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• Software and/(x)or Hardware Projects for Pre-School Kids

  - by haylem

  I offered to participate at my kid's pre-school for various activities (yes, I'm crazy like that), and one of them is to help them discover extra-curricular (big word for a pre-school, but by lack of a better one... :)) hobbies, which may or may not relate to a professional activity. At first I thought that it wouldn't be really easy to have pre-schoolers relate to programming or the internal workings of a computer system in general (and I'm more used to teaching middle-school to university-level students), but then I thought there must be a way. So I'm trying to figure out ways to introduce very young kids (3yo) to computer systems in a fun and preferably educational way. Of course, I don't expect them to start smashing the stack for fun and profit right away (or at least not voluntarily, though I could use the occasion for some toddler tests...), but I'm confident there must be ways to get them interested in both: using the systems, becoming curious about understanding what they do, interacting with the systems to modify them. I guess this setting is not really relevant after all, it's pretty much the same as if you were aiming to achieve the same for your own kids at home. Ideas Considering we're talking 3yo pre-schoolers here, and that at this age some kids are already quite confident using a mouse (some even a keyboard, if not for typing, at least to press some buttons they've come to associate with actions) while others have not yet had any interaction with computers of any kind, it needs to be: rather basic, demonstrated and played with in less then 5 or 10 minutes, doable in in groups or alone, scalable and extendable in complexity to accommodate their varying abilities. The obvious options are: basic smallish games to play with, interactive systems like LOGO, Kojo, Squeak and clones (possibly even simpler than that), or thngs like Lego Systems. I guess it can be a thing to reflect on both at the software and the hardware levels: it could be done with a desktop or laptop machine, a tablet, a smartphone (or a crap-phone, for that matter, as long as you can modify it), or even get down to building something from scratch (Raspberry Pi and Arduino being popular options at the moment). I can probably be in the form of games, funny visualizations (which are pretty much games) w/ Prototype, virtual worlds to explore. I also thought on the moment (and I hope this won't offend anyone) that some approaches to teaching pets could work (reward systems, haptic feedback and such things could quickly point a kid in the right direction to understanding how things work, in a similar fashion - I'm not suggesting to shock the kids!). Hmm, Is There an Actual Question in There? What type of systems do you think might be a good fit, both in terms of hardware and software? Do you have seen such systems, or have anything in mind to work on? Are you aware of some research in this domain, with tangible results? Any input is welcome. It's not that I don't see options: there are tons, but I have a harder time pinpointing a more concrete and definite type of project/activity, so I figure some have valuable ideas or existing ones. Note: I am not advocating that every kid should learn to program, be interested in computer systems, or that all of them in a class would even care enough to follow such an introduction with more than a blank stare. I don't buy into the "everybody would benefit from learning to program" thing. Wouldn't hurt, but not necessary in any way. But if I can walk out of there with a few of them having smiled using the thing (or heck, cried because others took them away from them), that'd be good enough. Related Questions I've seen and that seem to complement what I'm looking for, but not exactly for the same age groups or with the same goals: Teaching Programming to Kids Recommendations for teaching kids math concepts & skills for programming?

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• UIViewerTableViewController.m:15: error: expected identifier before '*' token

  - by Aaron Levin

  I am new to objective-c programming. I come from a C# background. I am having problems with the following code I am writing for a proof of concept for an iPhone App: I am getting a number of compile errors but I think they are all due to the first error (could be wrong) - error: expected identifier before '*' token (@synthesize *lists; in the .m file) I'm not sure why my code is showing up the way it is in the view below the editor..hmm any way, any help would be appreciated. .m file // // Created by Aaron Levin on 4/19/10. // Copyright 2010 RonStan. All rights reserved. // import "UIViewerTableViewController.h" @implementation UIViewerTableViewController @synthesize *lists; @synthesize *icon; (void)dealloc { [Lists release]; [super dealloc]; } pragma mark Table View Methods //Customize number of rows in table view (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *) tableView numberOfRowsInSection: (NSInteger) section{ return self.Lists.Count; } //Customize the appearence of table view cells (UITableViewCell *) tableView(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *) indexPath{ static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableView *Cell = [tablevView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if(cell == nil){ cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [[self.Lists objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] retain]; cell.imageView = self.Icon; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } @end .h file // // UIMyCardsTableViewController.h // MCS ProtoType v0.1 // // Created by Aaron Levin on 4/19/10. // Copyright 2010 RonStan. All rights reserved. // import @interface UIViewerTableViewController : UITableViewController { NSArray *lists; UIImage *icon; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSArray *lists; @property (nonatomic,retain) UIImage *icon; @end

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• Is there a perfect algorithm for chess?

  - by Overflown

  Dear Stack Overflow community, I was recently in a discussion with a non-coder person on the possibilities of chess computers. I'm not well versed in theory, but think I know enough. I argued that there could not exist a deterministic Turing machine that always won or stalemated at chess. I think that, even if you search the entire space of all combinations of player1/2 moves, the single move that the computer decides upon at each step is based on a heuristic. Being based on a heuristic, it does not necessarily beat ALL of the moves that the opponent could do. My friend thought, to the contrary, that a computer would always win or tie if it never made a "mistake" move (however do you define that?). However, being a programmer who has taken CS, I know that even your good choices - given a wise opponent - can force you to make "mistake" moves in the end. Even if you know everything, your next move is greedy in matching a heuristic. Most chess computers try to match a possible end game to the game in progress, which is essentially a dynamic programming traceback. Again, the endgame in question is avoidable though. -- thanks, Allan Edit: Hmm... looks like I ruffled some feathers here. That's good. Thinking about it again, it seems like there is no theoretical problem with solving a finite game like chess. I would argue that chess is a bit more complicated than checkers in that a win is not necessarily by numerical exhaustion of pieces, but by a mate. My original assertion is probably wrong, but then again I think I've pointed out something that is not yet satisfactorily proven (formally). I guess my thought experiment was that whenever a branch in the tree is taken, then the algorithm (or memorized paths) must find a path to a mate (without getting mated) for any possible branch on the opponent moves. After the discussion, I will buy that given more memory than we can possibly dream of, all these paths could be found.

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• Ruby Shoes packager including Shoes in the app

  - by user206481

  I can't seem to get the Ruby Shoes packager to correctly create an exe with Shoes included. I'm using the Raisins release (0.r1134), with the pack.rb replaced from github. The exe's the packager makes are all 70-80K files (they obviously don't include shoes or ruby). These exe's will run on my XP machine that already has Shoes on it. but when I copy them to another laptop they start a "Shoes is downloading" dialog that does nothing and then goes away. I need to make standalone Windows exe's, and my understanding was that the "Yes, I want Shoes included" option in the packager would do that. Did I misunderstand the intent? Is there a way to make this work? Hope so, because I love Shoes. As most women do. Hmm... maybe Shoes was _why's attempt at getting more women into programming as well as kids...but I digress. The other threads I've found here imply this will work: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1390721/problem-in-ruby-shoes-packaging http://stackoverflow.com/questions/363218/shoes-packager-problem

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• How to pass a random User/Pass (for Basic Authentication) with JMeter?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I'm using JMeter to stress test an API. I've got Basic Authentication set up - seems to be working great. Now, i'm trying to randomize the credentials that JMeter passes across the wire. So, there's two ways I know I can do this. Add a custom HTTP Header (via an HTTP Header Manager Element) and set then value to the random fields (ie. something I've read in from a csv file) Use the HTTP Authorization Manager Element and pass in the username and password there. Now, if I try and use method (1) above, I need to create the following header/data :- Authorization: Basic <some Base64 encoded string in the format username:password> eg. Authorization: Basic OnVzZXIxOnBhc3Mx Kewl. simple. BUT that header value is not getting passed across the wire :( I can add any other header type and it's passed across the wire.. hmm .. ok then .. lets try method (2). Now that works .. but I can only hardcode in the username & password. I can't see how I can pass in a username VARIABLE (ie. ${usernmae} ) or a password VARIABLE (ie. ${password} ).... If it's hardcoded, then the server correctly replies with the correct page/data. so .. can someone please help?

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• loading js files and other dependent js files asynchronously

  - by taber

  I'm looking for a clean way to asynchronously load the following types of javascript files: a "core" js file (hmm, let's just call it, oh i don't know, "jquery!" haha), x number of js files that are dependent on the "core" js file being loaded, and y number of other unrelated js files. I have a couple ideas of how to go about it, but not sure what the best way is. I'd like to avoid loading scripts in the document body. So for example, I want the following 4 javascript files to load asynchronously, appropriately named: /js/my-contact-page-js-functions.js // unrelated/independent script /js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js // the "core" script /js/jquery.color.min.js // dependent on jquery being loaded http://thirdparty.com/js/third-party-tracking-script.js // another unrelated/independent script But this won't work because it's not guaranteed that jQuery is loaded before the color plugin... (function() { a=[ '/js/my-contact-page-functions.js', '/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js', '/js/jquery.color.js', 'http://cdn.thirdparty.com/third-party-tracking-script.js', ], d=document, h=d.getElementsByTagName('head')[0], s, i, l=a.length; for(i=0;i<l;i++){ s=d.createElement('script'); s.type='text/javascript'; s.async=true; s.src=a[i]; h.appendChild(s); } })(); Is it pretty much not possible to load jquery and the color plugin asynchronously? (Since the color plugin requires that jQuery is loaded first.) The first method I was considering is to just combine the color plugin script with jQuery source into one file. Then another idea I had was loading the color plugin like so: $(window).ready(function() { $.getScript("/js/jquery.color.js"); }); Anyone have any thoughts on how you'd go about this? Thanks!

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• Debugging a release only flash problem

  - by Fire Lancer

  I've got an Adobe Flash 10 program that freezes in certain cases, however only when running under a release version of the flash player. With the debug version, the application works fine. What are the best approaches to debugging such issues? I considered installing the release player on my computer and trying to set some kind of non-graphical method of output up (I guess there's some way to write a log file or similar?), however I see no way to have both the release and debug versions installed anyway :( . EDIT: Ok I managed to replace my version of flash player with the release version, and no freeze...so what I know so far is: Flash: Debug Release Vista 32: works works XP PRO 32: works* freeze I gave them the debug players I had to test this Hmm, seeming less and less like an error in my code and more like a bug in the player (10.0.45.2 in all cases)... At the very least id like to see the callstack at the point it freezes. Is there some way to do that without requiring them to install various bits and pieces, e.g. by letting flash write out a log.txt or something with a "trace" like function I can insert in the code in question? EDIT2: I just gave the swf to another person with XP 32bit, same results :(

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• pylons on production server fedora 8

  - by stormdrain

  I'm interested in learning some python, and thought Pylons would be a good starting point (after spending 2 days trying to get django working -- to no avail). I have an Amazon EC2 instance with Fedora 8 on it. It is a bare-bones install. I am halfway through my second day of trying to get it to work. I have mod_wsgi installed. I have Apache (though that's a later task to tackle). I have easy_install, paster is working fine; basically all of the pre-requisites mentioned throughout the Pylons docs. I can't for the life of me get the thing to work. And I can't seem to find a coherent walkthough anywhere that lists all the steps necessary. There is tons of info out there, but it is all scattered. Wsgi this, python that. Google, google, google... "47 million results found for 'socket.error:(lol, 'Yous a goofs')". So, this is my latest attempt: apachectl -k stop cd /home/ paster create -t pylons test [blah blah.. ok] cd test nano development.ini [hmm, last time I changed the host from 127.0.0.1 to my domain name or url, it threw an error like socket.error: (99, 'Cannot assign requested address')... I'll just leave it] [open port 5000 on firewall] paster serve development.ini [firefox-url:5000] Firefox can't establish a connection to the server Doing these steps locally works as expected. This is just a test to see if I can get it to work at all, which I can't. If I get it to work, then is the task of getting it to work with apache. My madness is that I'd like to play around a little developing and deploying before diving into a full-fledged project. So far: self, I am dissapoint.

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• (C#) Get index of current foreach iteration

  - by Graphain

  Hi, Is there some rare language construct I haven't encountered (like the few I've learned recently, some on Stack Overflow) in C# to get a value representing the current iteration of a foreach loop? For instance, I currently do something like this depending on the circumstances: int i=0; foreach (Object o in collection) { ... i++; } Answers: @bryansh: I am setting the class of an element in a view page based on the position in the list. I guess I could add a method that gets the CSSClass for the Objects I am iterating through but that almost feels like a violation of the interface of that class. @Brad Wilson: I really like that - I've often thought about something like that when using the ternary operator but never really given it enough thought. As a bit of food for thought it would be nice if you could do something similar to somehow add (generically to all IEnumerable objects) a handle on the enumerator to increment the value that an extension method returns i.e. inject a method into the IEnumerable interface that returns an iterationindex. Of course this would be blatant hacks and witchcraft... Cool though... @crucible: Awesome I totally forgot to check the LINQ methods. Hmm appears to be a terrible library implementation though. I don't see why people are downvoting you though. You'd expect the method to either use some sort of HashTable of indices or even another SQL call, not an O(N) iteration... (@Jonathan Holland yes you are right, expecting SQL was wrong) @Joseph Daigle: The difficulty is that I assume the foreach casting/retrieval is optimised more than my own code would be. @Jonathan Holland: Ah, cheers for explaining how it works and ha at firing someone for using it.

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• NMock2.0 - how to stub a non interface call?

  - by dferraro

  Hello, I have a class API which has full code coverage and uses DI to mock out all the logic in the main class function (Job.Run) which does all the work. I found a bug in production where we werent doing some validation on one of the data input fields. So, I added a stub function called ValidateFoo()... Wrote a unit test against this function to Expect a JobFailedException, ran the test - it failed obviously because that function was empty. I added the validation logic, and now the test passes. Great, now we know the validation works. Problem is - how do I write the test to make sure that ValidateFoo() is actually called inside Job.Run()? ValidateFoo() is a private method of the Job class - so it's not an interface... Is there anyway to do this with NMock2.0? I know TypeMock supports fakes of non interface types. But changing mock libs right now is not an option. At this point if NMock can't support it, I will simply just add the ValidateFoo() call to the Run() method and test things manually - which obviously I'd prefer not to do considering my Job.Run() method has 100% coverage right now. Any Advice? Thanks very much it is appreciated. EDIT: the other option I have in mind is to just create an integration test for my Job.Run functionality (injecting to it true implementations of the composite objects instead of mocks). I will give it a bad input value for that field and then validate that the job failed. This works and covers my test - but it's not really a unit test but instead an integration test that tests one unit of functionality.... hmm.. EDIT2: IS there any way to do tihs? Anyone have ideas? Maybe TypeMock - or a better design?

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• VB.NET, templates, reflection, inheritance, feeling adrift

  - by brovar

  I've just made myself up a problem and am now wondering how to solve it. To begin with, I'm using some third-party components, including some calendar controls like schedule and timeline. They're used in the project classes more or less like that: Friend Class TimeBasedDataView 'some members End Class Friend Class ScheduleDataView Inherits TimeBasedDataView Public Schedule As Controls.Schedule.Schedule 'and others End Class Friend Class TimeLineDataView Inherits TimeBasedDataView Public TimeLine As Controls.TimeLine.TimeLine 'and others End Class (Hmm, code coloring fail, never mind...) Now, to allow managing the look of data being presented there are some mechanisms including so called Style Managers. A lot of code in them repeats, varying almost only with the control it maintains: Friend Class TimeLineStyleManager Private m_TimeLine As TimeLineDataView Private Sub Whatever() m_TimeLine.TimeLine.SomeProperty = SomeValue End Sub End Class Friend Class ScheduleStyleManager Private m_Schedule As ScheduleDataView Private Sub Whatever() m_Schedule.Schedule.SomeProperty = SomeValue End Sub End Class I was wondering if I could create some base class for those managers, like Friend Class TimeBasedCtrlStyleManagerBase(Of T As TimeBasedDataView) Private m_Control As T 'and others End Class which would unify these two, but I've got lost when it came to maintaining two components that have nothing in common (except their properties' names, etc.). Type reflection maybe? I'll be grateful for any advice ;)

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• Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice?

  - by 55skidoo

  What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

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• How to elegantly handle ReturnUrl when using UrlRewrite in ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms

  - by Brian Kim

  I have a folder with multiple .aspx pages that I want to restrict access to. I have added web.config to that folder with <deny users="?"/>. The problem is that ReturnUrl is auto-generated with physical path to the .aspx file while I'm using UrlRewrite. Is there a way to manipulate ReturnUrl without doing manual authentication check and redirection? Is there a way to set ReturnUrl from code-behind or from web.config? EDIT: The application is using ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms. I cannot use 3.5 routing. EDIT 2: It seems like 401 status code is never captured. It returns 302 for protected page and redirects to login page with ReturnUrl. It does not return 401 for protected page. Hmm... Interesting... Ref: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa480476.aspx This makes things harder... I might have to write reverse rewrite mapping rules to regex match ReturnUrl and replace it if it doesn't return 401... If it does return 401 I can either set RawUrl to Response.RedirectLocation or replace ReturnUrl with RawUrl. Anyone else have any other ideas?

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• Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice? (wordpress/bbpress maybe_serialize)

  - by 55skidoo

  What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

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• Form Validation using Javascript inside PHP

  - by Mikey1980

  I have a simple problem but no matter what I try I can't see to get it to work. I have a form on a php page and I need to validate the qty value on my form so that it doesn't exceed $qty (value pulled from mySQL) and is not less than zero. Sounds easy--hmm wish it were..lol! I had it checking if the value was numeric and in my attempts to make this work I even broke that--not a good morning..lol! Here's a snip of my Java Fn: <script type='text/javascript'> function checkQty(elem){ var numericExpression = /^[0-9]+$/; if(elem.value.match(numericExpression)){ return true; }else{ alert("Quantity for RMA must be greater than zero and less than original order!"); elem.focus(); return false; } } </script> The function is called from the submit button, onClick: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="checkQty(document.getElementById('qty')";"> I've tried: var numericExpression = /^[0-9]+$/; if(elem.value.match(numericExpression) || elem.value < 0 || elem.value > <? int($qty) ?>){ No dice....HELP!?!

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• Can someone help me with this StructureMap error i'm getting?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I'm trying to wire up a simple ASP.NET MVC2 controller class to my own LoggingService. Code compiles fine, but I get the following runtime error :- {"StructureMap Exception Code: 202 No Default Instance defined for PluginFamily System.Type, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"} what the? mscorlib ???? Here's some sample code of my wiring up .. protected void Application_Start() { MvcHandler.DisableMvcResponseHeader = true; BootstrapStructureMap(); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory( new StructureMapControllerFactory()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } private static void BootstrapStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => x.For<ILoggingService>().Use<Log4NetLoggingService>()); } and finally the controller, simplified for this question ... public class SearchController : Controller { private readonly ILoggingService _log { get; set; } public SearchController(ILoggingService loggingService) : base(loggingService) { // Error checking removed for brevity. _log = loggingService; _log.Tag = "SearchController"; } ... } and the structuremap factory (main method), also way simplified for this question... protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { IController result = null; if (controllerType != null) { try { result = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(controllerType) as Controller; } catch (Exception exception) { if (exception is StructureMapException) { Debug.WriteLine(ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave()); } } } } hmm. I just don't get it. StructureMap version 2.6.1.0 ASP.NET MVC 2. Any ideas?

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• Java mail attachment not working on Tomcat

  - by losintikfos

  Hello guys, I have an application which e-mails confirmations. The email part utilises Commons Mail API. The simple code which does the send mail is as shown below; import org.apache.commons.mail.*; ... // Create the attachment EmailAttachment attachment = new EmailAttachment(); attachment.setURL(new URL("http://cashew.org/doc.pdf")); attachment.setDisposition(EmailAttachment.ATTACHMENT); attachment.setDescription("Testing attach"); attachment.setName("doc.pdf"); // Create the email message MultiPartEmail email = new MultiPartEmail(); email.setHostName("mail.cashew.com"); email.addTo("[email protected]"); email.setFrom("[email protected]"); email.setSubject("Testing); email.setMsg("testing message"); // add the attachment email.attach(attachment); // send the email email.send(); My problem is, when I execute this application from Eclipse, I get email sent with attachment without any issues. But when i deploy the application to Tomcat server (I have tried both version 5 & 6 no joy), the e-mail is sent with below content; ------=_Part_0_25002283.1275298567928 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=us-ascii Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit testing Regards, los ------=_Part_0_25002283.1275298567928 Content-Type: application/pdf; name="doc.pdf" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="doc.pdf" Content-Description: Testing attach JVBERi0xLjQNJeLjz9MNCjYzIDAgb2JqDTw8L0xpbmVhcml6ZWQgMS9MIDMxMzE4Mi9PIDY1L0Ug Mjg2NjY5L04gMS9UIDMxMTgwMi9IIFsgMjgzNiAzNzZdPj4NZW5kb2JqDSAgICAgICAgICAgICAg DQp4cmVmDQo2MyAxMjcNCjAwMDAwMDAwMTYgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAwMzM4MCAwMDAwMCBuDQow MDAwMDAzNTIzIDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMDQzMDcgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAwNTEwOSAwMDAwMCBu DQowMDAwMDA2Mjc5IDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMDY0MTAgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAwNjU0NiAwMDAw MCBuDQowMDAwMDA3OTY3IDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMDkwMjMgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAwOTk0OSAw MDAwMCBuDQowMDAwMDExMDAwIDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMTIwNTkgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAxMjky MCAwMDAwMCBuDQowMDAwMDEyOTU0IDAwMDAwIG4NCjAwMDAwMTI5ODIgMDAwMDAgbg0KMDAwMDAx ....... CnN0YXJ0eHJlZg0KMTE2DQolJUVPRg0K ------=_Part_0_25002283.1275298567928-- One thing also I have noticed is, the header information donot show TO and Subject values. Hmm pretty wierd. I have to point out that, above is not generated of DEBUG, it is the actual message recieved in my outlook client. Can someone help me please! Do anyone knows what's going on?

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• Eclipse+PyDev+GAE memcache error

  - by bocco

  I've started using Eclipe+PyDev as an environment for developing my first app for Google App Engine. Eclipse is configured according to this tutorial. Everything was working until I start to use memcache. PyDev reports the errors and I don't know how to fix it: Error: Undefined variable from import: get How to fix this? Sure, it is only PyDev checker problem. Code is correct and run on GAE. UPDATE: I'm using PyDev 1.5.0 but experienced the same with 1.4.8. My PYTHONPATH includes (set in Project Properties/PyDev - PYTHONPATH): C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\django C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\webob C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\lib\yaml\lib UPDATE 2: I took a look at C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\api\memcache\__init__.py and found get() is not declared as memcache module function. They use the following trick to do that (I didn't hear about such possibility): _CLIENT = None def setup_client(client_obj): """Sets the Client object instance to use for all module-level methods. Use this method if you want to have customer persistent_id() or persistent_load() functions associated with your client. Args: client_obj: Instance of the memcache.Client object. """ global _CLIENT var_dict = globals() _CLIENT = client_obj var_dict['set_servers'] = _CLIENT.set_servers var_dict['disconnect_all'] = _CLIENT.disconnect_all var_dict['forget_dead_hosts'] = _CLIENT.forget_dead_hosts var_dict['debuglog'] = _CLIENT.debuglog var_dict['get'] = _CLIENT.get var_dict['get_multi'] = _CLIENT.get_multi var_dict['set'] = _CLIENT.set var_dict['set_multi'] = _CLIENT.set_multi var_dict['add'] = _CLIENT.add var_dict['add_multi'] = _CLIENT.add_multi var_dict['replace'] = _CLIENT.replace var_dict['replace_multi'] = _CLIENT.replace_multi var_dict['delete'] = _CLIENT.delete var_dict['delete_multi'] = _CLIENT.delete_multi var_dict['incr'] = _CLIENT.incr var_dict['decr'] = _CLIENT.decr var_dict['flush_all'] = _CLIENT.flush_all var_dict['get_stats'] = _CLIENT.get_stats setup_client(Client()) Hmm... Any idea how to force PyDev to recognize that?

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• Troubleshooting failover cluster problem in W2K8 / SQL05

  - by paulland

  I have an active/passive W2K8 (64) cluster pair, running SQL05 Standard. Shared storage is on a HP EVA SAN (FC). I recently expanded the filesystem on the active node for a database, adding a drive designation. The shared storage drives are designated as F:, I:, J:, L: and X:, with SQL filesystems on the first 4 and X: used for a backup destination. Last night, as part of a validation process (the passive node had been offline for maintenance), I moved the SQL instance to the other cluster node. The database in question immediately moved to Suspect status. Review of the system logs showed that the database would not load because the file "K:\SQLDATA\whatever.ndf" could not be found. (Note that we do not have a K: drive designation.) A review of the J: storage drive showed zero contents -- nothing -- this is where "whatever.ndf" should have been. Hmm, I thought. Problem with the server. I'll just move SQL back to the other server and figure out what's wrong.. Still no database. Suspect. Uh-oh. "Whatever.ndf" had gone into the bit bucket. I finally decided to just restore from the backup (which had been taken immediately before the validation test), so nothing was lost but a few hours of sleep. The question: (1) Why did the passive node think the whatever.ndf files were supposed to go to drive "K:", when this drive didn't exist as a resource on the active node? (2) How can I get the cluster nodes "re-syncd" so that failover can be accomplished? I don't know that there wasn't a "K:" drive as a cluster resource at some time in the past, but I do know that this drive did not exist on the original cluster at the time of resource move.

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• Form Validation using Java inside PHP

  - by Mikey1980

  I have a simple problem but no matter what I try I can't see to get it to work. I have a form on a php page and I need to validate the qty value on my form so that it doesn't exceed $qty (value pulled from mySQL) and is not less than zero. Sounds easy--hmm wish it were..lol! I had it checking if the value was numeric and in my attempts to make this work I even broke that--not a good morning..lol! Here's a snip of my Java Fn: <script type='text/javascript'> function checkQty(elem){ var numericExpression = /^[0-9]+$/; if(elem.value.match(numericExpression)){ return true; }else{ alert("Quantity for RMA must be greater than zero and less than original order!"); elem.focus(); return false; } } </script> The function is called from the submit button, onClick: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="checkQty(document.getElementById('qty')";"> I've tried: var numericExpression = /^[0-9]+$/; if(elem.value.match(numericExpression) || elem.value < 0 || elem.value > <? int($qty) ?>){ No dice....HELP!?!

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• PHP Post Count in Forum

  - by Chris

  I'm currently desiging a forum application, I considered using a premade but decided against it as it's useful for me to learn some of the techniques. So I've written a fairly full featured forum... great. One of the problems I want to solve is to include user data for each post, at the minute the post table includes the poster ID (obviously) and I added the poster's username at a later date so I didn't have to query the User DB for X number of posts in a thread. However, it's become apparent I now want to do this, usernames don't need to update retrospectively, however avatars, sigs, and especially post counts need to update actively, so data in some form needs keeping up to date somewhere... What would be a good way of implementing this? I obviously don't want to include any more user data on the Posts DB table than necessary, but I'm struggling to find an easy way to do this short of querying the DB for each post in a thread, which is potentially going to create a lot of traffic. How have other people solved this, I've been examining the code on some other open source apps but I can't find what I'm looking for. Is it possible to select multiple records in one query? In which case I could build an array dynamically on each page request (eg 'SQL blah blah' then a for each loop to insert the ID's). Could I join the tables each time? Do I submit a query for each post? Hmm.

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• iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

  - by StuartW

  My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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• C#: Is it possible to use expressions or functions as keys in a dictionary?

  - by Svish

  Would it work to use Expression<Func<T>> or Func<T> as keys in a dictionary? For example to cache the result of heavy calculations. For example, changing my very basic cache from a different question of mine a bit: public static class Cache<T> { // Alternatively using Expression<Func<T>> instead private static Dictionary<Func<T>, T> cache; static Cache() { cache = new Dictionary<Func<T>, T>(); } public static T GetResult(Func<T> f) { if (cache.ContainsKey(f)) return cache[f]; return cache[f] = f(); } } Would this even work? Edit: After a quick test, it seems like it actually works. But I discovered that it could probably be more generic, since it would now be one cache per return type... not sure how to change it so that wouldn't happen though... hmm Edit 2: Noo, wait... it actually doesn't. Well, for regular methods it does. But not for lambdas. They get various random method names even if they look the same. Oh well c",)

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• Replacing accented/umlauted characters with their unadorned counterparts in C# [closed]

  - by Andrew Rollings

  Duplicate of 249087 I have a bunch of user generated addresses that may contain characters with diacritic marks. What is the most effective (i.e. generic) way (apart from a straightforward replace) to automatically convert any such characters to their closest English equivalent? E.g. any of àâãäå would become a æ would become the two separate letters ae ç would become c any of èéêë would become e etc. for all possible letter variations (preferably without having to find and encode lookups for each diacritic form of the letter). (Note: I have to pass these addresses on to third party software that is incapable of printing anything other than English characters. I'd rather the software was capable of handling them, but I have no control over that.) EDIT: Never mind... Found the answer [here][2]. It showed up in the "Related" section to the right of the question after I posted, but not in my prior search or as a pre-post suggestion. Hmm. I added the 'diacritics' tag to the other question in any case. EDIT 2: Jeez! Who voted this -1 after I closed it?

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• C#/.NET library for source code formatting, like the one used by Stack Overflow?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I am writing a command line tool to convert Markdown text to html output, which seems easy enough. However, I am wondering how to get nice syntax coloring for embedded code blocks, like the one used by Stack Overflow. Does anyone know either: What library StackOverflow is using or if there's a library out there that I can easily reuse? Basically it would need to have some of the same "intelligence" found in the one that Stack Overflow uses, by basically doing a best-attempt at figuring out the language in use to pick the right keywords. Basically, what I want is for my own program to handle a block like the following: if (a == 0) return true; if (a == 1) return false; // fall-back Markdown Sharp, the library I'm using, by default outputs the above as a simple pre/code html block, with no syntax coloring. I'd like the same type of handling as the formatting on Stack Overflow does, the above contains blue "return" keywords for example. Or, hmm, after checking the source of this Stack Overflow page after adding the code example, I notice that it too is formatted like a simple pre/code block. Is it pure javascript-magic at works here, so perhaps there's no such library? If there's no library that will automagically determine a possible language by the keywords used, is there one that would work if I explicitly told it the language? Since this is "my" markdown-commandline-tool, I can easily add syntax if I need to.

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