Search Results

Search found 32789 results on 1312 pages for 'object relational mapping'.

Page 602/1312 | < Previous Page | 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609  | Next Page >

  • How to I reference a pointer from a different class

    - by Justagruvn
    Hey team of awesomeness!, (Iphone Objective-C question) First off, I despise singletons with a passion. Though I should probably be trying to use one, I just dont want to. I want to create a data class (that is instantiated only once by a view controller on loading), and then using a different class, message the crap out of that data instance until it is brimming with so much data, it smiles. So, how do i do that? I made a pointer to the instance of the data class when I instantiated it. I'm now over in a separate view controller, action occurs, and I want to update the initial data object. I think I need to reference that object by way of pointer, but I have no idea how to do that. yes I've set properties and getters and setters, which seem to work, but only in the initial view controller class. Peace Love applesauce.

    Read the article

  • htaccess: how to prevent infinite subdirectories?

    - by Vincent Isles
    My .htaccess at the root directory contains this: Options -MultiViews +FollowSymlinks -Indexes ErrorDocument 404 /404.htm RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / followed by a bunch of RewriteRules. The .htaccess at the /forum subdirectory contains this: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /forum RewriteRule ^index.html$ index.php [L,NE] RewriteRule ^(.*)-t-([0-9]+).html(.*)$ showthread.php?tid=$2$3 [QSA,L] RewriteRule ^(.*)-t-([0-9]+)-([0-9]+).html$ showthread.php?tid=$2&page=$3 [QSA,L] followed by other rules mapping SEO-friendly URLs to the true URLs. mydomain.com/forum/a-thread-t-1.html returns the page showthread.php?tid=1 but so does mydomain.com/forum/forum/a-thread-t-1.html, mydomain.com/forum/forum/forum/a-thread-t-1.html and so on. I don't want this behavior - I want pages accessed as /forum/forum/* to return a 404. Any hint on where I had been wrong?

    Read the article

  • Find Group size in active directory

    - by Ilya Biryukov
    Hey I have the following code. I get a directory entry for a user (strpath). And then I get the groups where the user is listed. How can I get the number of users in each group? DirectoryEntry myDE = new System.DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry(strpath); object obGroups = myDE.Invoke("Groups"); foreach (object ob in (IEnumerable)obGroups) { DirectoryEntry obGpEntry = new DirectoryEntry(ob); GroupsListBox.Items.Add(obGpEntry.Name ); }

    Read the article

  • Ajax response is taking time to populate.

    - by Rachel
    I am having an util class which is not owned by me. I am calling one of the method of that util class which inturn calls one ajax function. And gives me response back. I need to make a decision depending on the response object. The problem is that response object takes some time to populate(mili seconds). var selector = dojo.byId("SelectorId"); var theChart = new chart( selector, 135, 92, style, frequency, time); if(theChart.data ===null){ console.log("No response"); }else{ Console.log("Use response data"); } and chart( selector, 135, 92, style, frequency, time); is not owned by me. chart() is from util class. above snippet works fine with break point. But when I remove the breakpoint it starts going in "if" block always. Hows can I solve this issue.

    Read the article

  • How to use anonymous types with Netflix OData API

    - by obautista
    If I create this collection: IEnumerable<_TITLE> _titles = null; How can I set the result set from Netflix in this expression: _titles = from t in Titles where t.Id == "ApUFq" select new {t, t.Cast} I am getting: Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Linq.IQueryable' to 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<_Title'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) I understand it's because I am using an anonymous type. _TITLE is a custom complex object I create that exposes a subset of Netflix properties. If I add "_TITLE" in front the of the "new" it says that my object does not implement IENUMBERABLE. If then _TITLE implements IENUMBERABLE, it says _TITLE does not contain a definition for ADD and still getting conversion error. Basically, I want to set the _TITLE properties with the data returned from Netflix. I have defined _TITLE to contain the fields I need, plus a collection of PERSON (for Cast).

    Read the article

  • Get Python 2.7's 'json' to not throw an exception when it encounters random byte strings

    - by Chris Dutrow
    Trying to encode a a dict object into json using Python 2.7's json (ie: import json). The object has some byte strings in it that are "pickled" data using cPickle, so for json's purposes, they are basically random byte strings. I was using django.utils's simplejson and this worked fine. But I recently switched to Python 2.7 on google app engine and they don't seem to have simplejson available anymore. Now that I am using json, it throws an exception when it encounters bytes that aren't part of UTF-8. The error that I'm getting is: UnicodeDecodeError: 'utf8' codec can't decode byte 0x80 in position 0: invalid start byte It would be nice if it printed out a string of the character codes like the debugging might do, ie: \u0002]q\u0000U\u001201. But I really don't much care how it handles this data just as long as it doesn't throw an exception and continues serializing the information that it does recognize. How can I make this happen? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I map repeating columns in NHibernate without creating duplicate properties

    - by Ian Oakes
    Given a database that has numerous repeating columns used for auditing and versioning, what is the best way to model it using NHibernate, without having to repeat each of the columns in each of the classes in the domain model? Every table in the database repeats these same nine columns, the names and types are identical and I don't want to replicate it in the domain model. I have read the docs and I saw the section on inheritance mapping but I couldn't see how to make it work in this scenario. This seems like a common scenario because nearly every database I've work on has had the four common audit columns (CreatedBy, CreateDate, UpdatedBy, UpdateDate) in nearly every table. This database is no different except that it introduces another five columns which are common to every table.

    Read the article

  • C# Type Casting at Runtimefor Array.SetValue

    - by sprocketonline
    I'm trying to create an array using reflection, and insert values into it. I'm trying to do this for many different types so would like a createAndFillArray function capable of this : Type t1 = typeof(A); Type t2 = typeof(B); double exampleA = 22.5; int exampleB = 43; Array arrA = createAndFillArray(t1, exampleA); Array arrB = createAndFillArray(t2, exampleB); private Array createAndFillArray(Type t, object val){ Array arr = Array.CreateInstance( t, 1); //length 1 in this example only, real-world is of variable length. arr.SetValue( val, 0 ); //this causes the following error: "System.InvalidCastException : Object cannot be stored in an array of this type." return arr; } with the class A being as follows: public class A{ public A(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator A(double d){ A a = new A(); a.Value = d; return a; } } and class B being very similar, but with int: public class B{ public B(){} private double val; public double Value{ get{ return val; } set{ this.val = value; } } public static implicit operator B(double d){ B b = new B(); b.Value = d; return b; } } I hoped that the implicit operator would have ensured that the double be converted to class A, or the int to class B, and the error avoided; but this is obviously not so. The above is used in a custom deserialization class, which takes data from a custom data format and fills in the corresponding .Net object properties. I'm doing this via reflection and at runtime, so I think both are unavoidable. I'm targeting the C# 2.0 framework. I've dozens, if not hundreds, of classes similar to A and B, so would prefer to find a solution which improved on the createAndFillArray method rather than a solution which altered these classes.

    Read the article

  • AutoMapper determine what to map based on generic type

    - by Daz Lewis
    Hi, Is there a way to provide AutoMapper with just a source and based on the specified mapping for the type of that source automatically determine what to map to? So for example I have a type of Foo and I always want it mapped to Bar but at runtime my code can receive any one of a number of generic types. public T Add(T entity) { //List of mappings var mapList = new Dictionary<Type, Type> { {typeof (Foo), typeof (Bar)} {typeof (Widget), typeof (Sprocket)} }; //Based on the type of T determine what we map to...somehow! var t = mapList[entity.GetType()]; //What goes in ?? to ensure var in the case of Foo will be a Bar? var destination = AutoMapper.Mapper.Map<T, ??>(entity); } Any help is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • When we run an aspx page with client side scripting on IIS, we get an ActiveX control error?

    - by Ananya
    we have implemented the code for installing the messenger theme pack using the client side scripting in a web page. We are creating an object of the messenger using the classid .Using this object we call the installcontent() method and try to install the messenger theme pack hosted at following path: http://www.messengerexpressions.com/assets/worldCup/cabs/en-gb.cab Our code initially checks whether the messenger is installed on the user machine or not. Then it checks for the user login ,once the messenger is installed on the machine. And if the user is signed-in , the messenger theme pack is installed. The code currently when hosted on IIS checks the “Sign-In of the user” but when it tries to install the theme pack an error is thrown “An ActiveX control on this page is unsafe.Your current security settings prohibit running unsafe control on this page.As a result,this page may not be display as intended.” Please let us know if any setting is required on IIS for running this piece of codeor anything that we are missing out.

    Read the article

  • xmlhttprequest responsetext coming for Accept header: text/xml , but server error for application/JS

    - by encryptor
    I have to get response text from a resourceindex page as JSON object. When I dont put a Accept header in the request, it shows me the xml response (i see it in an alert).. But I want the response as a JSON object.. What should I do. One solution would have been httpRequest.setRequestHeader('Accept', 'application/JSON'); but this gives me a server error :500 Also it says A message body writer for Java type, class ...., and MIME media type, application/octet-stream, was not found Can someone suggest on what to do to overcome this and get the response as JSON?

    Read the article

  • How to check whether a excel file is write protected or not in C#?

    - by Pavan Navali
    Hi, I'm developing a sample application in which I have to open an excel file and check whether the file is write protercteed or not. The code is using System.Windows.Forms; using Microsoft.Office.Core; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string fileNameAndPath = @"D:\Sample\Sample1.xls"; // the above excel file is a write protected. Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application a = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application(); if (System.IO.File.Exists(fileNameAndPath)) { Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.ApplicationClass app = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.ApplicationClass(); // create the workbook object by opening the excel file. app.Workbooks.Open(fileNameAndPath,0,false,5,"","",true,Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.XlPlatform.xlWindows,"\t",false, true, 0,false,true,0); Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel._Workbook w = app.Workbooks.Application.ActiveWorkbook; if (w.ReadOnly) MessageBox.Show("HI"); // the above condition is true. } } I would like know whether the file is write protected or not.

    Read the article

  • Programmatically triggering events in Javascript for IE using jQuery

    - by Dan Herbert
    When an Event is triggered by a user in IE, it is set to the window.event object. The only way to see what triggered the event is by accessing the window.event object (as far as I know) This causes a problem in ASP.NET validators if an event is triggered programmatically, like when triggering an event through jQuery. In this case, the window.event object stores the last user-triggered event. When the onchange event is fired programmatically for a text box that has an ASP.NET validator attached to it, the validation breaks because it is looking at the element that fired last event, which is not the element the validator is for. Does anyone know a way around this? It seems like a problem that is solvable, but from looking online, most people just find ways to ignore the problem instead of solving it. To explain what I'm doing specifically: I'm using a jQuery time picker plugin on a text box that also has 2 ASP.NET validators associated with it. When the time is changed, I'm using an update panel to post back to the server to do some things dynamically, so I need the onchange event to fire in order to trigger the postback for that text box. The jQuery time picker operates by creating a hidden unordered list that is made visible when the text box is clicked. When one of the list items is clicked, the "change" event is fired programmatically for the text box through jQuery's change() method. Because the trigger for the event was a list item, IE sees the list item as the source of the event, not the text box, like it should. I'm not too concerned with this ASP.NET validator working as soon as the text box is changed, I just need the "change" event to be processed so my postback event is called for the text box. The problem is that the validator throws an exception in IE which stops any event from being triggered. Firefox (and I assume other browsers) don't have this issue. Only IE due to the different event model. Has anyone encountered this and seen how to fix it? I've found this problem reported several other places, but they offer no solutions: jQuery's forum, with the jQuery UI Datepicker and an ASP.NET Validator ASP.NET forums, bug with ValidatorOnChange() function

    Read the article

  • Trouble refreshing UITableView

    - by aahrens
    I'm trying to develop a basic GPA Calculator. I have an AllCourses class that holds Course objects. I have an AllCourses object in my CalcAppDelegate. In my ThirdViewController I can successfully update the number of Courses in my AllCourses object. However, the problem I'm having is that when I switch to the RootViewController the UITable isn't being repopulated with the updated Courses that were added. I tried [self reloadData] in the viewWillAppear in my RootViewController but it caused my app to close. I didn't use IB to create the views so I think it could be the case that I don't have things hooked up correctly. I did it programatically. Does anyone see anything I'm missing in my code? Here is the link to my project http://files.me.com/aahrens/q0odzi

    Read the article

  • Returning EF entities using WCF - Read only web service / public API

    - by alex
    I'm currently migrating an application from Linq-to-SQL & ASP.net Web Services (asmx) to Entity Framework and WCF. My question is, I have a bunch of POCO classes which i have xml mapping files for (for the linq to sql) I've replaced my linq to sql with an entity framework data model I've got an interface - something like IService - that has all the methods on it that i need my service to implement - for example: Product[] GetProductsByKeyword(string keyword); In the above case, Product is a POCO. I now have them as entities within my ef data model - i'm using .net 4, and could take advantage of poco support, but don't really see the need - This service is strictly read only. What's the best way of returning entities in my WCF service? I want it to support other client platforms, not just .net (so php guys could use it)

    Read the article

  • JPA and aggregate functions. How do I use the result of the query?

    - by Bogdan
    Hey guys, I'm new to ORM stuff and I need some help understanding something. Let's assume I have the following standard SQL query: SELECT *, COUNT(test.testId) AS noTests FROM inspection LEFT JOIN test ON inspection.inspId = test.inspId GROUP BY inspection.inspId which I want to use in JPA. I have an Inspection entity with a one-to-many relationship to a Test entity. (an inspection has many tests) I tried writing this in JPQL: Query query = em.createQuery("SELECT insp, COUNT(???what???) FROM Inspection insp LEFT JOIN insp.testList " + "GROUP BY insp.inspId"); 1) How do I write the COUNT clause? I'd have to apply count to elements from the test table but testList is a collection, so I can't do smth like COUNT(insp.testList.testId) 2) Assuming 1 is resolved, what type of object will be returned. It will definitely not be an Inspection object... How do I use the result?

    Read the article

  • How to dynamically change fields in an .NET ORM

    - by rsteckly
    I'm working in ASP.NET in an application where often users want to add fields or change field names. I'd like to be able to have an xml schema in place that is parsed and a dynamic object model created from it that can be accessed throughout the application. My initial reaction is that this is not realistic. I think there is flexibility about the dynamic nature of it. I think the people I'm trying to build this for wouldn't mind recompiling. Even if the app recompiled, I don't know how to abstract away enough in my code access the data to allow for users changing property names, etc. How can you write LINQ when the properties might change? In short, there's two questions here: 1) is there a way to dynamically generate an object model of the database and 2) is there a way to abstract away enough so that code accessing the database doesn't break when properties change?

    Read the article

  • jquery trouble with getJSON call.

    - by Yo-L
    Hi guys. Got some basic problem again. I need to modify a function that previously returned a in code written object. Im now trying to get the object from json through $.getJSON function getEventData() { var result = ''; $.getJSON("ajax.php?cmd=getbydate&fromdate=&todate=", function(data){ result = data; }); return result; } Problem is that result isn't set in the callback function for obvious reasons. Do you guys have a solution for this?

    Read the article

  • How to detect tab key pressing in C#?

    - by user342325
    I want to detect when tab key is pressed in a textBox and focus the next textbox in the panel. I have tried out keyPressed method and keyDown method. But when I run the program and debug those methods are not calling when the tab key is pressed. Here is my code. private void textBoxName_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Tab) { textBoxUsername.Focus(); } } private void textBoxName_KeyPress(object sender, KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyChar==(char)Keys.Tab) { textBoxUsername.Focus(); } } Please correct me.Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Creating a view linking three different node types with two node references

    - by mikesir87
    I have the following content types: Camp - the top level type Registration Information - contains node reference to Camp called Camp Medical Release Form - contains node reference to registration information called Camper I would like to create a View that takes the nid for the Camp, and pulls out all the fields for the Registration Info and Medical Release Form. I'm having trouble figuring out how to set up the various arguments/relationships. I haven't done something that's referenced more than two types. I know it would be smart/best to just combine the Registration Info and Medical Release Form, since it's a 1:1 mapping, but we can't. So... any help would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Bad Design? Constructor of composition uses `this`

    - by tanascius
    Example: class MyClass { Composition m_Composition; void MyClass() { m_Composition = new Composition( this ); } } I am interested in using depenency-injection here. So I will have to refactor the constructor to something like: void MyClass( Composition composition ) { m_Composition = composition; } However I get a problem now, since the Composition-object relies on the object of type MyClass which is just created. Can a dependency container resolve this? Is it supposed to do so? Or is it just bad design from the beginning on?

    Read the article

  • What is a good architecture for a Lift-JPA application?

    - by egervari
    I was wondering what is the best practice for a JPA model in Lift? I noticed that in the jpa demo application, there is just a Model object that is like a super object that does everything. I don't think this can be the most scalable approach, no? Is it is wise to still do the DAO pattern in Lift? For example, there's some code that looks a tad bloated and could be simplified across all model objects: Model.remove(Model.getReference(classOf[Author], someId)) Could be: AuthorDao.remove(someId) I'd appreciate any tips for setting up something that will work with the way Lift wants to work and is also easy to organize and maintain. Preferably from someone who has actually used JPA on a medium to large Lift site rather than just postulating what Spring does (we know how to do that) ;) The first phase of development will be around 30-40 tables, and will eventually get to over 100... we need a scalable, neat approach.

    Read the article

  • c# how to set up and use session state from preinit

    - by Praesagus
    OK so to set and read variables from the current session String Myvar =(string) System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session[“MyVariable”] To set System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session[“MyVariable”] = “NewValue” I can do neither, I get a System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. from System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session. In my web.config I have <sessionState mode="StateServer" stateConnectionString="tcpip=127.0.0.1:42424" cookieless="false" timeout="20"> </sessionState> I have read a dozen articles on the the necessity of IHttpHandler and an IRequiresSessionState interface. I think the issue may be caused because I am requesting this information in Page_PreInit. I found a solution in a stack overflow article but I don't seem be using it properly to actually make this go. I am not sure what I am missing. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Error when accessing IIS 7 server variable from ASP.Net MVC

    - by StephSpr
    I have an ASP.Net MVC application which works fine on IIS 6.0 / Windows Server 2003. When installed on IIS 7.5 / Windows Server 2008 (integrated mode), it works but when the application attempts to generate an URL, it runs into the following error: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.HttpServerVarsCollection.Get(String name) +10960764 System.Web.Mvc.PathHelpers.GenerateClientUrlInternal(HttpContextBase httpContext, String contentPath) +345 System.Web.Mvc.PathHelpers.GenerateClientUrl(HttpContextBase httpContext, String contentPath) +80 System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper.GenerateUrl(String routeName, String actionName, String controllerName, RouteValueDictionary routeValues, RouteCollection routeCollection, RequestContext requestContext, Boolean includeImplicitMvcValues) +256 System.Web.Mvc.UrlHelper.Action(String actionName, String controllerName, RouteValueDictionary routeValues) +36 It looks like IIS7 fails to return the server name. There should be a configuration to set, but I couldn't find anything like that. Do you have any idea to fix this issue ? Thanks,

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606 607 608 609  | Next Page >