Search Results

Search found 18191 results on 728 pages for 'single board'.

Page 598/728 | < Previous Page | 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605  | Next Page >

  • Defining an implementation independent version of the global object in JavaScript

    - by Aadit M Shah
    I'm trying to define the global object in JavaScript in a single line as follows: var global = this.global || this; The above statement is in the global scope. Hence in browsers the this pointer is an alias for the window object. Assuming that it's the first line of JavaScript to be executed in the context of the current web page, the value of global will always be the same as that of the this pointer or the window object. In CommonJS implementations, such as RingoJS and node.js the this pointer points to the current ModuleScope. However, we can access the global object through the property global defined on the ModuleScope. Hence we can access it via the this.global property. Hence this code snippet works in all browsers and in at least RingoJS and node.js, but I have not tested other CommomJS implementations. Thus I would like to know if this code will not yield correct results when run on any other CommonJS implementation, and if so how I may fix it. Eventually, I intend to use it in a lambda expression for my implementation independent JavaScript framework as follows (idea from jQuery): (function (global) { // javascript framework })(this.global || this);

    Read the article

  • keep HTMLformat after replace some text (using PHP and JS)

    - by Sadi
    I would like modify HTML like I am <b>Sadi, novice</b> programmer. to I am <b>Sadi, learner</b> programmer. To do it I will search using a string "novice programmer". How can I do it please? Any idea? Thank you Sadi More clarification: I get some nice reply with possible solution. But please keep posting if you have any idea in mind. I would like to more clarify the problem just in case anyone missed it. Main post shows the problem as an example scenario. 1) Now the problem is find and replace some string without considering the tags. The tags may shows up within a single word. String may contain multiple word. Tag only appear in the content string or the document. The search phrase never contain any tags. We can easily remove all tags and do some text operation. But here the another problem shows up. 2) The tags must be preserve, even after replacing the text. That is what the example shows. Thank you Again for helping

    Read the article

  • FileReference.download() not working

    - by Lowgain
    I'm building a Flex app which requires me to download files. I have the following code: public function execute(event:CairngormEvent) : void { var evt:StemDownloadEvent = event as StemDownloadEvent; var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(evt.data.file_path); var localRef:FileReference = new FileReference(); localRef.addEventListener(Event.OPEN, _open); localRef.addEventListener(ProgressEvent.PROGRESS, _progress); localRef.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, _complete); localRef.addEventListener(Event.CANCEL, _cancel); localRef.addEventListener(Event.SELECT, _select); localRef.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, _securityError); localRef.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, _ioError); try { localRef.download(req); } catch (e:Error) { SoundRoom.logger.log(e); } } As you can see, I hooked up every possible event listener as well. When this executes, I get the browse window, and am able to select a location, and click save. After that, nothing happens. I have each event handler hooked up to my logger, and not a single one is being called! Is there something missing here?

    Read the article

  • a selective dual command binding converter in WPF?

    - by Jippers
    I'll start off and say I am not using the MVVM pattern for my WPF app. Please forgive me. Right now I have a data template with two buttons, each binds to a different command on the CLR object this data template represents. Both use the same command parameter. Here's an example of the buttons. <Button x:Name="Button1" Command="{Binding Path=Command1}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> <Button x:Name="Button2" Command="{Binding Path=Command2}" CommandParameter="{Binding Path=Text, ElementName=TextBox1}" /> I would like to refactor this into a single button that can perform either command based on a user setting like a boolean in Settings.settings. I don't have access to refactoring the CLR object itself. Also this is a Data Template there isn't codebehind for me to work with. My take is that a converter would be the best bet, but I don't know how I would put that together. The converter would need to take in the CommandParameter, as well as the DataContext so it knows which object to execute the Commands on. Can someone lend me a hand with this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Puting contact number into field

    - by dfilkovi
    I have this code that has one button that let's me choose an entry from contacts, and passes that choesn contact to onActivityResult function. My question is how do I select data of that single contact when all that is passed is an Intent in data variable. That data variable, if converted to string shows something like "dat: content://contacts/people/4" so I see that selected contact is somehow passed, but what now? How to get that data? And also all I found by googling was examples with deprecated class People, so I don't know how too use new classes. Please help. Thank you. public class HelloAndroid extends Activity { private static final int CONTACT_ACTIVITY = 100; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); final Button contactButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.pick_contact_button); contactButton.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Uri uri = Uri.parse("content://contacts/people"); Intent contacts_intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_PICK, uri); startActivityForResult(contacts_intent, CONTACT_ACTIVITY); } }); } public void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data){ super.onActivityResult(requestCode, resultCode, data); switch(requestCode){ case(CONTACT_ACTIVITY): { if(resultCode == Activity.RESULT_OK) { alertText(data.toString()); } break; } } } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET:Paging when deleting rows

    - by Niels Bosma
    I have a datagrid where a row can be deleted (using ajax). I'm have problem with the pager in the following scenario: Lets say my PageSize is 10, I have 101 rows so that's 11 pages with the last page with an single element. Let no assume that I'm on page 10 (PageIndex=9) and delete a row. Then I go to the 11'th page (who's now empty and doesn't really exist). ASP now shows me the EmptyDataTemplate and no pager so I can't go back. My approach (which isn't working) is to detect this scenario and step one page back: public void Bind() { gridMain.DataBind(); } public void SetPage(int page) { gridMain.PageIndex = page; gridMain.DataBind(); } protected void ldsGridMain_Selecting(object sender, LinqDataSourceSelectEventArgs e) { selectArgs = e; e.Result = (new EnquiryListController()).GetEnquiryList(OnBind(this), supplier); } protected void ldsGridMain_Selected(object sender, LinqDataSourceStatusEventArgs e) { totalRows = selectArgs.Arguments.TotalRowCount; //Detect if we need to update the page: if (gridMain.PageIndex > 0 && (gridMain.PageSize * gridMain.PageIndex + 1) > totalRows) SetPage(gridMain.PageIndex - 1); } protected void gridMain_PageIndexChanging(object sender, GridViewPageEventArgs e) { SetPage(e.NewPageIndex); } I can see that SetPage is called with the the right page index, but the databind doesn't seem to called as I still get the EmptyDataTemplate.

    Read the article

  • Launch command on remote Windows machine, given admin credentials

    - by Bilal Aslam
    I have a Windows Server 2008 instance on Amazon EC2 (Amazon's cloud compute platform, which provides VMs in the cloud). It has an external IP, and I have an admin account on the box. I would like to 'bootstrap' this instance remotely i.e. I want to run commands to download, install and configure apps on it, all without having to log on even once. I have figured out how to do this to a remote, domain-joined computer using WMI. I can even use psexec to get what I want, as long as the remote computer is part of the domain. However, I have NOT been able to do for a remote computer on EC2. Here are some specific restrictions: 1) The remote computer is not part of my domain, hence no Kerberos 2) The remote computer does not have a cert I trust, or vice versa I am sure I am running into to some auth/trust restriction. Is there any way I can run a single command on the remote, given that I have admin privileges? I'm not tied down to using WMI, but I do need to run a command somehow. Feels like this should be a solved problem.

    Read the article

  • InvalidCastException from selecting ListBoxItem's Contents

    - by Dan
    My ListBoxItems contain multiple TextBoxes like this: <ListBox Name="myList" SelectionChanged="myList_SelectionChanged"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ListBoxItem> <ListBoxItem.Content> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock Name="nameTextBlock" Text="{Binding Name}" /> <TextBlock Name="ageTextBlock" Text="{Binding Age}" /> <TextBlock Name="genderTextBlock" Text="{Binding Gender}" /> <TextBlock Name="heightTextBlock" Text="{Binding Height}" /> </StackPanel> </ListBoxItem.Content> </ListBoxItem> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> When an item is clicked, I would like each TextBlock to be saved to IsolatedStorage under corresponding keys. Right now the closest I've gotten to this method is this: private void mysList_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { ListBoxItem lbi = (ListBoxItem)myList.SelectedItem; appSettings["name"] = (string)lbi.Content; } But, when clicked I get an InvalidCastException. As I understand it, it's basically due to me trying to convert all four textboxes into a single string (or something like that). So how do I save each TextBox's text field independently within the ListBoxItem to an IsolatedStorage key/value? Thanks again in advance.

    Read the article

  • What's the standard convention for creating a new NSArray from an existing NSArray?

    - by Prairiedogg
    Let's say I have an NSArray of NSDictionaries that is 10 elements long. I want to create a second NSArray with the values for a single key on each dictionary. The best way I can figure to do this is: NSMutableArray *nameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[array count]]; for (NSDictionary *p in array) { [nameArray addObject:[p objectForKey:@"name"]]; } self.my_new_array = array; [array release]; [nameArray release]; } But in theory, I should be able to get away with not using a mutable array and using a counter in conjunction with [nameArray addObjectAtIndex:count], because the new list should be exactly as long as the old list. Please note that I am NOT trying to filter for a subset of the original array, but make a new array with exactly the same number of elements, just with values dredged up from the some arbitrary attribute of each element in the array. In python one could solve this problem like this: new_list = [p['name'] for p in old_list] or if you were a masochist, like this: new_list = map(lambda p: p['name'], old_list) Having to be slightly more explicit in objective-c makes me wonder if there is an accepted common way of handling these situations.

    Read the article

  • Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

    - by Alex Czarto
    Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

    Read the article

  • (HARD)Remove accents from a JSON response using the raw content

    - by Pentium10
    This is a follow up of this question: Remove accents from a JSON response. The accepted answer there works for a single item/string of a raw JSON content. But I would like to run a full transformation over the entire raw content of the JSON without parsing each object/array/item. What I've tried is this function removeAccents($jsoncontent) { $obj=json_decode($jsoncontent); // use decode to transform the unicode chars to utf $content=serialize($obj); // serialize into string, so the whole obj structure can be used string as a whole $a = 'ÀÁÂÃÄÅÆÇÈÉÊËÌÍÎÏÐÑÒÓÔÕÖØÙÚÛÜÝÞßàáâãäåæçèéêëìíîïðñòóôõöøùúûýýþÿRr'; $b = 'aaaaaaaceeeeiiiidnoooooouuuuybsaaaaaaaceeeeiiiidnoooooouuuyybyRr'; $content=utf8_decode($content); $jsoncontent = strtr($content, $a, $b); // at this point the accents are removed, and everything is good echo $jsoncontent; $obj=unserialize($jsoncontent); // this unserialization is returning false, probably because we messed up with the serialized string return json_encode($obj); } As you see after I decoded JSON content, I serialized the object to have a string of it, than I remove the accents from that string, but this way I have problem building back the object, as the unserialize stuff returns false. How can I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Why overload true and false instead of defining bool operator?

    - by Joe Enos
    I've been reading about overloading true and false in C#, and I think I understand the basic difference between this and defining a bool operator. The example I see around is something like: public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA > 0); } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA <= 0); } To me, this is the same as saying: public static implicit operator bool(Foo foo) { return (foo.PropA > 0); } The difference, as far as I can tell, is that by defining true and false separately, you can have an object that is both true and false, or neither true nor false: public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return true; } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return true; } //or public static bool operator true(Foo foo) { return false; } public static bool operator false(Foo foo) { return false; } I'm sure there's a reason this is allowed, but I just can't think of what it is. To me, if you want an object to be able to be converted to true or false, a single bool operator makes the most sense. Can anyone give me a scenario where it makes sense to do it the other way? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Correctly encode characters in a PHP mail form ("I'm" turns to be "I\'m")

    - by Peanuts
    Hello guys, I'm testing a PHP mail form, a very barebones one, found here: <?php if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { //The form has been submitted, prep a nice thank you message $output = '<h3>Thanks for your message</h3>'; //Deal with the email $to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'you have a mail'; $contactname = strip_tags($_POST['contactname']); $adress = strip_tags($_POST['adress']); $contactemail = strip_tags($_POST['contactemail']); $textmessage = strip_tags($_POST['textmessage']); $boundary =md5(date('r', time())); $headers = "From: My Site\r\nReply-To: [email protected]"; $message = "Name: ".$contactname."\n"; $message .= "Adress: ".$adress."\n"; $message .= "E-mail: ".$contactemail."\n"; $message .= "Message: ".$textmessage."\n"; mail($to, $subject, $message, $headers); } ?> The problem is I'm receiving an unwanted slash "\" everytime I write a single or a double quote in my message, so "I'm" appear as "I\'m" in my mailbox. I know it have to do with the way PHP distinguishes code quotes from only lecture quotes, but I wouldn't know what to add in my form to get it properly running. Any help is appreciated,

    Read the article

  • Help me understand dynamic layouts in Sinatra

    - by thermans
    Help me understand this; I'm learning Sinatra (and Rails for that matter, er, and Ruby). Say I'm doing a search app. The search form is laid out in one div, and the results will be laid out in another. The search form is rendered into the div by a previous view (maybe from a login form). I want to process the form params, perform the search, and render the results into the results div. If I have a single "yield" in the layout and render the divs from different views, the results div erases the search div when it renders. If I define the divs in the default layout, then just render the content, obviously the layout will be messed up: there would have to be two "yields" and I don't think Sinatra supports passing blocks in to yields. I tried foca's sinatra-content-for plugin, and that seems closer to what I need. But I can't figure out where to place the "yield_content" statements. If I have this haml in my layout: #search -# search form = yield_content :search #results -# search results = yield_content :results ... this in my search view: - content_for :search do %form{:method => "post"... etc. ... and this in the results view: - content_for :results do %table{:class => 'results'... etc. This sort of works but when I render the results view, the search div is emptied out. I would like to have it remain. Am I doing something wrong? How should I set this up?

    Read the article

  • Apps with lable XYZ could not be found

    - by HWM-Rocker
    Hello folks, today I ran into an error and have no clue how to fix it. Error: App with label XYZ could not be found. Are you sure your INSTALLED_APPS setting is correct? Where XYZ stands for the app-name that I am trying to reset. This error shows up every time I try to reset it (manage.py reset XYZ). Show all the sql code works. Even manage.py validate shows no error. I already commented out every single line of code in the models.py that I touched the last three monts. (function by function, model by model) And even if there are no models left I get this error. Here http://code.djangoproject.com/ticket/10706 I found a bugreport about this error. I also applied one the patches to allocate the error, it raises an exception so you have a trace back, but even there is no sign in what of my files the error occurred. I don't want to paste my code right now, because it is nearly 1000 lines of code in the file I edited the most. If someone of you had the same error please tell me were I can look for the problem. In that case I can post the important part of the source. Otherwise it would be too much at once. Thank you for helping!!!

    Read the article

  • Can't wrap my head around appengine data store persistence

    - by aloo
    Hi, I've run into the "can't operate on multiple entity groups in a single transaction." problem when using APPENGINE FOR JAVA w/ JDO with the following code: PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); Query q = pm.newQuery("SELECT this FROM " + TypeA.class.getName() + " WHERE userId == userIdParam "); q.declareParameters("String userIdParam"); List<TypeA> poos = (List<TypeA>) q.execute(userIdParam); for (TypeA a : allTypeAs) { a.setSomeField(someValue); } pm.close(); } The problem it seems is that I can't operate on a multiple entities at the same time b/c they arent in the same entity group while in a transaction. Even though it doesn't seem like I'm in a transaction, appengine generates one because I have the following set in my jdoconfig.xml: <property name="datanucleus.appengine.autoCreateDatastoreTxns" value="true"/> Fine. So far I think I understand. BUT - if I replace TypeA in the above code, with TypeB - I don't get the error. I don't believe there is anything different between type a and type b - they both have the same key structure. They do have different fields but that shouldn't matter, right? My question is - what could possible be different between TypeA and TypeB that they give this different behavior? And consequently what do you I fundamentally misunderstand that this behavior could even exist.... Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to identify a particular entity's Session Factory with Fluent NHibernate and Multiple Databases

    - by Trevor
    I've already asked this question as part of an answer to another question ( see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2655861/fluent-nhibernate-multiple-databases ) but thought it better to ask again here. My problem is this: I'm using Fluent NHibernate. My application uses multiple databases. Each database has its own entities registered (mapped) against it. The result is that have multiple Session Factories, each one relating to a single DB, and each 'containing' its own set of mapped entities. For loading entities I've created a generic Factory class that provides some standard load methods usable for any registered entity (in any DB). The problem is: The load methods need to use the correct session factory for the entity class I'm busy dealing with. How would I determine which session factory I need to use? I have all the Session Factories 'on hand' (and indexed by database name), I just need a way, knowing just the type of Entity I'm about to load, of choosing the right Session Factory to use. For example: public IBaseBusinessObject CreatePopulatedInstance(Type boType, Guid instanceKey) { IBaseBusinessObject result = null; ISessionFactory sessionFactory = GetSessionFactory(boType); using (ISession session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) { using (session.BeginTransaction()) { result = (IBaseBusinessObject)session.Get(boType, instanceKey); } } return result; } What needs to go on in GetSessionFactory(boType) ? Thanks for reading!

    Read the article

  • How do I assert that two arbitrary type objects are equivalent, without requiring them to be equal?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    To accomplish this (but failing to do so) I'm reflecting over properties of an expected and actual object and making sure their values are equal. This works as expected as long as their properties are single objects, i.e. not lists, arrays, IEnumerable... If the property is a list of some sort, the test fails (on the Assert.AreEqual(...) inside the for loop). public void WithCorrectModel<TModelType>(TModelType expected, string error = "") where TModelType : class { var actual = _result.ViewData.Model as TModelType; Assert.IsNotNull(actual, error); Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actual, typeof(TModelType), error); foreach (var prop in typeof(TModelType).GetProperties()) { Assert.AreEqual(prop.GetValue(expected, null), prop.GetValue(actual, null), error); } } If dealing with a list property, I would get the expected results if I instead used CollectionAssert.AreEquivalent(...) but that requires me to cast to ICollection, which in turn requries me to know the type listed, which I don't (want to). It also requires me to know which properties are list types, which I don't know how to. So, how should I assert that two objects of an arbitrary type are equivalent? Note: I specifically don't want to require them to be equal, since one comes from my tested object and one is built in my test class to have something to compare with.

    Read the article

  • Where can I find a professional image gallery built on a javascript framework?

    - by user278457
    I'm looking to find a galleria replacement, hopefully using jQuery but other javascript frameworks such as prototype or mootools are fine too. I used galleria a while back, and I need a similar product now. Unfortunately, the devkick.com domain seems to have disappeared in the meantime and I'm wary of using products that aren't actively maintained. I'm willing to pay up to $50 per site for licensing costs, if the product meets my needs. I'm specifically looking for a gallery with the following features: Every image in the gallery preloads asap, not as the user clicks "next" Minimalist default css to keep my subsequent styling headaches down, preferably a "darkroom" style by default, much as galleria looks Each element that constructs the image gallery should be simple and logical to reference with CSS As easy to install as adding a css class to a single unordered list No dependencies other than the core jQuery/other library, including "easing" and other effects must be optional Works on browsers back to IE6, Firefox 3, Safari (and iPhone), Chrome, Opera Has a javascript API that lets me trigger callback functions on common events such as "user clicks next" or "image loads" degrades gracefully without javascript, either displays images as a list, or just displays the first image in the list bonus: The gallery can display other content, such as video or external sites, like the modal boxes at shadowbox-js.com well documented minimal bandwidth requirement - .js file should be ~10kb minified bonus: The gallery source is hosted on a reliable CDN like google's bonus: Thumbnails for images do not appear until the main image has loaded bonus: includes ability to set parameters with JSON to change common behaviours, such as slide/fade transitions or automatic image switch every X seconds

    Read the article

  • use proxy in python to fetch a webpage

    - by carmao
    I am trying to write a function in Python to use a public anonymous proxy and fetch a webpage, but I got a rather strange error. The code (I have Python 2.4): import urllib2 def get_source_html_proxy(url, pip, timeout): # timeout in seconds (maximum number of seconds willing for the code to wait in # case there is a proxy that is not working, then it gives up) proxy_handler = urllib2.ProxyHandler({'http': pip}) opener = urllib2.build_opener(proxy_handler) opener.addheaders = [('User-agent', 'Mozilla/5.0')] urllib2.install_opener(opener) req=urllib2.Request(url) sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) timp=0 # a counter that is going to measure the time until the result (webpage) is # returned while 1: data = sock.read(1024) timp=timp+1 if len(data) < 1024: break timpLimita=50000000 * timeout if timp==timpLimita: # 5 millions is about 1 second break if timp==timpLimita: print IPul + ": Connection is working, but the webpage is fetched in more than 50 seconds. This proxy returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) else: print "This proxy " + IPul + "= good proxy. " + "It returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) # Now, I call the function to test it for one single proxy (IP:port) that does not support user and password (a public high anonymity proxy) #(I put a proxy that I know is working - slow, but is working) rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) print rez The error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 43, in ? rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 18, in get_source_html_proxy sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 130, in urlopen return _opener.open(url, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 358, in open response = self._open(req, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 376, in _open '_open', req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 337, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 573, in lambda r, proxy=url, type=type, meth=self.proxy_open: \ File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 580, in proxy_open if '@' in host: TypeError: iterable argument required I do not know why the character "@" is an issue (I have no such in my code. Should I have?) Thanks in advance for your valuable help.

    Read the article

  • Free Memory Occupied by Std List, Vector, Map etc

    - by Graviton
    Coming from a C# background, I have only vaguest idea on memory management on C++-- all I know is that I would have to free the memory manually. As a result my C++ code is written in such a way that objects of the type std::vector, std::list, std::map are freely instantiated, used, but not freed. I didn't realize this point until I am almost done with my programs, now my code is consisted of the following kinds of patterns: struct Point_2 { double x; double y; }; struct Point_3 { double x; double y; double z; }; list<list<Point_2>> Computation::ComputationJob(list<Point_3> pts3D, vector<Point_2> vectors) { map<Point_2, double> pt2DMap=ConstructPointMap(pts3D); vector<Point_2> vectorList = ConstructVectors(vectors); list<list<Point_2>> faceList2D=ConstructPoints(vectorList , pt2DMap); return faceList2D; } My question is, must I free every.single.one of the list usage ( in the above example, this means that I would have to free pt2DMap, vectorList and faceList2D)? That would be very tedious! I might just as well rewrite my Computation class so that it is less prone to memory leak. Any idea how to fix this?

    Read the article

  • MySQL - optimising selection across two linked tables

    - by user293594
    I have two MySQL tables, states and trans: states (200,000 entries) looks like: id (INT) - also the primary key energy (DOUBLE) [other stuff] trans (14,000,000 entries) looks like: i (INT) - a foreign key referencing states.id j (INT) - a foreign key referencing states.id A (DOUBLE) I'd like to search for all entries in trans with trans.A 30. (say), and then return the energy entries from the (unique) states referenced by each matching entry. So I do it with two intermediate tables: CREATE TABLE ij SELECT i,j FROM trans WHERE A30.; CREATE TABLE temp SELECT DISTINCT i FROM ij UNION SELECT DISTINCT j FROM ij; SELECT energy from states,temp WHERE id=temp.i; This seems to work, but is there any way to do it without the intermediate tables? When I tried to create the temp table with a single command straight from trans: CREATE TABLE temp SELECT DISTINCT i FROM trans WHERE A30. UNION SELECT DISTINCT j FROM trans WHERE A30.; it took a longer (presumably because it had to search the large trans table twice. I'm new to MySQL and I can't seem to find an equivalent problem and answer out there on the interwebs. Many thanks, Christian

    Read the article

  • AVAudioPlayer problem regarding song overlaping in iPhone

    - by riteshkumar1905
    I have using AVAudioPlayer in my app but the problem is that when i play the song from list it will played while before stopping the song i am again goes to song list then select another song then both song will start playing simultaneously so please tell me the code which will terminate my first song. i am using avTouchContoller & avTouchViewController in my app. so i am enclosing the code for song which is written in avController.m & avTouchViewController.m as follow for single song avtouchController.m switch (flag) { case 1: //[self stop]; fileURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Aarti Keeje" ofType:@"aac"]]; self._player = [[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:fileURL error:nil]; //self._player=newplayer; //[newplayer release]; if (self._player) { _fileName.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"%@ (%d ch.)", [[self._player.url relativePath] lastPathComponent], self._player.numberOfChannels, nil]; [self updateViewForPlayerInfo]; [self updateViewForPlayerState]; } [fileURL release]; break;

    Read the article

  • Method of transforming 3D vectors with a matrix

    - by Drew Noakes
    I've been doing some reading on transforming Vector3 with matrices, and am tossing up digging deeper into the math and coding this myself versus using existing code. For whatever reason my school curriculum never included matrices, so I'm filling a gap in my knowledge. Thankfully I only need a few simple things, I think. Context is that I'm programming a robot for the RoboCup 3D league. I'm coding it in C# but it'll have to run on Mono. Ideally I wouldn't use any existing graphics libraries for this (WinForms/WPF/XNA) as all I really need is a neat subset of matrix transformations. Specifically, I need translation and x/y/z rotations, and a way of combining multiple transformations into a single matrix. This will then be applied to my own Vector3 type to produce the transformed Vector3. I've read different advice about this. For example, some model the transformation with a 4x3 matrix, others with a 4x4 matrix. Also, some examples show that you need a forth value for the vector's matrix of 1. What happens to this value when it's included in the output? [1 0 0 0] [x y z 1] * [0 1 0 0] = [a b c d] [0 0 1 0] [2 4 6 1] The parts I'm missing are: What sizes my matrices should be Compositing transformations by multiplying the transformation matrices together Transforming 3D vectors with the resulting matrix As I mostly just want to get this running, any psuedo-code would be great. Information about what matrix values perform what transformations is quite clearly defined on many pages, so need not be discussed here unless you're very keen :)

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to store pointers in shared memory without using offsets?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    When using shared memory, each process may mmap the shared region into a different area of their address space. This means that when storing pointers within the shared region, you need to store them as offsets of the start of the shared region. Unfortunately, this complicates use of atomic instructions (e.g. if you're trying to write a lock free algorithm). For example, say you have a bunch of reference counted nodes in shared memory, created by a single writer. The writer periodically atomically updates a pointer 'p' to point to a valid node with positive reference count. Readers want to atomically write to 'p' because it points to the beginning of a node (a struct) whose first element is a reference count. Since p always points to a valid node, incrementing the ref count is safe, and makes it safe to dereference 'p' and access other members. However, this all only works when everything is in the same address space. If the nodes and the 'p' pointer are stored in shared memory, then clients suffer a race condition: x = read p y = x + offset Increment refcount at y During step 2, p may change and x may no longer point to a valid node. The only workaround I can think of is somehow forcing all processes to agree on where to map the shared memory, so that real pointers rather than offsets can be stored in the mmap'd region. Is there any way to do that? I see MAP_FIXED in the mmap documentation, but I don't know how I could pick an address that would be safe.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 594 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605  | Next Page >