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  • Doing large updates against indexed view

    - by user217136
    We have an indexed view that runs across three large tables. Two of these tables (A & B) are constantly getting updated with user transactions and the other table (C) contains data product info that is needs to be updated once a week. This product table contains over 6 million records. We need this view across these three tables for our core business process and unfortunately we cannot change this aspect. We even had a sql server MVP come in to help test under load to make sure we have the most efficient configuration. There is one column in the product table that gets utilized in the view and has to be updated each week. The problem we are now encountering is that as volume is increasing on our transactions against tables A & B, the update to Table C is causing deadlocks. I have tried several different methods to no avail: 1) I was hoping that we could change the view so that table C could be a dirty read "WITH (NOLOCK)" but apparently that functionality is not available with indexes views. 2) I thought about updating a new column in Table C and then just renaming it when the process is done but you cannot do that due to the dependency in the view. 3) I also entertained the idea of writing this value to a temporary product table, and then running an ALTER statement against the view to have it point to my new table. however when i did that the indexes on my view were dropped and it took quite a bit of time to recreate them. 4) we tried to do the weekly update in small chunks (as small as 100 records at a time) but we still run into dead locks. questions: a) we are using sql server 2005. Does sql server 2008 have a new functionality with their indexed views that would help us? Is there now a way to do dirty reads w/ an indexed view? b) a better approach to altering an existing view to point to a new table? thanks!

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  • Two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and don't provide straight forward answers. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • NSString to NSURL objects

    - by user337844
    Hello, I have an array that I populated with my plist file, which looks something like this: <array> <string>http://www.apple.com</string> <string>http://www.google.com</string> <string>http://www.amazon.com</string> </array> So, I'm looking to convert these NSString objects to NSURL objects when I call them in my didSelectRowAtIndexPath method. Any ideas? This is what I have right now: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSInteger row = [indexPath row]; if (self.viewController == nil) { TemplateViewController *details = [[TemplateViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"TemplateViewController" bundle:nil]; self.viewController = details; [details release]; } NSString *tempURLString = [tieroneurlArray objectAtIndex:row]; NSURL *loadingUrl = [NSURL URLWithString:tempURLString]; [tieroneurlArray addObject:loadingUrl]; viewController.title = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", [tieroneArray objectAtIndex:row]]; [self.viewController setTableURL:[tieroneurlArray objectAtIndex:row]]; TemplateAppAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [delegate.templateNavController pushViewController:viewController animated:YES]; } And this is how I load the array with the plist: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"tier1Names" ofType:@"plist"]; tieroneArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:path]; NSString *tableURL = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"tier1URL" ofType:@"plist"]; tieroneurlArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:tableURL]; }

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  • How reliable is DateTime.UtcNow in Silverlight applications?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a silverlight application which users will be running in various time zones. These applications load their data from the server upon start up, then cache it in IsolatedStorage. When I make changes to the data on the server, I want to be able to change the "last updated time" so that all silverlight clients download the newest data the next time they check this date. However, I'm a bit confused as to how to handle the time zone issue since a if the server is in New York and the update time is set to 2010-01-01 17:00:00 and a client in Seattle checks compares it to its local time of 2010-01-01 14:00:00 it won't update and will continue to provide old data for three more hours. My solution is to always post the update time in UTC time, not with the time on the server, then make the Silverlight app check with DateTime.UtcNow. Is this as easy as it sounds or are their issues with this, e.g. that timezones are not set correctly on computers and hence the SilverlightApp does not report the correct UTC time. Can anyone say from experience how likely it is that using DateTime.UtcNow like this for cache refreshing will work in all cases? If DateTime.UtcNow is not reliable, I will just use an incremented "DataVersion" integer but there are other scenarios in which getting time zone sychronization down would make it useful to thoroughly understand how to solve this in silverlight apps.

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  • Should I move big data blobs in JSON or in separate binary connection?

    - by Amagrammer
    QUESTION: Is it better to send large data blobs in JSON for simplicity, or send them as binary data over a separate connection? If the former, can you offer tips on how to optimize the JSON to minimize size? If the latter, is it worth it to logically connect the JSON data to the binary data using an identifier that appears in both, e.g., as "data" : "< unique identifier " in the JSON and with the first bytes of the data blob being < unique identifier ? CONTEXT: My iPhone application needs to receive JSON data over the 3G network. This means that I need to think seriously about efficiency of data transfer, as well as the load on the CPU. Most of the data transfers will be relatively small packets of text data for which JSON is a natural format and for which there is no point in worrying much about efficiency. However, some of the most critical transfers will be big blobs of binary data -- definitely at least 100 kilobytes of data, and possibly closer to 1 megabyte as customers accumulate a longer history with the product. (Note: I will be caching what I can on the iPhone itself, but the data still has to be transferred at least once.) It is NOT streaming data. I will probably use a third-party JSON SDK -- the one I am using during development is here. Thanks

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  • Delphi - Populate an imagelist with icons at runtime 'destroys' transparency

    - by ben
    Hi again, I've spended hours for this (simple) one and don't find a solution :/ I'm using D7 and the TImageList. The ImageList is assigned to a toolbar. When I populate the ImageList at designtime, the icons (with partial transparency) are looking fine. But I need to populate it at runtime, and when I do this the icons are looking pretty shitty - complete loose of the partial transparency. I just tried to load the icons from a .res file - with the same result. I've tried third party image lists also without success. I have no clue what I could do :/ Thanks 2 all ;) edit: To be honest I dont know exactly whats going on. Alpha blending is the correkt term... Here are 2 screenies: Icon added at designtime: Icon added at runtime: Your comment that alpha blending is not supported just brought the solution: I've edited the image in an editor and removed the "alpha blended" pixels - and now it looks fine. But its still strange that the icons look other when added at runtime instead of designtime. If you (or somebody else ;) can explain it, I would be happy ;) thanks for you support!

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  • onLoad focus() event within jquerytools overlay effect

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I'm using the overlay jquery from here: http://flowplayer.org/tools/overlay/index.html Within my overlay I have a search box like this: <div class="simple_overlay" id="asearch"> <div id="searchbox"> <form id="amazonsearch" style='float:left;'> <input class="title" id="amazon-terms" style="width:400px;font-size:2em;"> <button class="sexybutton sexysimple sexygreen">Search</button> </form> <div id="amazon-results"></div> </div><!--seachbox--> </div><!--Overlay--> What I want to happen is when you load the overlay the search box within the overlay gains focus so you can start typing into it. I thought that this would work: $("a[rel]").overlay({ onLoad: function() { $('#amazon-terms').focus(); } }); But that doesn't seem to do anything. I know the event is firing because this works: $("a[rel]").overlay({ onLoad: function() { alert('popup opened') } }); However, when this alert fires the overlay has not yet appeared on the screen so I wonder if that is part of the problem? According to the docs onLoad should fire "when the overlay has completely been displayed" (ref) Any help appreciated! :) Thanks Tom EDIT This code does what I want it to but I'm none the wiser as to why this works when the code above doesn't.... var triggers = $("a[rel]").overlay({ closeOnClick: false, onLoad: function() { $('input').focus(); } });

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  • Asp net aspx page and webcontrol issue

    - by Josemalive
    Hello, I have a class that inherits from Page, called APage. public abstract class APage: Page { protected Repeater ExampleRepeater; .... protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { if (null != ExampleRepeater) { ExampleRepeater.DataSource = GetData(); ExampleRepeater.DataBind(); } base.OnLoad(e); } } For other hand i have an aspx page called Default that inherits from this APage: public partial class Default : APage { } on the design part of this Default page, i have a repeater: <asp:Repeater ID="ExampleRepeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Name") %><br/> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> This repeater is datasourced at the base APage load event, but at this level this web control is null. Do you have any idea why the control is null in the base page? Thanks in advance. Best Regards. Jose.

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  • Qt Jambi: Accessing the content of QNetworkReply

    - by Richard
    Hi All, I'm having trouble accessing the content of QNetworkReply objects. Content appears to be empty or zero. According to the docs (translating from c++ to java) I think I've got this set up correctly, but to no avail. Additionally an "Unknown error" is being reported. Any ideas much appreciated. Code: public class Test extends QObject { private QWebPage page; public Test() { page = new QWebPage(); QNetworkAccessManager nac = new QNetworkAccessManager(); nac.finished.connect(this, "requestFinished(QNetworkReply)"); page.setNetworkAccessManager(nac); page.loadProgress.connect(this, "loadProgress(int)"); page.loadFinished.connect(this, "loadFinished()"); } public void requestFinished(QNetworkReply reply) { reply.reset(); reply.open(OpenModeFlag.ReadOnly); reply.readyRead.connect(this, "ready()"); // never gets called System.out.println("bytes: " + reply.url().toString()); // writes out asset uri no problem System.out.println("bytes: " + reply.bytesToWrite()); // 0 System.out.println("At end: " + reply.atEnd()); // true System.out.println("Error: " + reply.errorString()); // "Unknown error" } public void loadProgress(int progress) { System.out.println("Loaded " + progress + "%"); } public void loadFinished() { System.out.println("Done"); } public void ready() { System.out.println("Ready"); } public void open(String url) { page.mainFrame().load(new QUrl(url)); } public static void main(String[] args) { QApplication.initialize(new String[] { }); Test t = new Test(); t.open("http://news.bbc.co.uk"); QApplication.exec(); } }

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  • Need a design pattern for representing multiple information sources

    - by hsmit
    I'm building a Java application that retrieves information from differing information sources. I'm using a sensor, a set of RecordStores and a few online web services. In the basic application all these resources are loaded by default. Some of these sources are directly read in a separate thread (load database, read sensor etc.). From this basic application some functions are started that use these sources. The classes that contain these functions (usually combining multiple sources information) are currently paramterized with a set of resources like this: AppPart a1 = new AppPart(source1, source2, source3); I could also do it like this AppPart a1 = new AppPart(this); ..where I need to make my sources public in order to read them. I'm also thinking about a kind of stage/collection to publish all sources on, e.g: public SourceCollectionStage sStage = new SourceCollectionStage(); and later: sStage.getSensor(); .. for example. What do you guys think is the best or most often used way to do this? Btw: the user interface is often implemented by the specific funtion classes, not by the main class. Should I do this in another way?

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  • What's the best way to develop a debugging window for an ajax ASP.Net MVC application

    - by KallDrexx
    While developing my ASP.NET MVC, I have started to see the need for a debugging console window to assist in figuring out what is going right and wrong in my code. I read the last few chapters of the Pro Asp.net MVC book, and the author details how to use http modules to show page load/creation times and linq to sql query logs, both of which I definitely want to be able to see. However, since I am loading a lot of small sections of my page individually with ajax I don't want the debug information right there in the middle of my screen. So the idea I came up with was to have a separate browser window (open-able by a link or some javascript) with a console log, that can contain logged entries both from javascript and from the asp.net mvc run. The former should be relatively easy, but I'm having trouble coming up with a way to log the asp.net information in ajax requests. The direction I have been thinking of going is to create an httpmodule (like the Pro MVC book does), and have that module contain some that append the javascript's log to console calls with the messages. The issue I see with this is finding a way to get the log messages from the controller's action methods to the httpmodule's methods. The only way I see to do this is with a singleton, but I'm not sure if singletons are bad practice for a stateless web application. Furthermore, it seems like if I return json with my ajax calls (instead of pure html) then that won't work at all anyways and unless there is a way to add data to an existing json structure inside the httpmodule. How does everyone else handle this type of debugging in heavily ajax applications? For reference, the javascript library I am using is jquery.

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  • android: tesseract force close

    - by Vishnu Mohan G
    I tried the tesseract tutorial here and get the following error: 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at o.c.r.LetsTryOCrActivity.onCreate(LetsTryOCrActivity.java:28) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at android.app.Instrumentation.callActivityOnCreate(Instrumentation.java:1047) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:1722) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:1784) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$1500(ActivityThread.java:123) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:939) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:130) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:3835) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:507) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:847) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:605) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): Caused by: java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: Couldn't load lept: findLibrary returned null 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at java.lang.Runtime.loadLibrary(Runtime.java:429) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at java.lang.System.loadLibrary(System.java:554) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): at com.googlecode.tesseract.android.TessBaseAPI.(TessBaseAPI.java:42) 06-03 01:18:52.626: E/AndroidRuntime(15103): ... 14 more Please help me solve this. thanks in Advance!.

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  • ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

    - by ArjanW
    Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

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  • PHP: Array of objects is empty when I come to retrieve one from the array

    - by Tom
    Good morning, I am trying to load rows from a database and then create objects from them and add these objects to a private array. Here are my classes: <?php include("databaseconnect.php"); class stationItem { private $code = ''; private $description = ''; public function setCode($code ){ $this->code = $code; } public function getCode(){ return $this->code; } public function setDescription($description){ $this->description = $description; } public function getDescription(){ return $this->description; } } class stationList { private $stationListing; function __construct() { connect(); $stationListing = array(); $result = mysql_query('SELECT * FROM stations'); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $station = new stationItem(); $station->setCode($row['code']); $station->setDescription($row['description']); array_push($stationListing, $station); } mysql_free_result($result); } public function getStation($index){ return $stationListing[$index]; } } ?> As you can see I am creating a stationItem object per database row (which for now has a code and description) and I then push these on to the end of my array which is held as a private variable in stationList. This is code which creates this classes and attempts to access the properties on them: $stations = new stationList(); $station = $stations->getStation(0); echo $station->getCode(); I am finding that the sizeof($stationList) at the end of the constructor is 1 but then it is zero when we come to try to get an object from the array using the index. Therefore the error that I get is: Fatal error: Call to a member function getCode() on a non-object Please can someone explain to me why this is happening? I guess I am misunderstanding how object references work in PHP5.

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  • Backbone Model fetched from Lithium controller is not loaded properly in bb Model

    - by Nilesh Kale
    I'm using backbone.js and Lithium. I'm fetching a model from the server by passing in a _id that is received as a hidden parameter on the page. The database MongoDB has stored the data correctly and can be viewed from console as: { "_id" : ObjectId("50bb82694fbe3de417000001"), "holiday_name" : "SHREE15", "description": "", "star_rating" : "3", "holiday_type" : "family", "rooms" : "1", "adults" : "2", "child" :"0", "emails" : "" } The Lithium Model class is so: class Holidays extends \lithium\data\Model { public $validates = array( 'holiday_name' => array( array( 'notEmpty', 'required' => true, 'message' => 'Please key-in a holiday name! (eg. Family trip for summer holidays)' ))); } The backbone Holiday model is so: window.app.IHoliday = Backbone.Model.extend({ urlRoot: HOLIDAY_URL, idAttribute: "_id", id: "_id", // Default attributes for the holiday. defaults: { }, // Ensure that each todo created has `title`. initialize: function(props) { }, The code for backbone/fetch is: var Holiday = new window.app.IHoliday({ _id: holiday_id }); Holiday.fetch( { success: function(){ alert('Holiday fetched:' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('HOLIDAY Fetched: \n' + JSON.stringify(Holiday)); console.log('Holiday name:' + Holiday.get('holiday_name')); } } ); Lithium Controller Code is: public function load($holiday_id) { $Holiday = Holidays::find($holiday_id); return compact('Holiday'); } PROBLEM: The output of the backbone model fetched from server is as below and the Holiday model is not correctly 'formed' when data returns into backbone Model: HOLIDAY Fetched: {"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","Holiday":{"_id":"50bb82694fbe3de417000001","holiday_name":"SHREE15","description":"","star_rating":"3","holiday_type":"family","rooms":"1","adults":"2","child":"0","emails":""}} iplann...view.js (line 68) Holiday name:undefined Clearly there is some issue when the data is passed/translated from Lithium and loaded up as a model into backbone Holiday model. Is there something very obviously wrong in my code?

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  • "Decompile" Javascript function? *ADVANCED*

    - by caesar2k
    [1] Ok, I don't even know how to call this, to be honest. So let me get some semi-pseudo code, to show what I'm trying to do. I'm using jquery to get an already existing script declared inside the page, inside a createDocument() element, from an AJAX call. GM_xmlhttprequest({ ... load:function(r){ var doc = document_from_string(r.responseText); script_content = $('body script:regex(html, local_xw_sig)', doc).html(); var scriptEl = document.createElement('script'); scriptEl.type = 'text/javascript'; scriptEl.innerHTML = script_content; // good till here (function(sc){ eval(sc.innerHTML); // not exactly like this, but you get the idea, errors alert('wont get here ' + local_xw_sig); // local_xw_sig is a global "var" inside the source })(scriptEl); } }); so far so good, the script indeed contains the source from the entire script block. Now, inside this "script_content", there are auto executing functions, like $(document).ready(function(){...}) that, everything I "eval" the innerHTML, it executes this code, halting my encapsulated script. like variables that doesn't exist, etc removing certain parts of the script using regex isn't really an option... what I really wanted is to "walk" inside the function. like do a (completely fictional): script = eval("function(){" + script_content + "};"); alert(script['local_xw_sig']); // a03ucc34095cw3495 is there any way to 'disassemble' the function, and be able to reach the "var"s inside of it? like this function: function hello(){ var message = "hello"; } alert(hello.message); // message = var inside the function is it possible at all? or I will have to hack my way using regex? ;P [2] also, is there any way I can access javascript inside a document created with "createDocument"?

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  • Java Applet not caching

    - by John Fogerty
    Hello world, I'm having a problem with a Java applet I've deployed that is refusing to be cached in the jvm's "sticky" cache (or by the browser). For some reason every time a user loads the page this applet is on, the jvm re-downloads the jar file from the server which causes a long delay. The webpage containing the applet is being accessed via the internet, so according to Sun's Java applet documentation I'm using an <applet> tag rather than an <object> or <embed> tag. Any help debugging or identifying the problem would be much appreciated. Below is the full applet tag I'm using: <applet alt="Scanning Applet failed to load" archive="scanning.jar" code="scanning.scanlet.class" codebase="/java/" codetype="application/java" height="30" mayscript="True" name="scanlet" width="200"> <param name="domain" value="192.168.12.23" /> <param name="publishName" value="scan_attachment" /> <param name="publishURL" value="http://192.168.12.23/draft/update/52" /> <param name="curURL" value="http://192.168.12.23/draft/edit/52" /> Your browser is unable to process the Java &lt;APPLET&gt; tag needed to display this applet <br /> One solution would be to download a better web browser like <a href="http://www.mozilla.com/firefox">Mozilla's Firefox</a> </applet>

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  • Loading and binding a serialized view model to a WPF window?

    - by generalt
    Hello all. I'm writing a one-window UI for a simple ETL tool. The UI consists of the window, the code behind for the window, a view model for the window, and the business logic. I wanted to provide functionality to the users to save the state of the UI because the content of about 10-12 text boxes will be reused between sessions, but are specific to the user. I figured I could serialize the view model, which contains all the data from the textboxes, and this works fine, but I'm having trouble loading the information in the serialized XML file back into the text boxes. Constructor of window: public ETLWindow() { InitializeComponent(); _viewModel = new ViewModel(); this.DataContext = _viewModel; _viewModel.State = Constants.STATE_IDLE; Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(MainWindow_Loaded); } XAML: <TextBox x:Name="targetDirectory" IsReadOnly="true" Text="{Binding TargetDatabaseDirectory, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}"/> ViewModel corresponding property: private string _targetDatabaseDirectory; [XmlElement()] public string TargetDatabaseDirectory { get { return _targetDatabaseDirectory; } set { _targetDatabaseDirectory = value; OnPropertyChanged(DataUtilities.General.Utilities.GetPropertyName(() => new ViewModel().TargetDatabaseDirectory)); } Load event in code behind: private void loadState_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string statePath = this.getFilePath(); _viewModel = ViewModel.LoadModel(statePath); } As you can guess, the LoadModel method deserializes the serialized file on the user's drive. I couldn't find much on the web regarding this issue. I know this probably has something to do with my bindings. Is there some way to refresh on the bindings on the XAML after I deserialize the view model? Or perhaps refresh all properties on the view model? Or am I completely insane thinking any of this could be done? Thanks.

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  • Modify Executing Jar file

    - by pinkynobrain
    Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

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  • How do I cancel the link action?

    - by Tobbe
    I though returning false would be enough to cancel the link action, but apparently it isn't. When I click the link in the code below I do get the 'click' message, which is expected. But I also end up at google.com, which is unexpected. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>Link test</title> <script> window.addEventListener('load', function () { document.getElementsByTagName('a')[0].addEventListener('click', function () { alert('click'); return false; }, false); }, false); </script> </head> <body> <a href="http://www.google.com">google</a> </body> </html> How can I make the url NOT change when clicking the link? Pure JavaScript solutions only please, no additional libraries (like jQuery). It only has to work in FireFox 3+ and Chrome.

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  • Cannot read values from [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] after synchronize

    - by Nonlinearsound
    In the Application Delegate didFinishLaunching method, I am using the following code to build up a new NSDictionary to be used as the new settings bundle for the user: NSNumber *testValue = (NSNumber*)[[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"settingsversion"]; if (testValue == nil) { NSNumber *numNewDB = [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO]; NSNumber *numFirstUse = [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES]; NSDate *dateLastStatic = [NSDate date]; NSDate *dateLastMobile = [NSDate date]; NSNumber *numSettingsversion = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:1.0]; NSDictionary *appDefaults = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: numNewDB, @"newdb", numFirstUse, @"firstuse", numSettingsversion, @"settingsversion", dateLastStatic, @"laststaticupdate", dateLastMobile, @"lastmobileupdate", nil]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] registerDefaults:appDefaults]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] synchronize]; } Later in another ViewController I am trying to read back a value from that same Dictionary, saved as the NSUserDefaults - well at least I thought it would, but I don't get any valid object pointer for the desired member lastUpdate back there: in .h file: NSDate *lastUpdate; in the .m file in a member function: lastUpdate = (NSDate *)[[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"laststaticupdate"]; Even, if I print out the content of [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] I only get this: 2010-04-29 15:13:22.322 myApp[4136:207] Content of UserDefaults: <NSUserDefaults: 0x11d340> This leads me to the conclusion that there is no standardUserDefaults dictionary somewhere in memory or it cannot be determined as such a structure. Edit: Every time, I restart the app ión the device, the check for testValue is Nil and I am building up the dictionary again but after one run it should be persistent on the Phone, right? Am I doing something wrong somewhere in between? I have the feeling that I yet didn't really understand how to load and save settings persistent for a certain application on the iPhone. Is there anything I have to do additionally to this? Integrating a settings.bundle in XCode or saving the dictionary manually to the Documents folder? Can someone help me out here? Thanks a lot!

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  • Rails 2.3 session

    - by Sam Kong
    Hi, I am developing a rails 2.3.2 app. I need to keep session_id for an order record, retrieve it and finally delete the session_id when the order is completed. It worked when I used cookies as session store but it doesn't for active_record store. (I restarted my browser, so no cache issue.) I know rails 2.3 implements lazy session load. I read some info about it but am still confused. Can somebody clarify how I use session_id for such a case? What I am doing is... A user make an order going through several pages. There is no sign-up, neither login. So I keep session_id in the order record so that no other user can access the order. @order = Order.last :conditions = {:id = params[:id], :session_id = session[:session_id] } When the order is finished, I set nil to session_id column. How would you implement such a case in lazy session(and active_record store) environment? Thanks. Sam

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  • NHibernate.MappingException - Troubles Shooting Checklist (no persister for)

    - by Berryl
    Here's a starter list: 1) if hbm is hand generated, is it an embedded resource? 2) if using FNH, does it pass a PerssistenceSpecification test? 3) if not using FNH, can you save and then load the persisted class? 4) more? I'm sure many of you have gotten this one at one point or another. But have you ever gotten it when you knew your mapping was set up correctly? I started getting this exception after I started using a new repository design, but only in one scenario! PersistenceSpecification tests pass, as do all repository methods (using SQLite). The scenario that leads to the exception is when legacy projects from a different db are converted to green field system. The legacy system is from a different database and has it's own session factory, which should be irrelevant because the error comes after previously unconverted Projects are retrieved and in memory. As the routine tries to save these unconverted Projects into the new database, the exception is thrown, full stack trace below. Any ideas on how to build up the trouble shooting check list and solves this problem? Cheers, Berryl === the Exception trace ===== failed: NHibernate.MappingException : No persister for: Smack.ConstructionAdmin.Domain.Model.Projects.Project at NHibernate.Impl.SessionFactoryImpl.GetEntityPersister(String entityName) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.GetEntityPersister(String entityName, Object obj) at NHibernate.Engine.ForeignKeys.IsTransient(String entityName, Object entity, Nullable`1 assumed, ISessionImplementor session) at NHibernate.Event.Default.AbstractSaveEventListener.GetEntityState(Object entity, String entityName, EntityEntry entry, ISessionImplementor source) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.PerformSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Event.Default.DefaultSaveOrUpdateEventListener.OnSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.FireSaveOrUpdate(SaveOrUpdateEvent event) at NHibernate.Impl.SessionImpl.SaveOrUpdate(Object obj) NHibernate\Repository\FabioNHibRepository.cs(46,0): at Smack.Core.Data.NHibernate.Repository.FabioNHibRepository`1.Add(T item) LegacyConversion\LegacyBatchUpdater.cs(20,0): at Smack.ConstructionAdmin.Data.LegacyConversion.LegacyBatchUpdater.ConvertOpenLegacyProjects(ILegacyProjectDao legacyProjectDao, IProjectRepository greenProjectRepository) Data\Brownfield\ProjectBatchUpdate_SQLiteTests.cs(19,0): at Smack.ConstructionAdmin.Tests.Data.Brownfield.ProjectBatchUpdate_SQLiteTests.Test()

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  • Execute SQL on CSV files via JDBC

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Dear all, I need to apply an SQL query to CSV files (comma-separated text files). My SQL is predefined from another tool, and is not eligible to change. It may contain embedded selects and table aliases in the FROM part. For my task I have found two open-source (this is a project requirement) libraries that provide JDBC drivers: CsvJdbc XlSQL JBoss Teiid Create an Apache Derby DB, load all CSVs as tables and execute the query. These are the problems I encountered: it does not accept the syntax of the SQL (it uses internal selects and table aliases). Furthermore, it has not been maintained since 2004. I could not get it to work, as it has as dependency a SAX Parser that causes exception when parsing other documents. Similarly, no change since 2004. Have not checked if it supports the syntax, but seems like an overhead. It needs several entities defines (Virtual Databases, Bindings). From the mailing list they told me that last release supports runtime creation of required objects. Has anyone used it for such simple task (normally it can connect to several types of data, like CSV, XML or other DBS and create a virtual, unified one)? Can this even be done easily? From the 4 things I considered/tried, only 3 and 4 seem to me viable. Any advice on these, or any other way in which I can query my CSV files? Cheers

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  • Automation Error when exporting Excel data to SQL Server

    - by brohjoe
    I'm getting an Automation error upon running VBA code in Excel 2007. I'm attempting to connect to a remote SQL Server DB and load data to from Excel to SQL Server. The error I get is, "Run-time error '-2147217843(80040e4d)': Automation error". I checked out the MSDN site and it suggested that this may be due to a bug associated with the sqloledb provider and one way to mitigate this is to use ODBC. Well I changed the connection string to reflect ODBC provider and associated parameters and I'm still getting the same error. Here is the code with ODBC as the provider: Dim cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim stSQL As String Dim wbBook As Workbook Dim wsSheet As Worksheet Dim rnStart As Range Public Sub loadData() 'This was set up using Microsoft ActiveX Data Components version 6.0. 'Create ADODB connection object, open connection and construct the connection string object. Set cnt = New ADODB.Connection cnt.ConnectionString = "Driver={SQL Server}; Server=onlineSQLServer2010.foo.com; Database=fooDB;Uid=logonalready;Pwd='helpmeOB1';" cnt.Open On Error GoTo ErrorHandler 'Open Excel and run query to export data to SQL Server. strSQL = "SELECT * INTO SalesOrders FROM OPENDATASOURCE('Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0'," & _ "'Data Source=C:\Database.xlsx; Extended Properties=Excel 12.0')...[SalesOrders$]" cnt.Execute (strSQL) 'Error handling. ErrorExit: 'Reclaim memory from the connection objects Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing Exit Sub ErrorHandler: MsgBox Err.Description, vbCritical Resume ErrorExit 'clean up and reclaim memory resources. If CBool(cnt.State And adStateOpen) Then Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing cnt.Close End If End Sub

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