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• What is the worst programming language you ever worked with? [closed]

  - by Ludwig Weinzierl

  If you have an interesting story to share, please post an answer, but do not abuse this question for bashing a language. We are programmers, and our primary tool is the programming language we use. While there is a lot of discussion about the best one, I'd like to hear your stories about the worst programming languages you ever worked with and I'd like to know exactly what annoyed you. I'd like to collect this stories partly to avoid common pitfalls while designing a language (especially a DSL) and partly to avoid quirky languages in the future in general. This question is not subjective. If a language supports only single character identifiers (see my own answer) this is bad in a non-debatable way. EDIT Some people have raised concerns that this question attracts trolls. Wading through all your answers made one thing clear. The large majority of answers is appropriate, useful and well written. UPDATE 2009-07-01 19:15 GMT The language overview is now complete, covering 103 different languages from 102 answers. I decided to be lax about what counts as a programming language and included anything reasonable. Thank you David for your comments on this. Here are all programming languages covered so far (alphabetical order, linked with answer, new entries in bold): ABAP, all 20th century languages, all drag and drop languages, all proprietary languages, APF, APL (1), AS400, Authorware, Autohotkey, BancaStar, BASIC, Bourne Shell, Brainfuck, C++, Centura Team Developer, Cobol (1), Cold Fusion, Coldfusion, CRM114, Crystal Syntax, CSS, Dataflex 2.3, DB/c DX, dbase II, DCL, Delphi IDE, Doors DXL, DOS batch (1), Excel Macro language, FileMaker, FOCUS, Forth, FORTRAN, FORTRAN 77, HTML, Illustra web blade, Informix 4th Generation Language, Informix Universal Server web blade, INTERCAL, Java, JavaScript (1), JCL (1), karol, LabTalk, Labview, Lingo, LISP, Logo, LOLCODE, LotusScript, m4, Magic II, Makefiles, MapBasic, MaxScript, Meditech Magic, MEL, mIRC Script, MS Access, MUMPS, Oberon, object extensions to C, Objective-C, OPS5, Oz, Perl (1), PHP, PL/SQL, PowerDynamo, PROGRESS 4GL, prova, PS-FOCUS, Python, Regular Expressions, RPG, RPG II, Scheme, ScriptMaker, sendmail.conf, Smalltalk, Smalltalk , SNOBOL, SpeedScript, Sybase PowerBuilder, Symbian C++, System RPL, TCL, TECO, The Visual Software Environment, Tiny praat, TransCAD, troff, uBasic, VB6 (1), VBScript (1), VDF4, Vimscript, Visual Basic (1), Visual C++, Visual Foxpro, VSE, Webspeed, XSLT The answers covering 80386 assembler, VB6 and VBScript have been removed.

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• Delphi SAPI Text-To-Speech

  - by Andreas Rejbrand

  First of all: this is not a duplicate of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1021490/delphi-and-sapi. I have a specific problem with the "SAPI in Delphi" subject. I have used the excellent Import Type-Library guide in Delphi 2009 to get a TSpVoice component in the component palette. This works great. With var SpVoice: TSpVoice; I can write SpVoice.Speak('This is an example.', 1); to get asynchronous audio output. First question According to the documentation, I would be able to write SpVoice.Speak('This is an example.', 0); to get synchronous audio output, but instead I get an EZeroDivide exception. Why's that? Second question But more importantly, I would like to be able to create the SpVoice object dynamically (I think this is called to "late-bound" the SpVoice object), partly because only a very small fraction of all sessions of my app will use it, and partly because I do not want to assume the existance of the SAPI server on the end-user's system. To this end, I tried procedure TForm1.FormClick(Sender: TObject); var SpVoice: Variant; begin SpVoice := CreateOleObject('SAPI.SpVoice'); SpVoice.Speak('this is a test', 0); end; which apparently does nothing at all! (Replacing the 0 with 1 gives me the EZeroDivide exception.) Disclaimer I am rather new to COM/OLE automation. I am sorry for any ignorance or stupidity shown by me in this post...

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• Delphi: RTTI and TObjectList<TObject>

  - by conciliator

  Based on one answer to an earlier post, I'm investigating the possibility of the following design TChildClass = class(TObject) private FField1: string; FField2: string; end; TMyClass = class(TObject) private FField1: TChildClass; FField2: TObjectList<TChildClass>; end; Now, in the real world, TMyClass will have 10 different lists like this, so I would like to be able to address these lists using RTTI. However, I'm not interested in the other fields of this class, so I need to check if a certain field is some sort of TObjectList. This is what I've got so far: procedure InitializeClass(RContext: TRttiContext; AObject: TObject); var ROwnerType: TRttiType; RObjListType: TRttiType; RField: TRttiField; SchInf: TSchemaInfoDetail; begin ROwnerType := RContext.GetType(AObject.ClassInfo); RObjListType := RContext.GetType(TObjectList<TObject>); for RField in ROwnerType.GetFields do begin // How do I check if the type of TMyClass.FField2 (which is TObjectList<TChildClass>) is some sort of TObjectList? end; Clearly, RField.FieldType <> RObjListType.FieldType. However, they do have some relation, don't they? It seems horrible (and wrong!) to make a very elaborate check for common functionality in order to make it highly probable that RField.FieldType is in fact a TObjectList. To be honest, I am quite uncomfortable with generics, so the question might be very naïve. However, I'm more than happy to learn. Is the above solution possible to implement? TIA!

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• Why Does My Website Redirect me to my localhost?

  - by Noah Brainey

  Alright, my website has some issues that I'm not sure what's causing them. Visit this page http://online-file-sharing.net/tos.html and click one of the bottom footer links... it redirects you to your localhost in the address bar. I have no idea why it does this. I'm hosting this website on my own server, which is this computer, and using Xampp. If this information helps. Anyways any help would be greatly appreciated! I'm also using DYNDNS as my nameservers. I've already ask this question on superuser and webapps QnA sites neither could help. They said to come here. Another thing to note is that this website runs on one script and not multiple scripts (upload.cgi). However there are three files that aren't dynamic and aren't part of the upload.cgi file... these are about.html, browse.html and tos.html. Another thing to note is that my homepage which is upload.cgi can only be accessed by manually typing in online-file-sharing.net/cgi-bin/upload.cgi (which isn't it's real location but it seems to recognize it this way... but redirects me to my localhost). .htaccess file code: DirectoryIndex upload.cgi My upload.cgi path code: my $version = "4.14"; $ENV{PATH} = '/bin:/usr/bin'; delete @ENV{'IFS', 'CDPATH', 'ENV', 'BASH_ENV'}; ($ENV{DOCUMENT_ROOT}) = ($ENV{DOCUMENT_ROOT} =~ /(.*)/); # untaint. #$ENV{SCRIPT_NAME} = '/cgi-bin/upload.cgi'; use lib './perlmodules'; #use Time::HiRes 'gettimeofday'; #my $hires_start = gettimeofday(); my (%PREF,%TEXT) = (); The script I'm using is FileChucker. I hope this information is enough to find an answer... if not please let me know and I'll post as much information as you need!

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• Setting httponly in JSESSIONID cookie (Java EE 5)

  - by mythandros

  I'm trying to set the httponly flag on the JSESSIONID cookie. I'm working in Java EE 5, however, and can't use setHttpOnly(). First I tried to create my own JSESSIONID cookie from within the servlet's doPost() by using response.setHeader(). When that didn't work, I tried response.addHeader(). That didn't work either. Then, I learned that the servlet handled converting the session into a JSESSIONID cookie and inserting it into the http header so if I want to play with that cookie, I'll have to write a filter. I wrote a filter and played with setHeader()/addHeader() there, again to no avail. Then, I learned that there's some flush/close action going on in the response object before it gets to the filter so if I want to manipulate the data, I need to extend HttpServletResponseWrapper and pass that to filterChain.doFilter(). This is done but I'm still not getting results. Clearly I'm doing something wrong but I don't know what. I'm not sure if this is at all relevant to the question at hand but no html document is being returned by the servlet to the browser. All that's really happening is that some objects are being populated and returned to a JSP document. I've sort of assumed that The Session object is turned into a JSESSIONID cookie and wrapped -- along with the objects added to the request -- in an http header before being sent to the browser. I'd be happy to post some code but I want to rule out the possibility that my difficulties stem from a misunderstanding of the theory first.

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• How to pass touch from a UITextView to a UITableViewCell

  - by Martin

  I have a UITextView in a custom UITableViewCell. The textview works properly (scrolls, shows text, etc.) but I need the users to be able to tap the table cell and go to another screen. Right now, if you tap the edges of the table cell (i.e. outside the UItextView) the next view is properly called. But clearly inside the uitextview the touches are being captured and not forwarded to the table cell. I found a post that talked about subclassing UITextView to forward the touches. I tried that without luck. The implementation is below. I'm wondering if maybe a) the super of my textview isn't the uitableviewcell and thus I need to pass the touch some other way or b) If the super is the uitableviewcell if I need to pass something else? Any help would be much appreciated. #import "ScrollableTextView.h" @implementation ScrollableTextView - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { if (parentScrollView) { [parentScrollView touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; } [super touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; } - (void)touchesCancelled:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { if (parentScrollView) { [parentScrollView touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; } [super touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; } - (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { if (parentScrollView) { [parentScrollView touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; } [super touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; } - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { if (parentScrollView) { [parentScrollView touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; } [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; } - (BOOL)canBecomeFirstResponder { return YES; } @end

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• Why are my functional tests failing?

  - by Mongus Pong

  I have generated some scaffolding for my rails app. I am running the generated tests and they are failing. for example test "should create area" do assert_difference('Area.count') do post :create, :area => { :name => 'area1' } end assert_redirected_to area_path(assigns(:area)) end This test is failing saying that : 1) Failure: test_should_create_area(AreasControllerTest) [/test/functional/areas_controller_test.rb:16]: "Area.count" didn't change by 1. <3 expected but was <2. There is only one field in the model : name. I am populating this so it cant be because I am failing to populate the only field. I can run the site and create an area with the name 'area1'. So reality is succeeding, but the test is failing. I cant ask why its failing, because Im sure theres not enough information here for anyone here to know why. Im just stuck at knowing what avenues to go down to work out why the test is failing. Even putting puts into the code dont print out... What steps can I take to track this down?

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• PayPal IPN validation

  - by denis_n

  Following is from PayPal Order Management Integration Guide: Processing the PayPal Response to Your Postback PayPal responds to your postbacks with a single word in the body of the response: VERIFIED or INVALID. When you receive a VERIFIED postback response, perform the following checks on data in the IPN: Check that the payment_status is Completed. If the payment_status is Completed, check the txn_id against the previous PayPal transaction that you processed to ensure it is not a duplicate. Check that the receiver_email is an email address registered in your PayPal account. Check that the price, carried in mc_gross, and the currency, carried in mc_currency, are correct for the item, carried in item_name or item_number. After you complete the above checks, notification validation is complete. You can update your database with the information provided, and you can initiate other appropriate automated back-end processing. <form action="https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_cart" /> <input type="hidden" name="upload" value="1" /> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="GXLC9H9VFPLQE"> ..... <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit" /> </form> In step 3 I should check receiver_email, but I don't want to. I don't want to keep my paypal account email in my application. My question is: can I check business variable instead?

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• jQuery datepicker validation message issue

  - by Abhishek

  Hi, I'm using the jquery datepicker plugin at http://plugins.jquery.com/project/datepick with the datepicker validation plugin. <script id="frmValidation" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var validator = $("#frmTest").validate({ rules:{ fname: "required", dobPicker: "required" }, messages:{ fname: "Please enter a name", dobPicker: "Select a date" }, }); $('#dobPicker').datepick(); $.datepick.setDefaults({showOn: 'both', dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy', yearRange:'1900:2010'}); }); </script> And the body of the document is as follows : <form id="frmTest" action="" method="post"> <div id="error-list"></div> <div class="form-row"> <span class="label"><label for="fname">Name</label></span> <input type="text" name="fname" /> </div> <div class="form-row"> <span class="label"><label for="dobPicker">DOB</label></span> <input type="text" id="dobPicker" name="dobPicker" style="margin-left: 4px;"/> </div> <div class="form-row"> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="submit"/> </div> </form> The form validates the first time but the error message for the datepicker does not disappear immediately a date is selected.. however it goes away if the date is selected the second time. Any help to make it go the first time a date is selected will be appreciated

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• SQL Server database with clustered GUID PKs - switch clustered index or switch to sequential (comb)

  - by Eyvind

  We have a database in which all the PKs are GUIDs, and most of the PKs are also the clustered index for the table. We know that this is bad (due to the random nature of GUIDs). So, it seems there are basically two options here (short of throwing out GUIDs as PKs altogether, which we cannot do (at least not at this time)). We could change the GUID generation algorithm to e.g. the one that NHibernate uses, as detailed in this post, or we could, for the tables that are under the heaviest use, change to a different clustered index, e.g. an IDENTITY column, and keep the "random" GUIDs as PKs. Is it possible to give any general recommendations in such a scenario? The application in question has 500+ tables, the largest one presently at about 1,5 million rows, a few tables around 500 000 rows, and the rest significantly lower (most of them well below 10K). Furthermore, the application is installed at several customer sites already, so we have to take any possible negative effects for existing customer into consideration. Thanks!

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• Ruby on rails generates tests for you. Do those give a false sense of a safety net?

  - by Hamish Grubijan

  Disclaimer: I have not used RoR, and I have not generated tests. But, I will still dare to post this question. Quality Assurance is theoretically impossible to get 100% right in general (Undecidable problem ;), and it is hard in practice. So many developers do not understand that writing good automated tests is an art, and it is hard. When I hear that RoR generates the tests for you, I get very skeptical. It cannot be that easy. Testing is a general concept; it applies across languages. So does the concept of code contracts, it is similar for languages that support it. Code contracts do not generate themselves. The programmer must add the requirements and the promises manually, after doing some thinking about the algorithm / function. If a human gets it wrong, then the tools will propagate the error. Similarly with testing - it takes human judgement about what should happen. Tests do not write themselves, and we are far from the day when a business analyst can just have a conversation with a computer and tell it informally what the requirements are and have the computer do all the work. There is no magic ... how can RoR generate good tests for you? Please shed some light on this. Opinions are ok, for this is a community wiki. Thanks!

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• How to upload images from iPhone app developed using Titanium

  - by Karthik.K

  Hi, I finally landed up in developing an iPhone app using Titanium Mobile. Now the problem I face is, Im able to run the app, and the app also sends the image to the server. But Im not able to see the file that got uploaded to the server. I have pasted the iPhone app's code to send image to the server and also, the PHP file that would receive the file from the app. var win = Titanium.UI.currentWindow; var ind=Titanium.UI.createProgressBar({ width:200, height:50, min:0, max:1, value:0, style:Titanium.UI.iPhone.ProgressBarStyle.PLAIN, top:10, message:'Uploading Image', font:{fontSize:12, fontWeight:'bold'}, color:'#888' }); win.add(ind); ind.show(); Titanium.Media.openPhotoGallery({ success:function(event) { Ti.API.info("success! event: " + JSON.stringify(event)); var image = event.media; var xhr = Titanium.Network.createHTTPClient(); xhr.onerror = function(e) { Ti.API.info('IN ERROR ' + e.error); }; xhr.onload = function() { Ti.API.info('IN ONLOAD ' + this.status + ' readyState ' + this.readyState); }; xhr.onsendstream = function(e) { ind.value = e.progress ; Ti.API.info('ONSENDSTREAM - PROGRESS: ' + e.progress+' '+this.status+' '+this.readyState); }; // open the client xhr.open('POST','http://www.myserver.com/tmp/upload2.php'); xhr.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); // send the data xhr.send({media:image}); }, cancel:function() { }, error:function(error) { }, allowImageEditing:true }); And here is the PHP code on the server: http://www.pastie.org/891050 I'm not sure where I'm going wrong. Please help me out in this issue. Would love to provide if you need some more information.

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• HttpRequest.BeginWebRequest not executing asynchronously

  - by Shawn Simon

  I have the following code: Private Function CreateRequest() As HttpWebRequest Dim request As HttpWebRequest = HttpWebRequest.Create(_url) request.Method = "POST" request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Dim postData As String = String.Join("&", GetPostData().Select(Function(s) String.Format("{0}={1}", s.Key, HttpUtility.UrlEncode(s.Value))).ToArray) Dim data As Byte() = (New ASCIIEncoding).GetBytes(postData) request.Timeout = _maxTimeoutSeconds * 1000 Dim stream = request.GetRequestStream stream.Write(data, 0, data.Length) stream.Close() Return request End Function Public Sub SendAsync(ByVal callback As Action(Of ResponseBase)) Dim request = CreateRequest() _attemptCount += 1 Dim reqID As Integer If _loggingContext IsNot Nothing Then Try reqID = Log.NotesRequest(_url.ToString, GetPostData, _loggingContext) Catch ex As Exception ErrorTracker.LogError(ex) End Try End If Dim responseState As New ResponseState responseState.LoggedNotesRequestID = reqID responseState.Request = request responseState.Callback = callback Dim response = request.BeginGetResponse(New AsyncCallback(AddressOf RespCallback), responseState) End Sub Private Sub RespCallback(ByVal ar As IAsyncResult) Dim responseState As ResponseState = CType(ar.AsyncState, ResponseState) ' Process response... I set up the request to go to a mock server which sleeps for 30 seconds. When I call BeginGetResponse, the application just waits at that line of code for the response. I want it to carry on with the app, and then just run the callback whenever it finishes. This code is run from a web page, and my callback just logs the response and sends an email. I don't want to use to have to wait for the response.

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• Populating array of input fields as alternate fields using jQuery UI datepicker

  - by Micor

  I am using jquery ui datepicker in order to populate start and end dates for multiple events on the same page, the number of events is dynamic and I need to post day, month and year as separate fields, so I have something like this: <input type="text" name="event[0].startDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_day" class="startDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_month" class="startDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_year" class="startDate_year" /> <input type="text" name="event[0].endDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_day" class="endDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_month" class="endDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_year" class="startDate_year" /> event[1]... event[2]... I started working on jQuery functionality and this is what I have so far, which will populate alternate fields for startDate by class, of course it will not do what I need because I need to populate by field name rather then class: $(".date").datepicker({ onClose: function(dateText,picker) { $('.startDate_month').val( dateText.split(/\//)[0] ); $('.startDate_day').val( dateText.split(/\//)[1] ); $('.startDate_year').val( dateText.split(/\//)[2] ); }}); I need help figuring out how can I get the name of the input field within datepicker function so the alternate field assignment done by that field name + _day, month, year so this function can work for all the events on the page, making function above look more like: $(".date").datepicker({ onClose: function(dateText,picker) { $('input[' + $name + '_month' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[0] ); $('input[' + $name + '_day' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[1] ); $('input[' + $name + '_year' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[2] ); }}); Hope that makes sense :) Thanks

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• Asp.net mvc json

  - by user310657

  Hi, I am working on a mvc project, and having problem with json. i have created a demo project with list of colors public JsonResult GetResult() { List strList = new List(); strList.Add("white"); strList.Add("blue"); strList.Add("black"); strList.Add("red"); strList.Add("orange"); strList.Add("green"); return this.Json(strList); } i am able to get these on my page, but when i try to delete one color, that is when i send the following using jquery function deleteItem(item) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Home/Delete/white", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: ajaxCallSucceed, dataType: "json", failure: ajaxCallFailed }); } the controler action public JsonResult Delete(string Color) {} Color always returns null, even if i have specified "/Home/Delete/white" in the url. i know i am doing something wrong or missing something, but not able to find out what. please can any one guide me in the right direction.

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• Try/Catch with jquery ajax request

  - by Anthony

  I am trying to build a Google Chrome extension that makes an ajax request. Something similar to the GMail Checker extension. The problem is that when I do the request using jquery, and I put in the wrong username/password, it fails silently, with the error callback function ignored. If I move the ajax call out of the background.html script (where I can't see the requests in the developer window), to the options.html script, I get a dialog box to re-authenticate. If I hit cancel, THEN the jquery error callback fires. But in the original model extension (again, the Gmail checker), they use plain (non-jquery) ajax calls with a try/catch, and if I put in the wrong credentials, I get an alert saying as much. I tried wrapping the entire jquery call in a try/catch, like so: try { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: someurl, contentType : "text/xml", data: somedata, username: user, password: pass, success: function(data,status,xhr){ alert("Hurrah!"); }, error: function(xhr, status, error){ alert("Error!" + xhr.status); }, dataType: "xml" }); } catch(e) { alert("You messed something up!"); } But still nothing. Is the error due to it being asynchronous, or is Chrome not returning the request as an error since it wants to re-prompt for credentials? Or do I just not know how to use try/catch? Update Here is a very slimmed down version of how the model code does the request: var req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.onreadystatechange = function() { try { if ( req.readyState == 4 ) { //Do some stuff with results } } catch (ex) { alert('Error parsing response.'); } } try { req.send (data); } catch (ex) { alert ('Something went wrong with the request.'); }

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• Please help with my JSP Internationalization problem

  - by wokena

  I have problem with I18N in JSP, specifically, with forms. When I enter some Czech characters (e.g., "ešcržýá...") into my page one form, into the field "fieldOne", and then show text from that field on page two, instead of Czech characters I see this as "čč". (Note, the second page gets the Czech characters with "request.getProperty("fieldOne")") Here is the source code: Page one: <%@page contentType="text/html"%> <%@page pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-bean" prefix="bean" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-html" prefix="html" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-logic" prefix="logic" %> <html> <head></head> <body> <form action="druha.jsp" method="post"> <input type="textarea" name="fieldOne"> <input type="submit"> </form> </body> </html> Page two: <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-bean" prefix="bean" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-html" prefix="html" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://jakarta.apache.org/struts/tags-logic" prefix="logic" %> <html> <head></head> <body> <h1>The text: </h1> <%=request.getProperty("fieldOne")%> </body> </html> Thanks for help...

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• Facebooker Causing Problems with Rails Integration Testing

  - by Eric Lubow

  I am (finally) attempting to write some integration tests for my application (because every deploy is getting scarier). Since testing is a horribly documented feature of Rails, this was the best I could get going with shoulda. class DeleteBusinessTest < ActionController::IntegrationTest context "log skydiver in and" do setup do @skydiver = Factory( :skydiver ) @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.create(@skydiver) @biz = Factory( :business, :ownership = Factory(:ownership, :skydiver = @skydiver )) end context "delete business" do setup do @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.find post '/businesses/destroy', :id = @biz.id end should_redirect_to('businesses_path()'){businesses_path()} end end end In theory, this test seems like it should pass. My factories seem like they are pushing the right data in: Factory.define :skydiver do |s| s.sequence(:login) { |n| "test#{n}" } s.sequence(:email) { |n| "test#{n}@example.com" } s.crypted_password '1805986f044ced38691118acfb26a6d6d49be0d0' s.password 'secret' s.password_confirmation { |u| u.password } s.salt 'aowgeUne1R4-F6FFC1ad' s.firstname 'Test' s.lastname 'Salt' s.nickname 'Mr. Password Testy' s.facebook_user_id '507743444' end The problem I am getting seems to be from Facebooker only seems to happen on login attempts. When the test runs, I am getting the error: The error occurred while evaluating nil.set_facebook_session. I believe that error is to be expected in a certain sense since I am not using Facebook here for this session. Can anyone provide any insight as to how to either get around this or at least help me out with what is going wrong?

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• WCF Service Throttling

  - by Mubashar Ahmad

  Dear All I have a WCF Service Deployed in a Console App with BasicHTTPBinding and SSL enabled on port using NetSH command and more over following attribute is set as well. [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] And also i have set the Throttling behavior as <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentCalls="2147483647" maxConcurrentSessions="2147483647" maxConcurrentInstances="2147483647" /> On the other hand i have created a Test Client(for load test) that initiates multiple clients simultaneously(multiple threads) and performs transactions on server. everything seems fine and working properly but on server the CPU utilization is doesn't grow so i added some logging to view the number of concurrent calls to the server and found that its never went over 6. i have reviewed the performance counter logging code more than twice and it seems fine to me. So i want to ask where is the problem in this situation and one more thing i haven't specified any kind of ContextMode or ConcurrencyMode yet. After this Post I noticed that whenever i start another Intance of Test Client my concurrent Server Calls counter increase to 2 like if i am running only 1 instance the maximum Concurrent Rcvd Calls will be 2 and if there are two instance the same value goes to 4 and so on. Is there any limit of Number of WCF Calls from once process? Looking for help Mubashar *Added on 17-March******************* Today i ran another test with one test client(with 50 concurrent users) on the same machine on which the server is running this time i am getting exact result what i wanted it to show i.e. Maximum concurrent Calls Rcvd by Server = 50 but i need to do it the same on others machines as well. Can anybody help me on this.

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• How to arrange models, views, controllers in a new Kohana 3 project

  - by Pekka

  I'm looking at how to set up a mid-sized web application with Kohana 3. I have implemented MVC patterns in the past but never worked against a "formalized" MVC framework so I'm still getting my head around the terminology - toying around with basic examples, building views and templates, and so on. I'm progressing fairly well but I want to set up a real-world web project (one of my own that I've been planning for quite some time now) as a learning object. Example-based documentation is a bit sparse for Kohana 3 right now - they say so themselves on the site. While I'm not worried about learning the framework soon enough, I'm a bit at a loss on how to arrange a healthy code base from the start - i.e. how to split up controllers, how to name them, and how to separate the functionality into the appropriate models. My application could, in its core, be described as a business directory with a main businesses table. Businesses can be listed by category and by street name. Each business has a detail page. Business owners can log in and edit their business's entry. Businesses can post offers into an offers table. I know this is pretty vague, I'll be more than happy to go into more detail on request. Supposing I have all the basic functionality worked out and in place already - list all businesses, edit business, list businesses by street name, create offer, and so on, and I'm just looking for how to fit the functionality into a Kohana application structure that can be easily extended: Do you know real-life, publicly accessible examples of applications built on Kohana 3 where I could take a peek how they do it? Are there conventions or best practices on how to structure an extendable login area for end users in a Kohana project that is not only able to handle a business directory page, but further products on separate pages as well? Do you know application structuring HOWTOs or best practices for Kohana 3 not mentioned in the user guide and the inofficial Wiki? Have you built something similar and could give me some recommendations?

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• Change Edit Control Block (ECB) Link URL in SharePoint

  - by dirq

  Is there a way to dynamically change the hyperlink associated with an ECB menu in WSS 3.0? For instance, I have a list with 2 fields. One field is hidden and is a link, the other is the title field which has the ECB menu. The title field currently links to the item's view page - but we want it to link to the link-field's url. Is that possible? UPDATE - 5/29/09 9AM I have this so far. See this TechNet post. <script type="text/javascript"> var url = 'GoTo.aspx?ListTitle='+ctx.ListTitle; url += '&ListName='+ctx.listName; url += '&ListTemplate='+ctx.listTemplate; url += '&listBaseType='+ctx.listBaseType; url += '&view='+ctx.view; url += '&'; var a = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); for(i=0;i<=a.length -1;i++) { a[i].href=a[i].href.replace('DispForm.aspx?',url); } </script> This gives me a link like so (formatted so it's easier to see): GoTo.aspx ?ListTitle=MyList &ListName={082BB11C-1941-4906-AAE9-5F2EBFBF052B} &ListTemplate=100 &listBaseType=0 &view={9ABE2B07-2B47-4390-9969-258F00E0812C} &ID=1 My issue now is that the row in the grid gives each item the ID property above but if I change the view or do any filtering you can see that the ID is really just the row number. Can I get the actual item's GUID here? If I can get the item's ID I can send it with the list ID to an application page that will get the right URL from field in the list and forward the user on to the right site.

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• -[CFString length]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3881940 when i scroll to near the bottom

  - by James

  Hey guys, i've got a problem debugging an iphone app that i'm attempting to write and it's got me stumped, bear with me, i'm a n00b to programming and might get some of the terminology wrong but i'll try to explain it as best as i can. The app gets an XML doc from the a web site, parses it into an array, and then displays it in a table view, i have the parser in a separate file. The ViewDidLoad in RootViewController sends it a url, the parser goes to work and then returns an NSMutableArray. When i run the app it works fine with small XML files (5 entries or so, and 1-3 sections), but when i use a larger one(20+ rows, over 12 sections) i get the error "-[CFString length]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3881940" when i scroll near the bottom of the tableview, just as the last section title is about to come onto the viewable area on the screen to be precise. if i return a static string instead of the object in my array in this method it doesn't crash, but i can use NSLog to call the array and it returns the title no problems. - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)indexPath { return [[returnedEvents objectAtIndex:indexPath ] objectAtIndex:0]; } The returnedEvents array isn't released until -(void) dealloc {} I have read a few other posts on here, and a few guides on debugging and as of yet am unable to find anything that was able to help me, i'd be more than happy to post some code up here and any more information, i'm just not sure where to start... Thanks in advance for anyone willing to have a go at helping me out.

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• ASP.NET MVC2: Client-side validation not working with Start.js

  - by Shaggy13spe

  Ok, this is strange. I would hope it's something I'm doing wrong and not that MS has two technologies that simply don't work together. (UPDATE: See bottom of post for Script tag order in HEAD section) I'm trying to use the dataView template and client-side validation. If I include a reference to: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/Start.js" type="text/javascript"></script> by itself, the dataview template works fine. but if I put in the following references: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.7/jquery.validate.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> then I get the following error: > Error: Type._registerScript is not a > function Source File: > http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/MicrosoftAjaxTemplates.js > Line: 1 and: > Error: Sys.get("$listings") is null > Source File: > http://localhost:12370/Listings Line: > 76 Here's the code calling the dataview: $(document).ready(function () { LoadMap(); Sys.require([Sys.components.dataView, Sys.scripts.jQuery], function() { $("#listings").dataView(); Sys.get("$listings").set_data(listings.Data); updateMap(listings.Data); }); }); I would really appreciate any help with this one. Thanks! UPDATE: I've tried moving around the order of the last 4 script tags, but to no avail.

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• error C2504: 'BASECLASS' : base class undefined

  - by numerical25

  I checked out a post similar to this but the linkage was different the issue was never resolved. The problem with mine is that for some reason the linker is expecting there to be a definition for the base class, but the base class is just a interface. Below is the error in it's entirety c:\users\numerical25\desktop\intro todirectx\godfiles\gxrendermanager\gxrendermanager\gxrendermanager\gxdx.h(2) : error C2504: 'GXRenderer' : base class undefined Below is the code that shows how the headers link with one another GXRenderManager.h #ifndef GXRM #define GXRM #include <windows.h> #include "GXRenderer.h" #include "GXDX.h" #include "GXGL.h" enum GXDEVICE { DIRECTX, OPENGL }; class GXRenderManager { public: static int Ignite(GXDEVICE); private: static GXRenderer *renderDevice; }; #endif at the top of GxRenderManager, there is GXRenderer , windows, GXDX, GXGL headers. I am assuming by including them all in this document. they all link to one another as if they were all in the same document. correct me if I am wrong cause that's how a view headers. Moving on... GXRenderer.h class GXRenderer { public: virtual void Render() = 0; virtual void StartUp() = 0; }; GXGL.h class GXGL: public GXRenderer { public: void Render(); void StartUp(); }; GXDX.h class GXDX: public GXRenderer { public: void Render(); void StartUp(); }; GXGL.cpp and GXDX.cpp respectively #include "GXGL.h" void GXGL::Render() { } void GXGL::StartUp() { } //...Next document #include "GXDX.h" void GXDX::Render() { } void GXDX::StartUp() { } Not sure whats going on. I think its how I am linking the documents, I am not sure.

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• Selected Item in Dropdown Lists from Enum in ASP.net MVC

  - by AlexCuse

  Sorry if this is a dup, my searching turned up nothing. I am using the following method to generate drop down lists for enum types (lifted from here: http://addinit.com/?q=node/54): public static string DropDownList(this HtmlHelper helper, string name, Type type, object selected) { if (!type.IsEnum) throw new ArgumentException("Type is not an enum."); if(selected != null && selected.GetType() != type) throw new ArgumentException("Selected object is not " + type.ToString()); var enums = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (int value in Enum.GetValues(type)) { var item = new SelectListItem(); item.Value = value.ToString(); item.Text = Enum.GetName(type, value); if(selected != null) item.Selected = (int)selected == value; enums.Add(item); } return System.Web.Mvc.Html.SelectExtensions.DropDownList(helper, name, enums, "--Select--"); } It is working fine, except for one thing. If I give the dropdown list the same name as the property on my model the selected value is not set properly. Meaning this works: <%= Html.DropDownList("fam", typeof(EnumFamily), Model.Family)%> But this doesn't: <%= Html.DropDownList("family", typeof(EnumFamily), Model.Family)%> Because I'm trying to pass an entire object directly to the controller method I am posting to, I would really like to have the dropdown list named for the property on the model. When using the "right" name, the dropdown does post correctly, I just can't seem to set the selected value. I don't think this matters but I am running MVC 1 on mono 2.6

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