jenv)->FindClass(jenv,clazz); if (local) { *globalClass = (jclass) (*jenv)->NewGlobalRef(jenv,local); (*jenv)->DeleteLocalRef(jenv,local); } } methodID getMethodID(jclass clazz, const char* method, const char* sig) { return (*jenv)->GetMethodID(jenv,clazz,method,sig); } void initializeJNI() { getGlobalRef("MyProj/Testclass1", &aclass); getGlobalRef("MyProj/Testclass2", &bclass); . . aCtor = getMethodID(aclass,"<init>","()V"); bCtor = getMethodID(bclass,"<init>","(I)V"); } The initializeJNI() function sets the global references for jclasses and method IDs for constructors as well as some jfieldID's and some initialization of C data structures. After initialization, when I call into a JNI function using some of the cached jclasses and ctor jmethodIDs, I get a bad global or local reference calling reported from the -Xcheck:jni. In gdb, I break at the last line of initializeJNI(), and print all jclasses and jmethodIDs and the ones causing problems look to have been turned into garbage or garbage-collected (i.e. 0x00 or 0x06). Is it possible for global references to be gc'ed? Any suggestions?

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  • C++ addition overload ambiguity

    - by Nate
    I am coming up against a vexing conundrum in my code base. I can't quite tell why my code generates this error, but (for example) std::string does not. class String { public: String(const char*str); friend String operator+ ( const String& lval, const char *rval ); friend String operator+ ( const char *lval, const String& rval ); String operator+ ( const String& rval ); }; The implementation of these is easy enough to imagine on your own. My driver program contains the following: String result, lval("left side "), rval("of string"); char lv[] = "right side ", rv[] = "of string"; result = lv + rval; printf(result); result = (lval + rv); printf(result); Which generates the following error in gcc 4.1.2: driver.cpp:25: error: ISO C++ says that these are ambiguous, even though the worst conversion for the first is better than the worst conversion for the second: String.h:22: note: candidate 1: String operator+(const String&, const char*) String.h:24: note: candidate 2: String String::operator+(const String&) So far so good, right? Sadly, my String(const char *str) constructor is so handy to have as an implicit constructor, that using the explicit keyword to solve this would just cause a different pile of problems. Moreover... std::string doesn't have to resort to this, and I can't figure out why. For example, in basic_string.h, they are declared as follows: template<typename _CharT, typename _Traits, typename _Alloc> basic_string<_CharT, _Traits, _Alloc> operator+(const basic_string<_CharT, _Traits, _Alloc>& __lhs, const basic_string<_CharT, _Traits, _Alloc>& __rhs) template<typename _CharT, typename _Traits, typename _Alloc> basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc> operator+(const _CharT* __lhs, const basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc>& __rhs); and so on. The basic_string constructor is not declared explicit. How does this not cause the same error I'm getting, and how can I achieve the same behavior??

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  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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  • Migrating from hand-written persistence layer to ORM

    - by Sergey Mikhanov
    Hi community, We are currently evaluating options for migrating from hand-written persistence layer to ORM. We have a bunch of legacy persistent objects (~200), that implement simple interface like this: interface JDBC { public long getId(); public void setId(long id); public void retrieve(); public void setDataSource(DataSource ds); } When retrieve() is called, object populates itself by issuing handwritten SQL queries to the connection provided using the ID it received in the setter (this usually is the only parameter to the query). It manages its statements, result sets, etc itself. Some of the objects have special flavors of retrive() method, like retrieveByName(), in this case a different SQL is issued. Queries could be quite complex, we often join several tables to populate the sets representing relations to other objects, sometimes join queries are issued on-demand in the specific getter (lazy loading). So basically, we have implemented most of the ORM's functionality manually. The reason for that was performance. We have very strong requirements for speed, and back in 2005 (when this code was written) performance tests has shown that none of mainstream ORMs were that fast as hand-written SQL. The problems we are facing now that make us think of ORM are: Most of the paths in this code are well-tested and are stable. However, some rarely-used code is prone to result set and connection leaks that are very hard to detect We are currently squeezing some additional performance by adding caching to our persistence layer and it's a huge pain to maintain the cached objects manually in this setup Support of this code when DB schema changes is a big problem. I am looking for an advice on what could be the best alternative for us. As far as I know, ORMs has advanced in last 5 years, so it might be that now there's one that offers an acceptable performance. As I see this issue, we need to address those points: Find some way to reuse at least some of the written SQL to express mappings Have the possibility to issue native SQL queries without the necessity to manually decompose their results (i.e. avoid manual rs.getInt(42) as they are very sensitive to schema changes) Add a non-intrusive caching layer Keep the performance figures. Is there any ORM framework you could recommend with regards to that?

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  • How do I replace values within a data frame with a string in R?

    - by Arturito
    short version: How do I replace values within a data frame with a string found within another data frame? longer version: I'm a biologist working with many species of bees. I have a data set with many thousands of bees. Each row has a unique bee ID # along with all the relevant info about that specimen (data of capture, GPS location, etc). The species information for each bee has not been entered because it takes a long time to ID them. When IDing, I end up with boxes of hundred of bees, all of the same species. I enter these into a separate data frame. I am trying to write code that will update the original data file with species information (family, genus, species, sex, etc) as I ID the bees. Currently, in the original data file, the species info is blank and is interpreted as NA within R. I want to have R find all unique bee ID #'s and fill in the species info, but I am having trouble figuring out how to replace the NA values with a string (e.g. "Andrenidae") Here is a simple example of what I am trying to do: rawData<-data.frame(beeID=c(1:20),family=rep(NA,20)) speciesInfo<-data.frame(beeID=seq(1,20,3),family=rep("Andrenidae",7)) rawData[rawData$beeID == 4,"family"] <- speciesInfo[speciesInfo$beeID == 4,"family"] So, I am replacing things as I want, but with a number rather than the family name (a string). What I would eventually like to do is write a little loop to add in all the species info, e.g.: for (i in speciesInfo$beeID){ rawData[rawData$beeID == i,"family"] <- speciesInfo[speciesInfo$beeID == i,"family"] } Thanks in advance for any advice! Cheers, Zak EDIT: I just noticed that the first two methods below add a new column each time, which would cause problems if I needed to add species info multiple times (which I typically do). For example: rawData<-data.frame(beeID=c(1:20),family=rep(NA,20)) Andrenidae<-data.frame(beeID=seq(1,20,3),family=rep("Andrenidae",7)) Halictidae<-data.frame(beeID=seq(1,20,3)+1,family=rep("Halictidae",7)) # using join library(plyr) rawData <- join(rawData, Andrenidae, by = "beeID", type = "left") rawData <- join(rawData, Halictidae, by = "beeID", type = "left") # using merge rawData <- merge(x=rawData,y=Andrenidae,by='beeID',all.x=T,all.y=F) rawData <- merge(x=rawData,y=Halictidae,by='beeID',all.x=T,all.y=F) Is there a way to either collapse the columns so that I have one, unified data frame? Or a way to update the rawData rather than adding a new column each time? Thanks in advance!

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  • passing pipe to threads

    - by alaamh
    I see it's easy to open pipe between two process using fork, but how we can passing open pipe to threads. Assume we need to pass out of PROGRAM A to PROGRAM B "may by more than one thread", PROGRAM B send his output to PROGRAM C #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <pthread.h> struct targ_s { int fd_reader; }; void *thread1(void *arg) { struct targ_s *targ = (struct targ_s*) arg; int status, fd[2]; pid_t pid; pipe(fd); pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { dup2(STDIN_FILENO, targ->fd_reader); close(fd[0]); dup2(fd[1], STDOUT_FILENO); close(fd[1]); execvp ("PROGRAM B", NULL); exit(1); } else { close(fd[1]); dup2(fd[0], STDIN_FILENO); close(fd[0]); execl("PROGRAM C", NULL); wait(&status); return NULL; } } int main(void) { FILE *fpipe; char *command = "PROGRAM A"; char buffer[1024]; if (!(fpipe = (FILE*) popen(command, "r"))) { perror("Problems with pipe"); exit(1); } char* outfile = "out.dat"; FILE* f = fopen (outfile, "wb"); int fd = fileno( f ); struct targ_s targ; targ.fd_reader = fd; pthread_t thid; if (pthread_create(&thid, NULL, thread1, &targ) != 0) { perror("pthread_create() error"); exit(1); } int len; while (read(fpipe, buffer, sizeof (buffer)) != 0) { len = strlen(buffer); write(fd, buffer, len); } pclose(fpipe); return (0); }

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  • On Click alert if $.get returns a value, if not, submit the form

    - by bradenkeith
    If the submit button is clicked, prevent the default action and see if the field 'account_name' is already in use. If the $.get() returns a result, alert the user of the results. If it doesn't, submit form with id="add_account_form". My problem is that my else{} statement is not submitting the form. I get no response when submit is clicked & there is no value returned. Also I would like to change my code where it goes $("#add_account_form").submit(..) instead of .click() however, would that cause a problem when trying to submit the form later in the script? <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function () { $("#submit").click( function () { var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.get( "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", {account_name: account_name}, function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." ); }else{ $("#add_account_form").submit(); } }); return false; }); }); </script> <p> <input type="submit" id="submit" class="submit small" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form> Thanks for your help. EDIT So anyone who runs into my problems, it's that $.get() is asynchronous, so it will always return false, or true depending on what submitForm is defined as. $.ajax() however, allows async to be set as false, which allows the function to finish before moving on. See what I mean: $(document).ready( function () { $("#add_account_form").submit( function () { var submitForm = true; var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", async: false, url: "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", data: ({account_name: account_name}), success: function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ if(!confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." )){ submitForm = false; } } } }); if (submitForm == false ) { return false; } }); }); Thanks for your help @Dan

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  • MATLAB image corner coordinates & referncing to cell arrays

    - by James
    Hi, I am having some problems comparing the elements in different cell arrays. The context of this problem is that I am using the bwboundaries function in MATLAB to trace the outline of an image. The image is of a structural cross section and I am trying to find if there is continuity throughout the section (i.e. there is only one outline produced by the bwboundaries command). Having done this and found where the is more than one section traced (i.e. it is not continuous), I have used the cornermetric command to find the corners of each section. The code I have is: %% Define the structural section as a binary matrix (Image is an I-section with the web broken) bw(20:40,50:150) = 1; bw(160:180,50:150) = 1; bw(20:60,95:105) = 1; bw(140:180,95:105) = 1; Trace = bw; [B] = bwboundaries(Trace,'noholes'); %Traces the outer boundary of each section L = length(B); % Finds number of boundaries if L > 1 disp('Multiple boundaries') % States whether more than one boundary found end %% Obtain perimeter coordinates for k=1:length(B) %For all the boundaries perim = B{k}; %Obtains perimeter coordinates (as a 2D matrix) from the cell array end %% Find the corner positions C = cornermetric(bw); Areacorners = find(C == max(max(C))) % Finds the corner coordinates of each boundary [rowindexcorners,colindexcorners] = ind2sub(size(Newgeometry),Areacorners) % Convert corner coordinate indexes into subcripts, to give x & y coordinates (i.e. the same format as B gives) %% Put these corner coordinates into a cell array Cornerscellarray = cell(length(rowindexcorners),1); % Initialises cell array of zeros for i =1:numel(rowindexcorners) Cornerscellarray(i) = {[rowindexcorners(i) colindexcorners(i)]}; %Assigns the corner indicies into the cell array %This is done so the cell arrays can be compared end for k=1:length(B) %For all the boundaries found perim = B{k}; %Obtains coordinates for each perimeter Z = perim; % Initialise the matrix containing the perimeter corners Sectioncellmatrix = cell(length(rowindexcorners),1); for i =1:length(perim) Sectioncellmatrix(i) = {[perim(i,1) perim(i,2)]}; end for i = 1:length(perim) if Sectioncellmatrix(i) ~= Cornerscellarray Sectioncellmatrix(i) = []; %Gets rid of the elements that are not corners, but keeps them associated with the relevent section end end end This creates an error in the last for loop. Is there a way I can check whether each cell of the array (containing an x and y coordinate) is equal to any pair of coordinates in cornercellarray? I know it is possible with matrices to compare whether a certain element matches any of the elements in another matrix. I want to be able to do the same here, but for the pair of coordinates within the cell array. The reason I don't just use the cornercellarray cell array itself, is because this lists all the corner coordinates and does not associate them with a specific traced boundary.

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  • using a connection string in web.config for crystal report

    - by zombiegx
    I`m having problems between two servers, wich use differente odbc dsn. My apps work great but crystal reports uses the original odbc connection, how can I fix this? I'm thinking of using the same connection string in the web.config, but I don't know how. found this but is too confusing for me this is an example of my code, its a aspx file that loads as a pdf protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { var par = Request.QueryString; int pidmun = 0; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(Request["id"])) { pidmun = int.Parse(Request["id"]); } string pFechaIni = Request["fi"]; string pFechaFin = Request["ff"]; string pTipo = Request["t"]; string pNombreMunicipio = Request["nm"]; var pos = Request.Form; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pFechaIni)) { pFechaIni = "01/01/2010"; } if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pFechaFin)) { pFechaFin = "01/01/2010"; } if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pTipo)) { pTipo = "FOLIO"; } if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(pNombreMunicipio)) { pNombreMunicipio = "NombreMunicipio"; } ReporteIngresos report = new ReporteIngresos(); TextObject nom; TextObject periodo; nom = (TextObject)report.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["TxtNombreMunicipio"]; periodo = (TextObject)report.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["TxtPeriodo"]; nom.Text = "Ingresos Municipio de " + pNombreMunicipio; periodo.Text = "Periodo del " + pFechaIni + " al " + pFechaFin; report.SetParameterValue("pidMun", pidmun); report.SetParameterValue("pFechaIni", pFechaIni); report.SetParameterValue("pFechaFin", pFechaFin); report.SetParameterValue("pTipo", pTipo); MemoryStream oStream; oStream = (MemoryStream)report.ExportToStream(CrystalDecisions.Shared.ExportFormatType.PortableDocFormat); Response.Clear(); Response.Buffer = true; Response.AddHeader("CustomHeader", "ReporteIngresos"); Response.CacheControl = "No-cache"; Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.BinaryWrite(oStream.ToArray()); Response.End(); } catch (Exception ex) { ExBi.log(ex); throw ex; } } thanks.

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • deallocated memory in tableview: message sent to deallocated instance

    - by Kirn
    I tried looking up other issues but couldn't find anything to match so here goes: I'm trying to display text in the table view so I use this bit of code: // StockData is an object I created and it pulls information from Yahoo APIs based on // a stock ticker stored in NSString *heading NSArray* tickerValues = [heading componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; StockData *chosenStock = [[StockData alloc] initWithContents:[tickerValues objectAtIndex:0]]; [chosenStock getData]; // Set up the cell... NSDictionary *tempDict = [chosenStock values]; NSArray *tempArr = [tempDict allValues]; cell.textLabel.text = [tempArr objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; This is all under cellForRowAtIndexPath When I try to release the chosenStock object though I get this error: [CFDictionary release]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x434d3d0 Ive tried using NSZombieEnabled and Build and Analyze to detect problems but no luck thus far. Ive even gone so far as to comment bits and pieces of the code with NSLog but no luck. I'll post the code for StockData below this. As far as I can figure something is getting deallocated before I do the release but I'm not sure how. The only place I've got release in my code is under dealloc method call. Here's the StockData code: // StockData contains all stock information pulled in through Yahoo! to be displayed @implementation StockData @synthesize ticker, values; - (id) initWithContents: (NSString *)newName { if(self = [super init]){ ticker = newName; } return self; } - (void) getData { NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString: [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://download.finance.yahoo.com/d/quotes.csv?s=%@&f=%@&e=.csv", ticker, @"chgvj1"]]; NSError *error; NSURLResponse *response; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSData *stockData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error]; if(stockData) { NSString *tempStr = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:stockData encoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSArray *receivedValuesArr = [tempStr componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; [tempStr release]; values = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjects:receivedValuesArr forKeys:[@"change, high, low, volume, market" componentsSeparatedByString:@", "]]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed: %@", error); } } - (void)dealloc { [ticker release]; [values release]; [super dealloc]; NSLog(@"Release took place fine"); } @end

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  • How to use Mozilla ActiveX Control without registry

    - by Andrew McKinlay
    I've been using the IE Browser component that is part of Windows. But I'm running into problems with security settings. For example, users get security warnings on pages with Javascript. So I'm looking at using the Mozilla ActiveX control instead. It's especially nice because it has a compatible interface. It works well if I let it install the control in the registry. But my users don't always have administrator rights to install things in the registry. So I'm trying to figure out how to use the control without registry changes. I'm using DllGetClassObject to get the class factory (IID_ICLASSFACTORY) and then CoRegisterClassObject to register it. All the API calls appear to succeed. And when I create an AtlAxWin window with the CLSID, it also appears to work. But when I try to call Navigate on the AtlAxGetControl it doesn't work - the interface doesn't have Navigate. I would show the code but it's in an obscure language (Suneido) so it wouldn't mean much. An example in C or C++ would be easy for me to translate. Or an example in another dynamic language like Python or Ruby might be helpful. Obviously I'm doing something wrong. Maybe I'm passing the wrong thing to CoRegisterClassObject? The MSDN documentation isn't very clear on what to pass and I haven't found any good examples. Or if there is another approach, I'm ok with that too. Note: I'm using the AtlAxWin window class so I'm not directly creating the control and can't use this approach. Another option is registry free com with a manifest. But again, I couldn't find a good example, especially since I'm not using Visual Studio. I tried to use the MT manifest tool, but couldn't figure it out. I don't think I can use DLL redirection since that doesn't get around the registry issue AFAIK. Another possibility is using WebKit but it seems even harder to use.

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  • Google Code + SVN or GitHub + Git

    - by Nazgulled
    Let me start by telling you that I never used anything besides SVN and I'm also a Windows user. I have a couple of simple projects that are open-source, others are on there way when I'm happy enough to release their source code but either way, I was thinking of using Google Code and SVN to share the source code of my projects instead of providing a link to the source on my website. This as always been a pain cause I had to update the binaries and the code every time I released a new version. This would also help me out to have a backup of my code some where instead of just my local machine (I used to have a local Subversion server running). What I want from a service like this is very simple... I just want a place to store my source code that people can download if they want, allows me to control revisions and provide a simple and easy issue system so people can submit bugs and stuff like that. I guess both of them have this. But I don't want to host any binaries in their websites, I want this to be hosted on my website so I can control download statistics with my own scripts, I also don't have the need for wiki pages as I prefer to have all the documentation in my own website. Does anyone of this services provide a way to "disable" features like wiki and downloads and don't show them at all for my project(s)? Now, I'm sure there are lots of pros and cons about using Google Code with SVN and GitHub with Git (of course) but here's what it's important for me on each one and why I like them: Google Code: As with any Google page, the complexity is almost non-existent Everyone (or almost) as a Google account and this is nice if people want to report problems using the issues system GitHub: May (or may not) be a little more complex (not a problem for me though) than Google's pages but... ...has a much prettier interface than Google's service It needs people to be registered on GitHub to post about issues I like the fact that with Git, you have your own revisions locally (can I use TortoiseGit for this or?) Basically that's it, not much I know... What other, most common, pros and cons can you tell me about each site/software? Keep in mind that my projects are simple, I'm probably the only one who will ever develop these projects on these repositories (or maybe not, for now I will)

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  • jQuery to hide and show divs with an indicator

    - by songdogtech
    Using the jQuery below to toggle the hiding and showing of divs of text: how would I add some sort of indicator - like an up and down arrow as a graphic - to the titles when the divs are either open and closed? What's the best way to do that? Two images? A CSS sprite? And most importantly: how would that be integrated into the JS? I've looked at other jQuery that assigns a random number to each div and then determines which are open and which are closed and toggles one of two images. But I'm using php in a WordPress loop to show a posts, and that gives problems with incrementing in the loop, so there must be an easier way that doesn't require changes in the name of the title div. Thanks.... This JS fires the showing and hiding. Each div can be expanded and collapsed independently. $(document).ready(function() { $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> div').hide(); $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> h3').click(function() { $(this).next().slideToggle('fast'); }); }); This is the HTML it works with: <div class="collapser"> <p class="title">Header-1 </p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> <p class="title">Header-2</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum </div> <p class="title">Header-3</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> </div> The CSS is arbitrary: .collapser { margin: 0; padding: 0; width: 500px; } .title { margin: 1px; color: #fff; padding: 3px 10px; cursor: pointer; position: relative; background-color:#c30; } .contents { padding: 5px 10px; background-color:#fafafa; }

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  • java web application best practices

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm trying to figure out the optimum way to develop and release a fairly simple web application, and I'm running into several problems. I'll outline the decisions I've made, because somewhere I've clearly gone off the rails.. Hugely grateful for any help! I have what I think is a fairly simple web application. It contains a couple of jsps that reference a couple of java beans, and the usual static html, js, css and images. Decision 1) I wanted to have a clear and clean release procedure, such that I could develop on my local machine and then release reliably to a production machine. I therefore made the decision to package the application into a war file (including all the static resources), to minimize the separate bits and pieces I would need to release. So far so good? Decision 2) I wanted things on my local machine to be as similar as possible to the production environment. So in my html, for example, I may have a reference to a static file such as http://static.foo.com/file . To keep this code working seamlessly on dev and prod, I decided to put static.foo.com in my /etc/hosts when developing locally, so that all the urls work correctly without changing anything. Decision 3) I decided to use eclipse and maven to give me a best practice environment for administering and building my project. So I have a nice tight set up now, except that: Every time I want to change anything in development, like one line in an html file, I have to rebuild the entire project and then wait for tomcat to load the war before I can see if it's what I wanted. So my questions are: 1) Is there a way to connect up eclipse and tomcat so that I don't have to rebuild the war each time? ie tomcat is looking straight at my actual workspace to serve up the static files? 2)I think I'm maybe making things harder by using /etc/hosts to reflect production urls - is there a better way that doesn't involve manually changing over urls (relative urls are fine of course, but where you have many subdomains, say one for static files and one for dynamic, you have to write out the full path, surely?) 3) Is this really best practice?? How do people set things up so that they balance the requirement for an automated, all-encompassing build process on the one hand, and the speed and flexibility to be able to develop javascript and html and css quickly, as quickly as if one just pointed apache at the directory and developed live? What do people find works? Many thanks!

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  • Why does my Spring Controller direct me to the wrong page?

    - by kc2001
    I am writing my first Spring 3.0.5 MVC app and am confused about why my controller mappings aren't doing what I expect. I have a VerifyPasswordController that is called after a user tries to log in by entering his name and password. // Called upon clicking "submit" from /login @RequestMapping(value = "/verifyPassword", method = RequestMethod.POST) @ModelAttribute("user") public String verifyPassword(User user, BindingResult result) { String email = user.getEmail(); String nextPage = CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE; // success case if (result.hasErrors()) { nextPage = LOGIN_PAGE; } else if (!passwordMatches(email, user.getPassword())) { nextPage = LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE; } else { // success } return nextPage; } I can verify in the debugger that this method is being called, but afterwards, the verifyPassword page is displayed rather than the chooseOperation page. The console output of WebLogic seems to show that my mapping are correct: INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation.*] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' INFO : org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping - Mapped URL path [/chooseOperation/] onto handler 'chooseOperationController' Here is the ChooseOperationController: @Controller @SessionAttributes("leaveRequestForm") public class ChooseOperationController implements PageIfc, AttributeIfc { @RequestMapping(value = "/chooseOperation") @ModelAttribute("leaveRequestForm") public LeaveRequest setUpLeaveRequestForm( @RequestParam(NAME_ATTRIBUTE) String name) { LeaveRequest form = populateFormFromDatabase(name); return form; } // helper methods omited } I welcome any advice, particularly "generic" techniques for debugging such mapping problems. BTW, I've also tried to "redirect" to the desired page, but got the same result. servlet-context.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <!-- DispatcherServlet Context: defines this servlet's request-processing infrastructure --> <!-- Enables the Spring MVC @Controller programming model --> <annotation-driven /> <!-- Handles HTTP GET requests for /resources/** by efficiently serving up static resources in the ${webappRoot}/resources directory --> <resources mapping="/resources/**" location="/resources/" /> <!-- Resolves views selected for rendering by @Controllers to .jsp resources in the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <beans:bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <beans:property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/" /> <beans:property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </beans:bean> <context:component-scan base-package="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker" /> <beans:bean id="leaveRequestForm" class="com.engilitycorp.leavetracker.model.LeaveRequest" /> </beans:beans> The constants: String LOGIN_FAILURE_PAGE = "loginFailure"; String LOGIN_PAGE = "login"; String CHOOSE_OPERATION_PAGE = "chooseOperation";

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  • using Object input\ output Streams with files and array list

    - by soad el-hayek
    hi every one .. i'm an it student , and it's time to finish my final project in java , i've faced too many problems , this one i couldn't solve it and i'm really ubset ! :S my code is like this : in Admin class : public ArrayList cos_info = new ArrayList(); public ArrayList cas_info = new ArrayList(); public int cos_count = 0 ; public int cas_count = 0 ; void coustmer_acount() throws FileNotFoundException, IOException{ String add=null; do{ person p = new person() ; cos_info.add(cos_count, p); cos_count ++ ; add =JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Do you want to add more coustmer..\n'y'foryes ..\n 'n'for No .."); } while(add.charAt(0) == 'Y'||add.charAt(0)=='y'); writenew_cos(); // add_acounts(); } void writenew_cos() throws IOException{ ObjectOutputStream aa = new ObjectOutputStream(new FileOutputStream("coustmer.txt")); aa.writeObject(cos_info); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Added to file done sucessfuly.."); aa.close(); } in Coustmer class : void read_cos() throws IOException, ClassNotFoundException{ person p1= null ; int array_count = 0; ObjectInputStream d = new ObjectInputStream(new FileInputStrea ("coustmer.txt")); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,d.available() ); for(int i = 0;d.available() == 0;i++){ a.add(array_count,(ArrayList) d.readObject()); array_count++; JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Haaaaai :D" ); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,array_count ); } d.close(); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,array_count +"1111" ); for(int i = 0 ; i<a.size()&& found!= true ; i++){ count++ ; p1 =(person)a.get(i); user=p1.user; pass = p1.pass; cas_checkpass(); } } it just print JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,d.available() ); and having excep. here a.add(array_count,(ArrayList) d.readObject()); p.s : person object from my own class and it's Serializabled

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  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

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  • Need to know how to properly create a new object in another cpp file

    - by karikari
    I have a class. The problem now is, after a few attempt, I'm still in huge error. My problem is I don't know how to properly declare a new object for this class, inside another cpp file. I wanted to call/trigger the functions from this RebarHandler class from my other cpp file. I keep on getting problems like, 'used without being initialized', 'debug assertion failed' and so on. In the other cpp file, I include the RebarHandler.h and did like this: CRebarHandler *test=NULL; test->setButtonMenu2(); When compile, I does not give any error. But, when run time, it gives error and my IE crash. I need help. Below is the class I meant: #pragma once class CIEWindow; class CRebarHandler : public CWindowImpl<CRebarHandler>{ public: CRebarHandler(HWND hWndToolbar, CIEWindow *ieWindow); CRebarHandler(){}; ~CRebarHandler(); BEGIN_MSG_MAP(CRebarHandler) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(TBN_DROPDOWN, onNotifyDropDown) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(TBN_TOOLBARCHANGE, onNotifyToolbarChange) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(NM_CUSTOMDRAW, onNotifyCustomDraw) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(TBN_ENDADJUST, onNotifyEndAdjust) MESSAGE_HANDLER(WM_SETREDRAW, onSetRedraw) END_MSG_MAP() // message handlers LRESULT onNotifyDropDown(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onNotifyToolbarChange(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onNotifyCustomDraw(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onNotifyEndAdjust(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onSetRedraw(UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam, BOOL& bHandled); // manage the subclassing of the IE rebar void subclass(); void unsubclass(); void handleSettings(); void setButtonMenu2(); bool findButton(HWND hWndToolbar); private: // handles to the various things HWND m_hWnd; HWND m_hWndToolbar, m_hWndRebar, m_hWndTooltip; HMENU m_hMenu; int m_buttonID; int m_ieVer; CIEWindow *m_ieWindow; // toolbar finding functions void scanForToolbarSlow(); void getRebarHWND(); void setButtonMenu(); };

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  • Template function as a template argument

    - by Kos
    I've just got confused how to implement something in a generic way in C++. It's a bit convoluted, so let me explain step by step. Consider such code: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } void function1() { a(123); a(456); } void function2() { b(123); b(456); } void test() { function1(); function2(); } It's easily noticable that function1 and function2 do the same, with the only different part being the internal function. Therefore, I want to make function generic to avoid code redundancy. I can do it using function pointers or templates. Let me choose the latter for now. My thinking is that it's better since the compiler will surely be able to inline the functions - am I correct? Can compilers still inline the calls if they are made via function pointers? This is a side-question. OK, back to the original point... A solution with templates: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } template<void (*param)(int) > void function() { param(123); param(456); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } All OK. But I'm running into a problem: Can I still do that if a and b are generics themselves? template<typename T> void a(T t) { // do something } template<typename T> void b(T t) { // something else } template< ...param... > // ??? void function() { param<SomeType>(someobj); param<AnotherType>(someotherobj); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } I know that a template parameter can be one of: a type, a template type, a value of a type. None of those seems to cover my situation. My main question is hence: How do I solve that, i.e. define function() in the last example? (Yes, function pointers seem to be a workaround in this exact case - provided they can also be inlined - but I'm looking for a general solution for this class of problems).

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  • Releasing the keyboard stops shake events. Why?

    - by Moshe
    1) How do I make a UITextField resign the keyboard and hide it? The keyboard is in a dynamically created subview whose superview looks for shake events. Resigning first responder seems to break the shake event handler. 2) how do you make the view holding the keyboard transparent, like see through glass? I have seen this done before. This part has been taken care of thanks guys. As always, code samples are appreciated. I've added my own to help explain the problem. EDIT: Basically, - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event; gets called in my main view controller to handle shaking. When a user taps on the "edit" icon (a pen, in the bottom of the screen - not the traditional UINavigationBar edit button), the main view adds a subview to itself and animates it on to the screen using a custom animation. This subview contains a UINavigationController which holds a UITableView. The UITableView, when a cell is tapped on, loads a subview into itself. This second subview is the culprit. For some reason, a UITextField in this second subview is causing problems. When a user taps on the view, the main view will not respond to shakes unless the UITextField is active (in editing mode?). Additional info: My Motion Event Handler: - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSLog(@"%@", [event description]); SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"shake" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); [self genRandom:TRUE]; } The genRandom: Method: /* Generate random label and apply it */ -(void)genRandom:(BOOL)deviceWasShaken{ if(deviceWasShaken == TRUE){ decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [shakeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [shakeReplies count])])]; }else{ SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"string" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [pokeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [pokeReplies count])])]; } } shakeReplies and pokeReplies are both NSArrays of strings. One is used for when a certain part of the screen is poked and one is for when the device is shaken. The app will randomly choose a string from the NSArray and display onscreen. For those of you who work graphically, here is a diagram of the view hierarchy: Root View -> UINavigationController -> UITableView -> Edit View -> Problem UITextfield

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  • .NET XmlSerializer fails with List<T>

    - by Redshirt
    I'm using a singleton class to save all my settings info. It's first utilized by calling Settings.ValidateSettings(@"C:\MyApp"). The problem I'm having is that 'List Contacts' is causing the xmlserializer to fail to write the settings file, or to load said settings. If I comment out the List<T> then I have no problems saving/loading the xml file. What am I doing wrong? // The actual settings to save public class MyAppSettings { public bool FirstLoad { get; set; } public string VehicleFolderName { get; set; } public string ContactFolderName { get; set; } public List<ContactInfo> Contacts { get { if (contacts == null) contacts = new List<ContactInfo>(); return contacts; } set { contacts = value; } } private List<ContactInfo> contacts; } // The class in which the settings are manipulated public static class Settings { public static string SettingPath; private static MyAppSettings instance; public static MyAppSettings Instance { get { if (instance == null) instance = new MyAppSettings(); return instance; } set { instance = value; } } public static void InitializeSettings(string path) { SettingPath = Path.GetFullPath(path + "\\MyApp.xml"); if (File.Exists(SettingPath)) { LoadSettings(); } else { Instance.FirstLoad = true; Instance.VehicleFolderName = "Cars"; Instance.ContactFolderName = "Contacts"; SaveSettingsFile(); } } // load the settings from the xml file private static void LoadSettings() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextReader reader = new StreamReader(SettingPath); Instance = (MyAppSettings)ser.Deserialize(reader); reader.Close(); } // Save the settings to the xml file public static void SaveSettingsFile() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(SettingPath); ser.Serialize(writer, Settings.Instance); writer.Close(); } public static bool ValidateSettings(string initialFolder) { try { Settings.InitializeSettings(initialFolder); } catch (Exception e) { return false; } // Do some validation logic here return true; } } // A utility class to contain each contact detail public class ContactInfo { public string ContactID; public string Name; public string PhoneNumber; public string Details; public bool Active; public int SortOrder; }

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