Search Results

Search found 42628 results on 1706 pages for 'static html'.

Page 594/1706 | < Previous Page | 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 | Next Page >

Web Crawling Sites with Javascripts or web forms

- by Jojo

Hello everyone, I have a webcrawler application. It successfully crawled most common and simple sites. Now i ran into some types of websites wherein HTML documents are dynamically generated through FORMS or javascripts. I believe they can be crawled and I just don't know how. Now, these websites do not show the actual HTML page. I mean if I browse that page in IE or firefox, the HTML code does not match what's actually in the IE or firefox. These sites contain textboxes, checkboxes, etc... so I believe they are what they call "Web Forms". Actually I am not much familiar with web development so correct me if I'm wrong. My question is, does anyone in similar situation as I am now and have successfully solved these types of "challenges"? Does anyone know of a certain book or article regarding web crawling? Those that pertains to these advanced type of websites? Thanks.

Read the article
Problem With HTML5 Application Cache Whitelist - Won't Ignore Items

- by Ryan Donnelly

I'm trying to use HTML5 Application Cache to speed some things up on an iPhone webapp. It works great for storing images, css and JS, but the problem is that it also tries to store the HTML. I haven't been able to get it to ignore the html and stop storing it in the cache. From what I've read, I have to "whitelist" the files and directories that I want to load no matter what. I've tried listing the files I want cached explicitly, and I've tried adding a series of things under the "NETWORK:" heading. I've tried * / /* http://mysite.com http://mysite.com/ http://mysite.com/* None of them seem to work. Is there any way to ignore HTML files by MIME-Type or anything? Any advice would be appreciated. Ryan P.S. Of course, my site is not mysite.com..I just used that for simplicity.

Read the article
gdata youtube api 302 'The document has moved'

- by zalew

I'm trying to get YouTube feeds with the python gdata library. Authentication features work ok, yt_service.ProgrammaticLogin() works, generating subauth token works, etc., but when I try to get some feeds (GetMostRecentVideoFeed, GetYouTubeVideoEntry, even GetFeed, and any other) I get: RequestError: {'status': 302, 'body': '<HTML><HEAD><meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html;charset=utf-8">\n<TITLE>302 Moved</TITLE></HEAD><BODY>\n<H1>302 Moved</H1>\nThe document has moved\n<A HREF="http://www.google.com">here</A>.\r\n</BODY></HTML>\r\n', 'reason': 'Redirect received, but redirects_remaining <= 0'} 302 to 'google.com'??? I've even tried to do something from the google online tutorials and I get the same error. What's going on?

Read the article
ASP.NET MVC Alter Markup before Output

- by youwhut

Hi, Excuse my limited knoweldge here. In the past I have used Steve Sanderson's method to HTML encode by default at runtime: http://blog.stevensanderson.com/2007/12/19/aspnet-mvc-prevent-xss-with-automatic-html-encoding/ I have a need to alter img src and a href attributes before they are spat out in the user's browser. There is a solution using JavaScript but this is not ideal for several reasons. Intercepting the compiler is not an option because of unnecessarily using Response.Write for trivial HTML. Is there something I can do with HTTP modules or the view engine? Any thoughts? Cheers.

Read the article
Rails Custom Plugin/Gem with Partials

- by Jason

I am writing a gem which provides helpers for views. The HTML I want to insert via the helper is complex enough that I'd rather write it in a _partial.html.erb file. How do I get the gem's view path include in the application's load_path? Note: the only gem I've found that does something like this is Devise. When a view cannot be found, Rails prints the load path which (on my machine) looks like: Missing partial sortable_nested_set/tree with {:handlers=>[:erb, :rjs, :builder, :rhtml, :rxml], :formats=>[:html], :locale=>[:en, :en]} in view paths "/home/jason/VirtualRestaurant3/app/views", "/home/jason/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.2-preview3/gems/devise-1.1.rc0/app/views" How does Devise do it? My gem: http://github.com/jrmurad/SortableNestedSet Devise gem: +http://+github.com/plataformatec/devise

Read the article
AJAX - Get response URL after redirect

- by Stian

Hello, I was wondering if there is a way to get the URL of the returned resource after a AJAX call in JavaScript? I want to use this with a form, which is in "mysite.com/users/add.html". This is a Spring MVC controller. If the validation of the form fails the controller will return the "users/add" view, but if the validation is OK it will do a redirect to "mysite.com/users/index.html", using return new ModelAndView(new RedirectView("/users/index.html")); Is there a way in JavaScript to find the URL of the returned page? Thanks, Stian

Read the article
Making GWT application crawlable by a search engine.

- by Philippe Beaudoin

I want to use the #! token to make my GWT application crawlable, as described here: http://code.google.com/web/ajaxcrawling/ There is a GWT sample app available online that uses this, for example: http://gwt.google.com/samples/Showcase/Showcase.html#!CwRadioButton Will serve the following static webpage to the googlebot: http://gwt.google.com/samples/Showcase/Showcase.html?_escaped_fragment_=CwRadioButton I want my GWT app to do something similar. In short, I'd like to serve a different flavor of the page whenever the _escaped_fragment_ parameter is found in the URL. What should I modify in order for the server to serve something else (a static page, or a page dynamically generated through a headless browser like HTML Unit)? I'm guessing it could be the web.xml file, but I'm not sure. (Note: I thought of checking the Showcase app provided with the GWT SDK, but unfortunately it doesn't seem to support serving static files on _escaped_fragment_ and it doesn't use the #! token..)

Read the article
A couple PHP/MySQL questions...

- by Jeff

I am a college student taking a course in php and mysql progamming and my first question is about the "$variable" variables in the following code: <?php ob_start(); ?> <?php session_start(); if ($_SESSION['auth'] != "true") { header("Location: login.php"); exit; } $uid = $_SESSION['user']; $connection = mysql_connect("localhost", "username", "password"); mysql_select_db("username", $connection); $result = mysql_query ( "SELECT * FROM users where user_id = '$uid'", $connection); $num = mysql_numrows($result); $i=0; while ($i < $num) { $f1=mysql_result($result,$i,"firstname"); $f2=mysql_result($result,$i,"lastname"); ?> <html><body> <p> <td><center><font size = "18" face="Arial"><?php echo "Name: $f1 "; echo $f2; ?> </font></center></td> </p> </body></html> <?php $i++; } ?> <?php $result1 = mysql_query ( "SELECT * FROM phone where user_id = '$uid'", $connection); $num1 = mysql_numrows($result1); $j=0; while ($j < $num1) { $f3=mysql_result($result1,$j,"type"); $f4=mysql_result($result1,$j,"number"); ?> <html><body> <p> <br> <td><center><font size = "12" face="Arial"><?php echo "$f5: "; echo "($f3) "; echo "$f4 <br />"; ?> </font></center></td> </p> </body></html> <?php $j++; } ?> <?php $result2 = mysql_query ( "SELECT * FROM address where user_id = '$uid'", $connection); $num2 = mysql_numrows($result2); $h=0; while ($h < $num2) { $f6=mysql_result($result2,$h,"type"); $f7=mysql_result($result2,$h,"address"); $f8=mysql_result($result2,$h,"city"); $f9=mysql_result($result2,$h,"state"); $f10=mysql_result($result2,$h,"zip"); ?> <html><body> <p> <br> <td><center><font size = "12" face="Arial"><?php echo "$f10 Address: $f6, $f7, $f8 $f9"; ?></font></center></td> </p> </body></html> <?php $h++; } ?> <?php include 'navbar.php'; ob_end_flush(); ?> I just don't really understand the $variables at all. Are they user-generated or are they entities in the database? And how does the code know which $result is which? My second question is that, if this was someone else in my class's code and I wanted to modify it to make it my own and substitute my own variables, how would I go about doing that? Do the $variables need to be changed if they are not user-defined and if so, how? I apologize if these are dumb questions, but I am a beginner at this programming language. Thanks in advance for your help. -Jeff

Read the article
Return/consume dynamic anonymous type across assembly boundaries

- by friism

The code below works great. If the Get and Use methods are in different assemblies, the code fails with a RuntimeBinderException. This is because the .Net runtime system only guarantees commonality of anonymous types (<string, int> in this case) within assemblies. Is there any way to fool the runtime system to overcome this? I can expect the object in the debugger on the Use side, and the debugger can see the relevant properties. class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { UsePerson(); Console.ReadLine(); } public static void UsePerson() { var person = GetPerson(); Console.WriteLine(person.Name); } public static dynamic GetPerson() { return new { Name = "Foo", Age = 30 }; } }

Read the article
Throwing exception vs returning null value with switch statement

- by Greg

So I have function that formats a date to coerce to given enum DateType{CURRENT, START, END} what would be the best way to handling return value with cases that use switch statement public static String format(Date date, DateType datetype) { ..validation checks switch(datetype){ case CURRENT:{ return getFormattedDate(date, "yyyy-MM-dd hh:mm:ss"); } ... default:throw new ("Something strange happend"); } } OR throw excpetion at the end public static String format(Date date, DateType datetype) { ..validation checks switch(datetype){ case CURRENT:{ return getFormattedDate(date, "yyyy-MM-dd hh:mm:ss"); } ... } //It will never reach here, just to make compiler happy throw new IllegalArgumentException("Something strange happend"); } OR return null public static String format(Date date, DateType datetype) { ..validation checks switch(datetype){ case CURRENT:{ return getFormattedDate(date, "yyyy-MM-dd hh:mm:ss"); } ... } return null; } What would be the best practice here ? Also all the enum values will be handled in the case statement

Read the article
What is this error Found widget <g:ListBox class='dropdownbx' name='deleteDigits' ui:field='deletedi

- by arinte

I get this error when I run my Gwt app Found widget in an HTML context Here is a snippet of the xml that it complains about: ... `<g:HTML ui:field="localPanel">` `<fieldset>` `<legend>Local</legend>` `<label for="btn" >BTN:</label><input type="text" ui:field="btn" class="txtbx numeric" maxlength="10" name='btn'/>` `<label for="stdprt">SDT PRT:</label><input type="text" ui:field="stdprt" class="txtbx" readonly="readonly" name='stdPrt'/>` `<label for="rateArea">Rate Area:</label><input type="text" ui:field="ratearea" class="txtbx" readonly="readonly" name='rateArea'/>` `<br/>` `<label for="deleteDigits">Delete Digits:</label><g:ListBox ui:field='deletedigs' class="dropdownbx" name='deleteDigits'/>` `</fieldset>` `</g:HTML>` `<g:Button ui:field="submit2">Submit</g:Button>` `</g:HTMLPanel>` </ui:UiBinder>

Read the article
MVC Client Validation from Service Layer

- by GibboK

I'm following this article http://www.asp.net/mvc/tutorials/older-versions/models-(data)/validating-with-a-service-layer-cs to include a Service Layer with Business Logic in my MVC Web Application. I'm able to pass messages from the Service Layer to the View Model in a Html.ValidationSummary using ModelState Class. I perform basic validation logic on the View Model (using DataAnnotation attributes) and I have ClientValidation enabled by default which displaying the error message on every single field of my form. The Business logic error message which come from the Service Layer are being displayed on Html.ValidationSummary only after Posting the form to the Server. After Validation from the Service Layer I would like highlight one or more fields and have the message from the Service Layer showing on these fields instead that the Html.ValidationSummary. Any idea how to do it? Thanks

Read the article
Use modrewrite to redirect a url with querystring

- by Alex

I am trying to redirect an old URL that uses a query string to the new url that does not.. /tripinfo.cfm?RiverNameID=1&AdventureID=6 Now needs to go to /trips/big-ass-river/overnight.html So I am trying.. RewriteRule ^tripinfo.cfm?RiverNameID=1&AdventureID=6$ /trips/big-ass-river/overnight.html [R=301] But this is not working. . I can redirect the main page no problem using RewriteRule ^tripinfo.cfm$ /trips.html [R=301] If any one could tell me what Im missing that would be great.

Read the article
What is the meaning of this Web kit JavaScript warning? (Thickbox)?

- by janoChen

Webkit Develoepr tools says the following Javascript Error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL file:///D:/wamp/www/projects/c1-marching-band2/instruments.html from frame with URL file:///D:/wamp/www/projects/c1-marching-band2/iframeModal.html?placeValuesBefore. Domains, protocols and ports must match. file:///D:/wamp/www/projects/c1-marching-band2/iframeModal.html?placeValuesBefore:15Uncaught TypeError: Property 'tb_remove' of object [object DOMWindow] is not a function I'm trying to close the Thickbox div (iframe) pressing a submit button. But I think there's something wrong with 'tb_remove'. (Just in Chrome) It doe work in their official page: http://jquery.com/demo/thickbox/

Read the article
Dojo not working for me.

- by pfdevil

Hello, I can't get my dojo working. I've tried everything. Here is the code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/dojo/1.4/dojo/dojo.xd.js"> dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ console.log("page ready, can modify DOM anytime after this"); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html>

Read the article
How do you link to an action that takes an array as a parameter (RedirectToAction and/or ActionLink)

- by Andrew

I have an action defined like so: public ActionResult Foo(int[] bar) { ... } Url's like this will work as expected: .../Controller/Foo?bar=1&bar=3&bar=5 I have another action that does some work and then redirects to the Foo action above for some computed values of bar. Is there a simple way of specifying the route values with RedirectToAction or ActionLink so that the url's get generated like the above example? These don't seem to work: return RedirectToAction("Foo", new { bar = new[] { 1, 3, 5 } }); return RedirectToAction("Foo", new[] { 1, 3, 5 }); <%= Html.ActionLink("Foo", "Foo", new { bar = new[] { 1, 3, 5 } }) %> <%= Html.ActionLink("Foo", "Foo", new[] { 1, 3, 5 }) %> However, for a single item in the array, these do work: return RedirectToAction("Foo", new { bar = 1 }); <%= Html.ActionLink("Foo", "Foo", new { bar = 1 }) %> When setting bar to an array, it redirects to the following: .../Controller/Foo?a=System.Int32[] Finally, this is with ASP.NET MVC 2 RC. Thanks.

Read the article
Attribute class not calling constructor

- by Coppermill

I have created an Attribute, call MyAttribute, which is performing some security and for some reason the Constructor is not being fired, any reason why? public class Driver { // Entry point of the program public static void Main(string[] Args) { Console.WriteLine(SayHello1("Hello to Me 1")); Console.WriteLine(SayHello2("Hello to Me 2")); Console.ReadLine(); } [MyAttribute("hello")] public static string SayHello1(string str) { return str; } [MyAttribute("Wrong Key, should fail")] public static string SayHello2(string str) { return str; } } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method)] public class MyAttribute : Attribute { public MyAttribute(string VRegKey) { if (VRegKey == "hello") { Console.WriteLine("Aha! You're Registered"); } else { throw new Exception("Oho! You're not Registered"); }; } }

Read the article
How to show that the double-checked-lock pattern with Dictionary's TryGetValue is not threadsafe in

- by Amir

Recently I've seen some C# projects that use a double-checked-lock pattern on a Dictionary. Something like this: private static readonly object _lock = new object(); private static volatile IDictionary<string, object> _cache = new Dictionary<string, object>(); public static object Create(string key) { object val; if (!_cache.TryGetValue(key, out val)) { lock (_lock) { if (!_cache.TryGetValue(key, out val)) { val = new object(); // factory construction based on key here. _cache.Add(key, val); } } } return val; } This code is incorrect, since the Dictionary can be "growing" the collection in _cache.Add() while _cache.TryGetValue (outside the lock) is iterating over the collection. It might be extremely unlikely in many situations, but is still wrong. Is there a simple program to demonstrate that this code fails? Does it make sense to incorporate this into a unit test? And if so, how?

Read the article
Linux - Create ftp account with read/write access to only 1 folder

- by Gublooo

Hey guys.... I have never worked on linux and dont plan on working on it either - The only command I probably know is "ls" :) I am hosting my website on Eapps and use their cpanel to setup everything so never worked with linux. Now I have this one time case - where I need to provide access to a contractor to fix the CSS issues on my website. He basically needs FTP (read/write) access to certain folders. At a high level - this is my code structure /home/webadmin/example.com/html/images /css /js /login.php /facebook.php /home/webadmin/example.com/application/library /views /models /controllers /config /bootstrap.php /home/webadmin/example.com/cgi-bin I want the new user to be able to have access to only these folders /home/webadmin/example.com/html/js /home/webadmin/example.com/html/css /home/webadmin/example.com/application/views He should not be able to view even the content of other folders including files like bootstrap.php or login.php etc If any sys admins can help me set this account up - will really appreciate it. Thanks

Read the article
Can you select an element with two classes in jQuery

- by Petras

I have an element that has two classes but can't seem to select it with jQuery. Is it possible. Here's the code: <html> <head runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript" src="abc/scripts/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { alert($(".x.y").html()); //shows null, I want it to show "456" }); </script> </head> <body> <div class="x" class"y">456</div> </body> </html>

Read the article
htaccess to change url

- by Guo Hong Lim

I have the following code in my .htacess but it didn't work right. Is it because mod-rewrite is no "on", if so, how can i check? Options +FollowSymlinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^(.*)\$ $1.php [nc] I wanted to rename my address, example: http://www.abc.com - http://www.abc.com http://abc.com - http://www.abc.com http://www.abc.com/123.html - http://www.abc.com/123 http://www.abc.com/12-12-12.html - http://www.abc.com/12-12-12 http://subdomain.abc.com/123.html - http://subdomain.abc.com/123 Basically removing the extension and ensuring that its www is intact.

Read the article
ASP.Net AJAX controls, adding via .ashx page

- by Matt Dawdy

Okay, this is a continuation of a previous question of mine, but it is distinct enough to be its own question. Based on user interaction, I'm calling a .ashx handler via a jquery ajax call, and that handler is building some html for me that includes some Telerik controls like a masked textbox (masked for a phone number like "(###) ###-####". I got around all the hurdles of using Render() to get the html output of a server control even when it doesn't have a "Page" object or a ScriptHandler object. However, when I show the control to a user, I see the mask in the text of the textbox, but the mask doesn't "work" in the sense that when a user starts typing, it is as if the mask is really just text. So, my question is, after putting the html code out for a masked textbox, how do I tell whatever javascript is supposed to mask the input to really start masking on that specific control? I really hope this made sense. Please tell me if you need any clarification.

Read the article
Possible Encoding Issue Reading HTM File using .Net Streamreader

- by Brian Boatright

I have an HTML file with a ® (copyright) and ™ (trademark) symbol in the text. These are just two among many other symbols. When I read the html file into a literal control it converts the symbols to something else. The copyright symbol converts to ? (open box in ff) The trademark symbol converts to ™ (as expected) If (System.IO.File.Exists(FullName)) Then Dim StreamReader1 As New System.IO.StreamReader(FullName) Contents.Text = StreamReader1.ReadToEnd() StreamReader1.Close() End If Contents is a <asp:Literal runat="server" ID="Contents"></asp:Literal> and it's the only control in the aspx page. From some research I think this is related to the encoding but I don't know why it would change how to fix it. The html file does not contain any Content-Type settings in the head section.

Read the article
Help with Django localization--doesn't seem to be working. Nothing happens

- by alex

Can someone help me with Localization? I put {% trans "..." %} in my template, I filled in my django.po after running "makemessages". #: templates/main_content.html:136 msgid "Go to page" msgstr "¦~C~Z¦~C¦¦~B¦¦~L~G¦~Z" #: templates/main_content.html:138 msgid "Page" msgstr "¦~C~Z¦~C¦¦~B¦" #: templates/main_content.html:154 msgid "Next" msgstr "?" Then, I set LANGUAGES={} in my settings.py along with "gettext lambda": gettext = lambda s: s LANGUAGES = ( ('de', gettext('German')), ('en', gettext('English')), ('ja', gettext('Japanese')), ) Of course, I installed the LocaleMiddleware. I also set the request.session['django_language'] = "ja" How do I test that this is working? How do I see japanese on my site!?

Read the article
Storing member function pointers of derived classes in map

- by Kiran Mohan

Hello, I am trying to implement a factory for two classes Circle, Square both of which inherits from Shape. class Shape { public: virtual static Shape * getInstance() = 0; }; class Circle : public Shape { public: static const std::string type; Shape * getInstance() { return new Circle; } }; const std::string Circle::type = "Circle"; class Square : public Shape { public: static const std::string type; Shape * getInstance() { return new Square; } }; const std::string Square::type = "Square"; I want to now create a map with key as shape type (string) and value as a function pointer to getInstance() of the corresponding derived class. Is it possible? Thanks, Kiran

Read the article

< Previous Page | 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 | Next Page >