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  • Err Web Service?

    - by j-t-s
    Hi All I am trying to implement a feature. But I've never had anything to do with "Web Services" before, other than using them. I have a desktop application, and I want that application to be able to sort of "post" some information (i.e. email address, username, user-selected options (just plain text) etc) to an application or "web service" on my ASP.NET web server. Can somebody please guide me in the right direction? How would I accomplish this? Thank you :) Jason

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  • Passenger, Apache and avoiding page caching

    - by Michael Guterl
    I'm hosting a rack application with passenger and apache. The application is setup to cache the content of each request to the public directory after each request. This allows apache to serve the content directly as a static page for future requests. I would like to tell Apache, presumably through some rewrite rules that any requests with query parameters should not be cached, but instead passed down to the rack application. With a mongrel setup I would just redirect it to the balancer if it meets my rewrite conditions. How do you do the same with passenger?

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  • How do you override operator == when using interfaces instead of actual types?

    - by RickL
    I have some code like this: How should I implement the operator == so that it will be called when the variables are of interface IMyClass? public class MyClass : IMyClass { public static bool operator ==(MyClass a, MyClass b) { if (ReferenceEquals(a, b)) return true; if ((Object)a == null || (Object)b == null) return false; return false; } public static bool operator !=(MyClass a, MyClass b) { return !(a == b); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IMyClass m1 = new MyClass(); IMyClass m2 = new MyClass(); MyClass m3 = new MyClass(); MyClass m4 = new MyClass(); Console.WriteLine(m1 == m2); // does not go into custom == function. why not? Console.WriteLine(m3 == m4); // DOES go into custom == function } }

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  • Cached Jquery selector behavior that I do not understand

    - by gaoshan88
    Given the following code why am I getting different values for a and b? I would have thought they would return the same thing: (function() { var a = $('#foo'); var Test = function(){ console.log(a); //outputs 'jQuery()' var b = $('#foo'); console.log(b); //outputs 'jQuery(select#foo)' which is what I want }; })(); This question stems from me trying to stick frequently used selectors into vars. Originally I was doing it in each method (like I did with var b in the above example) but then I found I needed to use the selectors in multiple methods so I moved the assignment out to be available (or so I thought) to all of the methods in that anonymous function. As you can see, it does not work. Why is this?

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  • .NET 4.0 Debugging Behavior

    - by Jason
    We recently migrated to VS 2010. We installed .NET 4.0 on our test machine. When we execute a console application that throws an exception, we no longer see the exception message and stack trace printed to the console but instead see the message An unhandled win32 exception occurred in something.exe [PID]. Just-In-Time debugging this exception failed with the following error: No installed debugger has Just-In-Time debugging enabled. In Visual Studio, Just-In-Time debugging can be enabled from Tools/Options/Debugging/Just-In-Time. We do have the above setting enabled. What do we need to do to return to the behavior we had previously?

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  • how to turn off percentage sign in .net/wpf?

    - by Vitalik
    I would like my WPF application to display all percentages without % sign. For example 20% would be displayed as "20" but i still want to use the standard formatting for percentages (so i get the benefit of string formatter to multiply it by 100 for me) in other words, how do i get string.Format("0.00%", 0.2) to output "20" but not "20%"? Is it possible to globally define PercentSymbol as empty string for the entire application? In particular i am using ContentStringFormat in my WPF application to format the numbers and percentages. Maybe i can do it directly in WPF.

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  • How to create a fully qualified hyperlink to a resource dynamically?

    - by Slauma
    In ASP.NET I'd like to create a link which points to a specific Uri and send this link in an email to a user, for instance something like http://www.BlaBla.com/CustomerPortal/Order/9876. I can create the second part of the Uri /CustomerPortal/Order/9876 dynamically in code-behind. My question is: How can I create the base Uri http://www.BlaBla.com without hardcoding it in my application? Basically I want to have something like: http://localhost:1234/CustomerPortal/Order/9876 (on my development machine) http://testserver/CustomerPortal/Order/9876 (on an internal test server) http://www.BlaBla.com/CustomerPortal/Order/9876 (on the production server) So is there a way to ask the server where the application is running: "Please tell me the base Uri of the application" ? Or any other way? Thank you in advance!

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  • Rewriting .each() loop as for loop to optimize, how to replicate $(this).attr()

    - by John B
    I running into some performance issues with a jquery script i wrote when running in ie so I'm going through it trying to optimize any way possible. Apparently using for loops is way faster than using the jQuery .each method. This has led me to a question regarding the equivalent of $(this) inside a for loop. I'm simplifying what I'm doing in my loop down to just using an attr() function as it gets across my main underlying question. Im doing this with each(simplified) var existing = $('#existing'); existing.each(function(){ console.log($(this).attr('id')); }); And I've tried rewriting it as a for loop as such: var existing = $('#existing'); for(var i = 0;i < existing.length;i++) { console.log(existing[i].attr('id')); } Its throwing an error saying: Uncaught TypeError: Object #<HTMLDivElement> has no method 'attr' Thanks.

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  • UINavigation controller problem

    - by VansFannel
    Hello. I'm developing an iPhone application and I'm trying to do this: I want an application with tree views. The view shown first, doesn't have a navigation bar. If the user tap on a button, I need to open the second view with a navigation bar and a table view. The user can also add new items to the table view. If the user do so, the application will show the third view where the user can add fields (this view has also a navigation bar). It may seem simple, but for me it is not. I don't know how to use the UINavigationController and have not found yet a similar example for what I do (paragraph translated by google). UPDATE I don't know how where to put UINavigationController. How can I do that? Can I use a UIViewController to call a UINavigationController? Thank you.

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  • How to retrieve the real height of a #div (including overflowed parts)

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    The same way i use this to detect when user scolled down the whole page: $(window).scroll(function(){ var diff = $(window).scrollTop() + $(window).height() - $(document).height(); if ($(window).scrollTop() == $(document).height() - $(window).height() || (diff < 5 && diff > -5)){ console.log('yay!'); } }); I wanted to do the same inside a dialog, I am trying like this: $('#dialog').dialog(); $('#dialog').scroll(function(){ var scroll = $('#dialog').scrollTop(); var height = $('#dialog ul').outerHeight(true); if(scroll == height){ $('#dialog').css('background','#999'); }else{ console.log('scrolltop is '+scroll+' and height is: '+height); } }) DEMO: http://jsfiddle.net/AgFXz/ The problem i guess is that i am not retrieving the whole #dialog size but the visible (CSS Defined property) size.. How can i know when user scrolled till the end of the dialog's scroll? Thanks!!

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  • Using WCF to expose underlying process

    - by Steven
    I have a server application that spins up and monitors about 8 separate processes that gather data from different systems. The server app then runs some calculations over the aggregated data and stores it in a db. Simple stuff. I now have a requirement to modify the process so that it no longer saves data to the db but rather exposes it directly to clients via WCF. That's cool, I've used WCF a fair bit but I'm struggling a little with it for some reason. Basically my plan is to HOST the WCF service in my application and have calls redirect into the internals of my existing application but I can figure out how to do that without getting the WCF class to encapsulate the existing app. I want the service to inside my current app, not become it. Any suggestions?

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  • Share Link - Perform action in background

    - by Justin
    I have an application that will accept URLs from the built in web browser via the "Share page" menu item. I'm using the send intent and it works just fine. However, I'd like to accept a URL and process it in the background without bringing my application to the front. I don't want the user to have to actually leave the web browser. It will notify the user it has finished processing the URL with a Toast message. I'm just not sure what type of activity should be used for this. A good example of this behavior is the "Read Later" instapaper application in the android market. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to sort the row contents on table cell by using date

    - by MS Nathan
    Hi i am new to iphone application development.i am developing RSS feed Reader it has number of different RSS feeds. In my application (XML parsing), i want to display the content of the row on cell for particular date and with their corresponding title, description (in my application, i am using three labels for displaying title, date and description) on table view cell after parsing xml data. And i want to sort the all kinds of RSS feeds row contents(title, date, description) depends upon the date in single another UIViewController and for each RSS feed has a separate ViewController. thanks in advance.

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  • Comments on this assumption about running on dev server vs a real instance in app engine (python)?

    - by Jacob Oscarson
    Hello app engineers! I'm on an app engine project where I'd like to put in a link to a Javascript test runner that I'd like to only exist when running the development server. I've made some experiments on a local shell with configuration loaded using the technique found in NoseGAE versus live on the 'App Engine Console' [1] and it looks to me like a distinction btw real instance and dev server is the presence of the module google.appengine.tools. Which lead me to this utility function: def is_dev(): """ Tells us if we're running under the development server or not. :return: ``True`` if the code is running under the development server. """ try: from google.appengine import tools return True except ImportError: return False The question (finally!) would be: is this a bad idea? And in that case, can anyone suggest a better approach? [1] http://con.appspot.com/console/ (try it! very handy indeed)

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  • C++: Get char after space character instead or return carriage.

    - by Kzone272
    Okay this is similar to my last question but what I ended up doing was way too complex for something as simple as this. I simply need to get a single character or number (I will know which of these I am receiving) from the console after I press space, instead of pressing enter. I'm sure there must be a way to have the terminal read input after a space instead of a '\n'. I need to read inputs from the console in which the succeeding data types will vary depending on what the first input is, and I think reading the entire line, parsing it into strings, then parsing some of those into ints is a bit unnecessary. So Is this actually not possible in C++ or have I just not found it yet?

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  • Zipping only files using powershell

    - by SteB
    I'm trying to zip all the files in a single directory to a different folder as part of a simple backup routine. The code runs ok but doesn't produce a zip file: $srcdir = "H:\Backup" $filename = "test.zip" $destpath = "K:\" $zip_file = (new-object -com shell.application).namespace($destpath + "\"+ $filename) $destination = (new-object -com shell.application).namespace($destpath) $files = Get-ChildItem -Path $srcdir foreach ($file in $files) { $file.FullName; if ($file.Attributes -cne "Directory") { $destination.CopyHere($file, 0x14); } } Any ideas where I'm going wrong?

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  • assignment not working in a dll exported C++ class

    - by Jim Jones
    Using VS 2008 Have a C++ class in which I'm calling functions from a 3rd party dll. The definition in the header file is as follows: namespace OITImageExport { class ImageExport { private: SCCERR seResult; /* Error code returned. */ VTHDOC hDoc; /* Input doc handle returned by DAOpenDocument(). */ VTHEXPORT hExport; /* Handle to the export returned by EXOpenExport(). */ VTDWORD dwFIFlags; /* Used in setting the SCCOPT_FIFLAGS option. */ VTCHAR szError[256]; /* Error string buffer. */ VTDWORD dwOutputId; /* Output Format. */ VTDWORD dwSpecType; public: ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType); void ProcessDocument(const char* inputPath, const char* outputPath); ~ImageExport(); }; } In the constructor I initialize two of the class fields having values which come from enumerations in the 3rd party dll: ImageExport::ImageExport(const char* outputId, const char* specType) { if(outputId == "jpeg") { dwOutputId = FI_JPEGFIF; } if(specType == "ansi") { dwSpecType = IOTYPE_ANSIPATH; } seResult = DAInit(); if (seResult != SCCERR_OK) { DAGetErrorString(seResult, szError, sizeof(szError)); fprintf(stderr, "DAInit() failed: %s (0x%04X)\n", szError, seResult); exit(seResult); } } When I use this class inside of a console app, with a main method in another file (all in the same namespace), instantiating the class object and calling the methods, it works like a champ. So, now that I know the basic code works, I open a dll project using the class header and code file. Course I have to add the dll macro, namely: #ifdef IMAGEDLL_EXPORTS #define DLL __declspec(dllexport) #else #define DLL __declspec(dllimport) #endif and changed the class definition to "class DLL ImageExport". Compiled nicely to a dll and .lib file (No errors, No warnings). Now to test this dll I open another console project using the same main method as before and linking to the (dll) lib file. Had problems, which when tracked down were the result of the two fields not being set; both had values of 0. Went back to the first console app and printed out the values: dwOutputId was 1535 (#define FI_JPEGFIF 1535) and dwSpecType was 2 (#define IOTYPE_ANSIPATH 2). Now if I was assigning these values outside of the class, I can see how the visibility could be different, but why is the assignment in the dll not working? Is it something about having a class in the dll?

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  • Why are there performance differences when a SQL function is called from .Net app vs when the same c

    - by Dan Snell
    We are having a problem in our test and dev environments with a function that runs quite slowly at times when called from an .Net Application. When we call this function directly from management studio it works fine. Here are the differences when they are profiled: From the Application: CPU: 906 Reads: 61853 Writes: 0 Duration: 926 From SSMS: CPU: 15 Reads: 11243 Writes: 0 Duration: 31 Now we have determined that when we recompile the function the performance returns to what we are expecting and the performance profile when run from the application matches that of what we get when we run it from SSMS. It will start slowing down again at what appear to random intervals. We have not seen this in prod but they may be in part because everything is recompiled there on a weekly basis. So what might cause this sort of behavior?

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  • How to handle User Authentication for program in client’s local machine?

    - by Daniel
    Which user authentication scheme could be used at following scenario? 1.Application A developed by my company is installed at user's local computer. 2.Users login at my company's website. 3.If login is successful, access to the application A in user's local machine is granted. The development environment is .NET. Is there a secure way to authenticate the user to access the application? I've thought about encrypting the login information entered at the website, and then sending that information to the program at user's local machine for authentication. but I think as long as the client program has the decrypting ability, it is vulnerabe to decompiling,etc. Thanks in advance!

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  • Can I prevent a user from using windows task manager to end a process?

    - by Russ
    I have a c# 4.0 application that I hear grumblings and rumors about problems with. Now, this application has a global unhandled exception handler that reports back to me with errors. I also know that it works because SOME people fill it in, and submit it. It seems though; that a large number of people do NOT fill it in, but instead, use the Windows Taskmanager to end the process. Is it possible to prevent a user from using the Windows Taskmanager to end a specific process? My goal would be that if the application crashes, the form that the user is presented with prevents the process from being ended. I'll also accept steps that would prevent the Windows Taskmanager from being launched. I know I have seen some processes come up with an "Access Denied" prompt when I try to kill it in TaskManager, however I suspect that the windows team has made this very difficult, if not impossible to achieve.

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  • I'm trying to implement 2 factor authentication on the cheap. How would I do that?

    - by Biff MaGriff
    Ok so I need 2 of the 3. Something the user knows. Something the user has. Something the user is. I have a system that is exposed to the internet and we need clients to connect in a secure manner to satisfy our security standards. I'm thinking when a user registers to use our system we send them an application that they install on their home system. The application generates a key based on a timed randomness algorithm. Our application server has the same algorithm so when the user submits their credentials with the key we know that they are a legitimate user. Is this a valid method of 2 factor authentication? What is another way of doing this? Are there any pitfalls that I should be aware of? Thanks for your help!

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  • Can a regex return a match that's not a part of the original string?

    - by Vishnu
    I'm using an application that requires me to provide a regex for various files. It uses the matches from the regex to uniquely identify each file and then use a data store to retrieve metadata about these files. there is however a problem with the application, so it assumes that the data which is used to identify each file is only numeric data. Hence, it stores the results of matches in integers. I control the data store but not the names of the files. Since the application has a bug in it, I was hoping that I could use an encoding scheme to convert the non-numeric data to an integer. But for that I'd require the regex to return something that's not part of the original string as a match. Is this possible?

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  • Extending fluent nhibernate mappings in another assembly

    - by Jarek
    Hi, I'm using NHibernate with my ASP.Net MVC application. I'm writing some extensions (plugins) for my application. And I'm loading those plugin dynamically (from different assemblies). In my base application I have many entities and mappings defined (User, Group, etc...) I need to create new entities in my extensions, so i.e. I'm creating News module, so I need to create News mapping. In database News table has a foreign key to User table. Is there any way I can modify my User mapping, so it will have: HasMany(x => x.Courses) .KeyColumn("GroupId") .Inverse(); Or the only way to do it is to change code in my User class and recompile project ? I'm not NHibernate advanced user, so any help will be appreciated. TIA.

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  • Using Linq to SQL change events with attribute-based mapping

    - by R Mene
    I'm writing a new ASP.NET MVC2 application using Linq to SQL. This application depends on an existing SQL database. I am using attribute-based mapping to map my database fields to my Linq to SQL entities. I also need to make use of Linq to SQL's On[Property]Changed methods so I can perform change-auditing of database tables within my application. Whereas the documentation explains how to do this when using Linq to SQL's ORM and dbml files (i.e. by writing partial classes), it is not clear how to do with when using attribute-based mapping or when using XML-based mapping. It would be very helpful if someone could describe how to do this.

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  • Virtualization of Legacy API and co-existence with more modern API?

    - by Pharaun
    I don't mean for this question to be a flame bait but I'll be using Microsoft and their win32 API as a example of a legacy API. Now what I am wondering here is Microsoft is spending a lots of their money and energy in maintaining their legacy API, including all of the "glitches/bugs/workaround" that are needed to keep the API functioning the same. Now I'm aware that in Windows 7 they are providing a way for the customer to run their application in a "Windows XP" VM which would be one such way for them to start cleaning up their win32 API because they could then push all of the application into the "Windows XP" VM. So now what I am wondering is, is it possible to virtualization a legacy API in such way that an customer/program can still access and use it, yet at the same time be able to take advantage of the newer version/API? Because as far as I understand it, if the application is ran in the "Windows XP" VM, it won't be able to access any of the newer API/feature of Windows 7.

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