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  • Access problems with IIS 7 and a WCF service

    - by Steve
    I have a Silverlight app that calls a WCF service, the service calls some stored procedures in an SQL db using Visual Studio 2008's Link to SQL class and returns the information to whatever called it. I have set up the compiled project (website with embedded app and the WCF service) on an remote IIS 7 server. I recompiled my local copy to use the WCF service that is now hosted on the IIS box and not the one on the local dev server that Visual Studio provides, if I use the local version of the website (hosted on the dev server, and using the remote SCF service) it is able to make calls it needs and display the information. However, if I use the website that is being hosted by the remote IIS server, the app will not get the information it needs from the service. On the IIS server I have the application pool and the website running under my credentials, which have access to the database. Users connecting to the webpage use anonymous authentication. Any ideas as to why I can only access the service when running from the dev server and not through the remotely hosted webpage are appreciated. If anything needs clarification, please ask.

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  • Is it possible to persist two profiles with the Profile Provider Model?

    - by NickGPS
    I have a website that needs to store two sets of user data into separate data stores. The first set of data is used by the SiteCore CMS and holds information about the user. The second set of data is used by a personalisation application that stores its own user data. The reason they aren't stored together in the same profile object is because the personalisation application is used across multiple websites that do not all use SiteCore. I am able to create multiple Profile Providers - I currently have one from SiteCore and a custom provider that I have written and these both work in isolation. The problem exists when you try to configure both in the same web.config file. It seems you can only specify a single Profile object in the web.config file, rather than one for each provider. This means that regardless of which provider is being used the .Net framework sends through the profile object that is specified in the "inherits" parameter in the profile section of the web.config file. My questions are - Is it possible to specify a different Profile object for each Profile Provider? If so, how and where is this specified? Thanks, Nick

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  • Inner or Outer left Join

    - by user1557856
    I'm having difficulty modifying a script for this situation and wondering if someone maybe able to help: I have an address table and a phone table both sharing the same column called id_number. So id_number = 2 on both tables refers to the same entity. Address and phone information used to be stored in one table (the address table) but it is now split into address and phone tables since we moved to Oracle 11g. There is a 3rd table called both_ids. This table also has an id_number column in addition to an other_ids column storing SSN and some other ids. Before the table was split into address and phone tables, I had this script: (Written in Sybase) INSERT INTO sometable_3 ( SELECT a.id_number, a.other_id, NVL(a1.addr_type_code,0) home_addr_type_code, NVL(a1.addr_status_code,0) home_addr_status_code, NVL(a1.addr_pref_ind,0) home_addr_pref_ind, NVL(a1.street1,0) home_street1, NVL(a1.street2,0) home_street2, NVL(a1.street3,0) home_street3, NVL(a1.city,0) home_city, NVL(a1.state_code,0) home_state_code, NVL(a1.zipcode,0) home_zipcode, NVL(a1.zip_suffix,0) home_zip_suffix, NVL(a1.telephone_status_code,0) home_phone_status, NVL(a1.area_code,0) home_area_code, NVL(a1.telephone_number,0) home_phone_number, NVL(a1.extension,0) home_phone_extension, NVL(a1.date_modified,'') home_date_modified FROM both_ids a, address a1 WHERE a.id_number = a1.id_number(+) AND a1.addr_type_code = 'H'); Now that we moved to Oracle 11g, the address and phone information are split. How can I modify the above script to generate the same result in Oracle 11g? Do I have to first do INNER JOIN between address and phone tables and then do a LEFT OUTER JOIN to both_ids? I tried the following and it did not work: Insert Into.. select ... FROM a1. address INNER JOIN t.Phone ON a1.id_number = t.id_number LEFT OUTER JOIN both_ids a ON a.id_number = a1.id_number WHERE a1.adrr_type_code = 'H'

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  • Recommended approach for error handling with PHP and MYSQL

    - by iama
    I am trying to capture database (MYSQL) errors in my PHP web application. Currently, I see that there are functions like mysqli_error(), mysqli_errno() for capturing the last occurred error. However, this still requires me to check for error occurrence using repeated if/else statements in my php code. You may check my code below to see what I mean. Is there a better approach to doing this? (or) Should I write my own code to raise exceptions and catch them in one single place? What is the recommended approach? Also, does PDO raise exceptions? Thanks. function db_userexists($name, $pwd, &$dbErr) { $bUserExists = false; $uid = 0; $dbErr = ''; $db = new mysqli(SERVER, USER, PASSWORD, DB); if (!mysqli_connect_errno()) { $query = "select uid from user where uname = ? and pwd = ?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); if ($stmt) { if ($stmt->bind_param("ss", $name, $pwd)) { if ($stmt->bind_result($uid)) { if ($stmt->execute()) { if ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($uid) $bUserExists = true; } } } } if (!$bUserExists) $dbErr = $db->error(); $stmt->close(); } if (!$bUserExists) $dbErr = $db->error(); $db->close(); } else { $dbErr = mysqli_connect_error(); } return $bUserExists; }

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  • Setting up a view to draw to in Objective-C (iPhone) ?

    - by Johannes Jensen
    Okay, so, I'm all new to iPhone and stuff, but I'm not even at programming, I have many years of experience with ActionScript 2.0 and 3.0, I want to set up a view, that I can also pass variables to. The view is gonna draw everything with Quartz. I tried to make another game where I tried to add a pointer to a NSMutableArray to the view class, but it didn't work cause I didn't know how to store an actual class. I wanted to do like: [myView setNeedsDisplay]; but I had to do [(View*)self.view setNeedsDisplay]; didn't really work out in the end... Okay, so now I got: - (void) viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; viewClass = [[View class] retain]; gameView = [[[viewClass alloc] initWithFrame: CGRectZero] retain]; [gameView setNeedsDisplay]; } This is in my drawInContext:context, which is fired by drawRect: Also, my drawRect does [self drawInContext: UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext()]; CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor(context, [[UIColor blackColor] CGColor]); CGContextSetLineWidth(context, 3.0); CGContextSetLineCap(context, kCGLineCapRound); CGContextSetLineJoin(context, kCGLineJoinRound); CGMutablePathRef aPath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(aPath, nil, 5, 5); CGPathAddLineToPoint(aPath, nil, 45, 43); CGContextAddPath(context, aPath); CGContextStrokePath(context); Nothing happens. Help? Oh yeah, I get this error: : invalid context for each time I use those functions. :[ Thanks!

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  • What kind of data do I pass into a Django Model.save() method?

    - by poswald
    Lets say that we are getting POSTed a form like this in Django: rate=10 items= [23,12,31,52,83,34] The items are primary keys of an Item model. I have a bunch of business logic that will run and create more items based on this data, the results of some db lookups, and some business logic. I want to put that logic into a save signal or an overridden Model.save() method of another model (let's call it Inventory). The business logic will run when I create a new Inventory object using this form data. Inventory will look like this: class Inventory(models.Model): picked_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, related_name="items_picked_set") calculated_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, related_name="items_calculated_set") rate = models.DecimalField() ... other fields here ... New calculated_items will be created based on the passed in items which will be stored as picked_items. My question is this: is it better for the save() method on this model to accept: the request object (I don't really like this coupling) the form data as arguments or kwargs (a list of primary keys and the other form fields) a list of Items (The caller form or view will lookup the list of Items and create a list as well as pass in the other form fields) some other approach? I know this is a bit subjective, but I was wondering what the general idea is. I've looked through a lot of code but I'm having a hard time finding a pattern I like.

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  • How can I write to a single xml file from two programs at the same time?

    - by Tom Bushell
    We recently started working with XML files, after many years of experience with the old INI files. My coworker found some CodeProject sample code that uses System.Xml.XmlDocument.Save. We are getting exceptions when two programs try to write to the same file at the same time. System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file 'C:\Test.xml' because it is being used by another process. This seems obvious in hindsight, but we had not anticipated it because accessing INI files via the Win32 API does not have this limitation. I assume there's some arbitration done by the Win32 calls that work at a higher level than the the XmlDocument.Save method. I'm hoping there are higher level XML routines somewhere in the .Net library that work similarily to the Win32 functions, but don't know where to start looking. Or maybe we can set up our file access permissions to allow multiple programs to write to the same file? Time is short (like almost all SW projects), and if we can't find a solution quickly, we'll have to hold our noses and go back to INI files.

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  • Fortran pointer as an argument to interface procedure

    - by icarusthecow
    Im trying to use interfaces to call different subroutines with different types, however, it doesnt seem to work when i use the pointer attribute. for example, take this sample code MODULE ptr_types TYPE, abstract :: parent INTEGER :: q END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: child INTEGER :: m END TYPE INTERFACE ptr_interface MODULE PROCEDURE do_something END INTERFACE CONTAINS SUBROUTINE do_something(atype) CLASS(parent), POINTER :: atype ! code determines that this allocation is correct from input ALLOCATE(child::atype) WRITE (*,*) atype%q END SUBROUTINE END MODULE PROGRAM testpass USE ptr_types CLASS(child), POINTER :: ctype CALL ptr_interface(ctype) END PROGRAM This gives error Error: There is no specific subroutine for the generic 'ptr_interface' at (1) however if i remove the pointer attribute in the subroutine it compiles fine. Now, normally this wouldnt be a problem, but for my use case i need to be able to treat that argument as a pointer, mainly so i can allocate it if necessary. Any suggestions? Mind you I'm new to fortran so I may have missed something edit: forgot to put the allocation in the parents subroutine, the initial input is unallocated EDIT 2 this is my second attempt, with caller side casting MODULE ptr_types TYPE, abstract :: parent INTEGER :: q END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: child INTEGER :: m END TYPE TYPE, extends(parent) :: second INTEGER :: meow END TYPE CONTAINS SUBROUTINE do_something(this, type_num) CLASS(parent), POINTER :: this INTEGER type_num IF (type_num == 0) THEN ALLOCATE (child::this) ELSE IF (type_num == 1) THEN ALLOCATE (second::this) ENDIF END SUBROUTINE END MODULE PROGRAM testpass USE ptr_types CLASS(child), POINTER :: ctype SELECT TYPE(ctype) CLASS is (parent) CALL do_something(ctype, 0) END SELECT WRITE (*,*) ctype%q END PROGRAM however this still fails. in the select statement it complains that parent must extend child. Im sure this is due to restrictions when dealing with the pointer attribute, for type safety, however, im looking for a way to convert a pointer into its parent type for generic allocation. Rather than have to write separate allocation functions for every type and hope they dont collide in an interface or something. hopefully this example will illustrate a little more clearly what im trying to achieve, if you know a better way let me know

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  • Do I lose the benefits of macro recording if I develop Excel apps in Visual Studio?

    - by DanM
    I've written lots of Excel macros in the past using the following development process: Record a macro. Open the VBA editor. Edit the macro. I'm now experimenting with a Visual Studio 2008 "Excel 2007 Add-In" project (C#), and I'm wondering if I will have to give up this development process. Questions: I know I can still record macros using Excel, but is there any way to access the resulting code in Visual Studio? Or do I just have to copy and paste then C#-ize it? What happens with my "Personal Macro Workbook"? Can I use the macros I have stored in there within C#? Or is there some way to convert them to C#? If there is some support for opening and editing VBA macros in Visual Studio, can you provide a very brief summary of how it works or point me to a good reference? Do you have any other tips for transitioning from writing macros in VBA using Excel's built-in editor to writing them in C# with Visual Studio?

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  • Bootstrap inline button dropdown within <p> jumbotron

    - by C.B.
    Currently I have a jumbotron setup with some paragraph text, and I would like to stick a button dropdown inline with the text. Dropdown button <span class="btn-group"> <button type="button" class="btn btn-default dropdown-toggle" data-toggle="dropdown"> Button... <span class="caret"></span> </button> <ul class="dropdown-menu" role="menu"> <li><a href="#">Opt 1</a></li> <li><a href="#">Opt 2</a></li> </ul> </span> Jumbotron <div class="jumbotron"> <h1>Hello!</h1> <p>Welcome</p> <p>Another paragraph <!-- dropdown is here --> </p> </div> <!-- jumbotron --> If the dropdown is within the <p> tag, it does not "dropdown" (but renders). If it is outside of the <p> tag it functions fine, but I would like it to be inline with the text and need the text to be in the <p> tag to get the style. Any ideas? Things to note -- If I replace the <span> tags with <div> tags, it will work fine within the <p> tags, but won't be inline.

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  • what patern is layerd architechture in asp.net ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I am a asp.net developer and don't know much about patterns and architecture. I will very thankful if you can please guide me here. In my web applications I use 4 layers. Web site project (having web forms + code behind cs files, user controls + code behind cs files, master pages + code behind cs files) CustomTypesLayer a class library (having custom types, enumerations, DTOs, constructers, get, set and validations) BusinessLogicLayer a class library (having all business logic, rules and all calls to DAL functions) DataAccessLayer a class library( having just classes communicating to database.) -My user interface just calls BusinessLogicLayer. BusinessLogicLayer do proecessign in it self and for data it calls DataAccessLayer funtions. -Web forms do not calls directly DAL. -CustomTypesLayer is shared by all layers. Please guide me is this approach a pattern ? I though it may be MVC or MVP but pages have there code behind files as well which are confusing me. If it is no patren is it near to some patren ? pleaes guide thanks

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  • How am i overriding this C++ inherited member function without the virtual keyword being used?

    - by Gary Willoughby
    I have a small program to demonstrate simple inheritance. I am defining a Dog class which is derived from Mammal. Both classes share a simple member function called ToString(). How is Dog overriding the implementation in the Mammal class, when i'm not using the virtual keyword? (Do i even need to use the virtual keyword to override member functions?) mammal.h #ifndef MAMMAL_H_INCLUDED #define MAMMAL_H_INCLUDED #include <string> class Mammal { public: std::string ToString(); }; #endif // MAMMAL_H_INCLUDED mammal.cpp #include <string> #include "mammal.h" std::string Mammal::ToString() { return "I am a Mammal!"; } dog.h #ifndef DOG_H_INCLUDED #define DOG_H_INCLUDED #include <string> #include "mammal.h" class Dog : public Mammal { public: std::string ToString(); }; #endif // DOG_H_INCLUDED dog.cpp #include <string> #include "dog.h" std::string Dog::ToString() { return "I am a Dog!"; } main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "dog.h" using namespace std; int main() { Dog d; std::cout << d.ToString() << std::endl; return 0; } output I am a Dog! I'm using MingW on Windows via Code::Blocks.

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  • Clean solution to this ruby iterator trickiness?

    - by mstksg
    k = [1,2,3,4,5] for n in k puts n if n == 2 k.delete(n) end end puts k.join(",") # Result: # 1 # 2 # 4 # 5 # [1,3,4,5] # Desired: # 1 # 2 # 3 # 4 # 5 # [1,3,4,5] This same effect happens with the other array iterator, k.each: k = [1,2,3,4,5] k.each do |n| puts n if n == 2 k.delete(n) end end puts k.join(",") has the same output. The reason this is happening is pretty clear...Ruby doesn't actually iterate through the objects stored in the array, but rather just turns it into a pretty array index iterator, starting at index 0 and each time increasing the index until it's over. But when you delete an item, it still increments the index, so it doesn't evaluate the same index twice, which I want it to. This might not be what's happening, but it's the best I can think of. Is there a clean way to do this? Is there already a built-in iterator that can do this? Or will I have to dirty it up and do an array index iterator, and not increment when the item is deleted?

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  • R optimization: How can I avoid a for loop in this situation?

    - by chrisamiller
    I'm trying to do a simple genomic track intersection in R, and running into major performance problems, probably related to my use of for loops. In this situation, I have pre-defined windows at intervals of 100bp and I'm trying to calculate how much of each window is covered by the annotations in mylist. Graphically, it looks something like this: 0 100 200 300 400 500 600 windows: |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| mylist: |-| |-----------| So I wrote some code to do just that, but it's fairly slow and has become a bottleneck in my code: ##window for each 100-bp segment windows <- numeric(6) ##second track mylist = vector("list") mylist[[1]] = c(1,20) mylist[[2]] = c(120,320) ##do the intersection for(i in 1:length(mylist)){ st <- floor(mylist[[i]][1]/100)+1 sp <- floor(mylist[[i]][2]/100)+1 for(j in st:sp){ b <- max((j-1)*100, mylist[[i]][1]) e <- min(j*100, mylist[[i]][2]) windows[j] <- windows[j] + e - b + 1 } } print(windows) [1] 20 81 101 21 0 0 Naturally, this is being used on data sets that are much larger than the example I provide here. Through some profiling, I can see that the bottleneck is in the for loops, but my clumsy attempt to vectorize it using *apply functions resulted in code that runs an order of magnitude more slowly. I suppose I could write something in C, but I'd like to avoid that if possible. Can anyone suggest another approach that will speed this calculation up?

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  • Mootools Form Post Problem, Abort increasingly+1 with each request

    - by Naresh
    Hi all, i'm using Mootools 1.2. Ihave 15 Forms with same name only change in their id's like form1, form2, form3, ... ,form15 same with their elements. i need to submit all forms by ajax. For that purpos i make a function and call them on each functions onClick event. function is function addStepConfiguration(id,mystrip,comment,error,submitid,i) { $(id).addEvent('submit', function(e) { e.stop(); $(submitid).setStyle('display','none'); loading_Img(i); this.set('send', { onComplete: function(responseText) { $('loading_img'+i).innerHTML = ''; SplittedResText = responseText.split("|"); if(SplittedResText[1]=='undefined') { $(error).innerHTML=SplittedResText[0]; } else { $(comment).innerHTML=SplittedResText[0]; $(mystrip).set('class',SplittedResText[1]); removeMsg.delay(20,'',error); removeMsg.delay(1500,'',comment); } $(submitid).setStyle('display','block'); } }); this.send(); }); } When i submit a form say first one then it submitted and give response normally, but in second time without page refresh, it abort the request one time. in third attempt it abort 2 times..then go on +1 each time. It gives no error, just abort and again request automatically. i can't understand what is the problem. please any one can help me.

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  • Blocking HTML and Javascript from being displayed on my site

    - by Tim Powell
    I am working on this new social networking site. One of it's various functions is posting. You can post to Facebook and my site, or Twitter and my site. That being said, I couldn't help but try and post HTML as I was testing sql injection. When I did, I noticed that there where ways to manipulate the site to, for instance, using a element to completely screw up the CSS design, or redirect a user to another site using javascript. That being said, I want to make my site a safe environment for my users... not a site that is used to distribute computer viruses, porn, and other things that might make someone tend to stay off of my site. When I searched this topic, I found ways to "strip" the HTML out of the $post variable before submitting it to the database. However, I would just like to make it so you can post any text, including HTML and Javascript, without the browser interpreting it as "run this..." code: I want to display it as plane text. I've seen it on Facebook, and when I looked at it the source code of a post, it showed <, /, and as regular text. I tried "dissecting" Facebook's source code, but found nothing. I have tried using tags such as <pre> and <code>, but because of the lack of ability to style and control them, I gave up and went back to just allowing HTML. Please, anyone who knows how to do this, please help me out. Thanks in advance, TP

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  • Parsing localized date strings in PHP

    - by Mikeage
    Hi, I have some code (it's part of a wordpress plugin) which takes a text string, and the format specifier given to date(), and attempts to parse it into an array containing hour, minute, second, day, month, year. Currently, I use the following code (note that strtotime is horribly unreliable with things like 01/02/03) // $format contains the string originally given to date(), and $content is the rendered string if (function_exists('date_parse_from_format')) { $content_parsed = date_parse_from_format($format, $content); } else { $content = preg_replace("([0-9]st|nd|rd|th)","\\1",$content); $content_parsed = strptime($content, dateFormatToStrftime($format)); $content_parsed['hour']=$content_parsed['tm_hour']; $content_parsed['minute']=$content_parsed['tm_min']; $content_parsed['day']=$content_parsed['tm_mday']; $content_parsed['month']=$content_parsed['tm_mon'] + 1; $content_parsed['year']=$content_parsed['tm_year'] + 1900; } This actually works fairly well, and seems to handle every combination I've thrown at it. However, recently someone gave me 24 ??????, 2010. This is Russian for November 24, 2010 [the date format was j F, Y], and it is parsed as year = 2010, month = null, day = 24. Are there any functions that I can use that know how to translate both November and ?????? into 11? EDIT: Running print_r(setlocale(LC_ALL, 0)); returns C. Switching back to strptime() seems to fix the problem, but the docs warn: Internally, this function calls the strptime() function provided by the system's C library. This function can exhibit noticeably different behaviour across different operating systems. The use of date_parse_from_format(), which does not suffer from these issues, is recommended on PHP 5.3.0 and later. Is date_parse_from_format() the correct API, and if so, how do I get it to recognize the language?

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  • callback on a variable which is inside a .each() loop

    - by Stoic
    I have this function, which is doing an asynchronous call to FB.api method. Now, i am looping over some data and capturing result of the above method call successfully. However, I am using a .each loop and I really can not figure out how to place my callback in this method, so that the outer method is only executed once. Here are the functions I am using: ask_for_perms($(this).val(),function(result) { $('#some-div').html('<a onclick = "get_perms(result);" >get perms</a>'); }); function ask_for_perms(perms_requested,cb) { var request = []; $.each(perms_requested,function(i,permission) { FB.api({ method: 'users.hasAppPermission', ext_perm: permission }, function(response) { if (response == 0) request.push(permission); request.join(','); cb(request); // cb is called many times here. }); }); } I am trying to return the request string from ask_for_perms function. Can anyone suggest me on where to place a proper callback to ask_for_perms. Right now, however, it works for me, but the callback is being called many times since it is inside a for loop. referencing: returning a variable from the callback of a function

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  • Mysterious HttpSession and session-config dependency

    - by OneMoreVladimir
    Good day. I'm developing a Java web app with Servlets\JSP using Tomcat 7.0. During request from client I put and object into the session and use forward. After the forward processing the same request the object can be retreived if the secure parameter is false otherwise it is not stored in session. <session-config> <session-timeout>15</session-timeout> <cookie-config> <http-only>true</http-only> <secure>true</secure> </cookie-config> <tracking-mode>COOKIE</tracking-mode> </session-config> I've figured out that "...cookies can be created with the 'secure' flag, which ensures that the browser will never transmit the specified cookie over non-SSL...". I've configured Tomcat to use SSL, but that haven't helped. Changing the tracking mode to SSL haven't helped as well. How do session-config and HttpSession object correlate in this case? What could be the problem?

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  • Linq. Help me tune this!

    - by dtrick
    I have a linq query that is causing some timeout issues. Basically, I have a query that is returning the top 100 results from a table that has approximately 500,000 records. Here is the query: using (var dc = CreateContext()) { var accounts = string.IsNullOrEmpty(searchText) ? dc.Genealogy_Accounts .Where(a => a.Genealogy_AccountClass.Searchable) .OrderByDescending(a => a.ID) .Take(100) : dc.Genealogy_Accounts .Where(a => (a.Code.StartsWith(searchText) || a.Name.StartsWith(searchText)) && a.Genealogy_AccountClass.Searchable) .OrderBy(a => a.Code) .Take(100); return accounts.Select(a => } } Oddly enough it is the first linq query that is causing the timeout. I thought that by doing a 'Take' we wouldn't need to scan all 500k of records. However, that must be what is happening. I'm guessing that the join to find what is 'searchable' is causing the issue. I'm not able to denormalize the tables... so I'm wondering if there is a way to rewrite the linq query to get it to return quicker... or if I should just write this query as a Stored Procedure (and if so, what might it look like). Thanks.

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  • Embedded scripting engine in .Net app

    - by Nate
    I am looking to replace an old control being used for scripting an application. The control used to be called SAX Basic, but is now called WinWrap. It provides us with two primary functions. 1) It's a scripting engine (VB) 2) It has a GUI for developing and debugging scripts that get run in the hosting application. The first feature it provides is actually pretty easy to replace. There are so many great methods of running just about any kind of code at runtime that it's almost a non-issue. Just about any language targeting the .Net runtime will work for us. We've looked at running C#, PowerShell, VB.Net, IronPython, etc. I've also taken a brief look at Lua and F#, but honestly the language isn't the biggest barrier here. Now, for the hard part that seems to keep getting me stuck. We want a code editor, and debugger. Something simple, not unlike PowerShell's ISE would be fine. Just as long as a file could be created, saved, debugged and executed. I'm currently looking into Visual Studio 2010 Shell (Isolated) and I'm also looking at the feasibility of embedding PowerShell ISE in my application. Are there any other editor's I could embed/use in my application? Purchasing a product is not out of the question. It comes down to a combination of ease of use, how well it meets our needs, and how simple deployment and licensing is for developers. Thanks for the pointers

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  • Making alarm clock with NSTimer

    - by Alex G
    I just went through trying to make an alarm clock app with local notifications but that didn't do the trick because I needed an alert to appear instead of it going into notification centre in iOS 5+ So far I've been struggling greatly with nstimer and its functions so I was wondering if anyone could help out. I want when the user selects a time (through UIDatePicker, only time) for an alert to be displayed at exactly this time. I have figured out how to get the time from UIDatePicker but I do not know how to properly set the firing function of nstimer. This is what I have attempted so far, if anyone could help... be much appreciated. Thank you Example (it keeps going into the function every second opposed to a certain time I told it too... not what I want): NSDate *timestamp; NSDateComponents *comps = [[[NSDateComponents alloc] init] autorelease]; [comps setHour:2]; [comps setMinute:8]; timestamp = [[NSCalendar currentCalendar] dateFromComponents:comps]; NSTimer *f = [[NSTimer alloc] initWithFireDate:timestamp interval:0 target:self selector:@selector(test) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; NSRunLoop *runner = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; [runner addTimer:f forMode: NSDefaultRunLoopMode];

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  • Comparing objects and inheritance

    - by ereOn
    Hi, In my program I have the following class hierarchy: class Base // Base is an abstract class { }; class A : public Base { }; class B : public Base { }; I would like to do the following: foo(const Base& one, const Base& two) { if (one == two) { // Do something } else { // Do something else } } I have issues regarding the operator==() here. Of course comparing an instance A and an instance of B makes no sense but comparing two instances of Base should be possible. (You can't compare a Dog and a Cat however you can compare two Animals) I would like the following results: A == B = false A == A = true or false, depending on the effective value of the two instances B == B = true or false, depending on the effective value of the two instances My question is: is this a good design/idea ? Is this even possible ? What functions should I write/overload ? My apologies if the question is obviously stupid or easy, I have some serious fever right now and my thinking abilities are somewhat limited :/ Thank you.

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  • data ownership and performance

    - by Ami
    We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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  • Jquery animate negative top and back to 0 - starts messing up after 3rd click

    - by Daniel Takyi
    The site in question is this one: http://www.pickmixmagazine.com/wordpress/ When you click on one of the posts (any of the boxes) an iframe will slide down from the top with the content in it. Once the "Home" button in the top left hand corner of the iframe is clicked, the iframe slides back up. This works perfectly the first 2 times, on the 3rd click on of a post, the content will slide down, but when the home button is clicked, the content slides back up normally but once it has slid all the way up to the position it should be in, the iframe drops straight back down to where it was before the home button was clicked, I click it again and then it works. Here is the code I've used for both sliding up and sliding down functions: /* slide down function */ var $div = $('iframe.primary'); var height = $div.height(); var width = parseInt($div.width()); $div.css({ height : height }); $div.css('top', -($div.width())); $('.post').click(function () { $('iframe.primary').load(function(){ $div.animate({ top: 0 }, { duration: 1000 }); }) return false; }); /* slide Up function */ var elm = parent.document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var jelm = $(elm);//convert to jQuery Element var htmlElm = jelm[0];//convert to HTML Element $('.homebtn').click(function(){ $(elm).animate({ top: -height }, { duration: 1000 }); return false; })

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