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• iPhone Custom CA certificate for an application which uses NSURLConnection?

  - by jr

  I have an application which is communicating with many different sites and each site has its own SSL certificate signed by our own internal CA. Doing this prevents us the need from purchasing SSL certificates for each site (hundreds or thousands) and is more secure then using a wildcard certificate with a shared key on each of those sites. So, basically using a CA certificate is the only way. Right now, I have a mobileprovision file which will install the CA certificate as a profile on the phone. When our iPhone application launches if it gets an SSL Certificate error it redirects to a this mobile provision file via Safari and the user will be prompted to install the CA. The problem is that I am concerned that the Apple AppStore might deny my app for doing this (Just some feedback from other developers at this point), and I wanted to research other ways to accomplish this. Basically what I need to accomplish is allow an SSL connection which will verify against a custom CA certificate which will be embedded in my application. This will make the CA certificate active for only the calls I make. I am using the standard NSURLConnection methods in order to communicate with the service. Is this possible? Can someone show me how to load the CA (what form PEM?) and add it to the list of trusted CA certificates for my application? If that is not possible what other options do I have? Just trusting all certificates isn't really any option, we want to prevent man in the middle attacks and only trust our CA issued certificates. Thanks!

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• My UL child label elements disappear in IE on accordion menu opening

  - by Scott B

  I've got an app that's working pretty flawlessly in Chrome and FF, however, when I view it in IE, all is well until I click on a header element to activate it (jQuery accordion). What happens then is that I see a brief flash where the content is there, then suddenly the entire left column disappears. This column is generated by a floated label element with a class of ".left" as seen below... <ul class="menu collapsible"> <li class='expand sectionTitle'><a href='#'>General Settings</a> <ul class='acitem'> <li class="section"> <label class="left">This item if floated left with a defined width of 190px via css. This is the item that's disappearing after a brief display</label> <input class="input" value="input element here" /> <label class="description">This element has a margin-left:212px; set via css in order to be positioned to the right of the label element as if in an adjacent table cell. When I add a max-width property to this element, it disappears in IE too!</label> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> As you can see from the comments in the code above (for the two label elements) the description label disappears once I set a max-width on it. It shows up fine otherwise.

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• Wrong logic in If Statement?

  - by Charles

  $repeat_times = mysql_real_escape_string($repeat_times); $result = mysql_query("SELECT `code`,`datetime` FROM `fc` ORDER by datetime desc LIMIT 25") or die(mysql_error()); $output .=""; $seconds = time() - strtotime($fetch_array["datetime"]); if($seconds < 60) $interval = "$seconds seconds"; else if($seconds < 3600) $interval = floor($seconds / 60) . " minutes"; else if($seconds < 86400) $interval = floor($seconds / 3600) . " hours"; else $interval = floor($seconds / 86400) . " days"; while ($fetch_array = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $fetch_array["code"] = htmlentities($fetch_array["code"]); $output .= "<li><a href=\"http://www.***.com/code=" . htmlspecialchars(urlencode($fetch_array["code"])) . "\" target=\"_blank\">" . htmlspecialchars($fetch_array["code"]) . "</a> (" . $interval . ") ago.</li>"; } $output .=""; return $output; Why is this returning janice (14461 days) instead of janice (15 minutes ago) The datetime function table has the DATETIME type in my table so it's returning a full string for the date.

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• How do I convert a simple ruby flashcard program into a ROR app?

  - by Mark Wilbur

  What I'm trying to do is make a basic flashcard app on rails. At this point, all I'm looking for is the functionality to iterate through a list of flashcards, quiz the user and let the user know if they were right or not. In ruby, it didn't take me long to write: class Card attr_accessor :answer, :question def initialize(answer = "", question="") @answer = answer @question = question end def quiz puts "What does #@question mean?" answer = gets.chomp if answer == @answer puts "Right" return true else puts "Wrong" return answer end end end class Cardlist attr_accessor :Cards def initialize(Cards = []) @Cards = Cards end def quiz Cards.each do |w| w.quiz end end end The problem I'm having with rails is figuring out where to put the logic to loop through all the cards in the list. I've made models specifying that Card belongs_to cardlist and that Cardlist has_many cards. I know application logic should go in the controller, but if I were to make a "quiz" action for my Cardlist controller, how would I make it iterate through all the cards? After each "quiz" page generated, I'd need to get an answer back from the user, respond (maybe flash) whether it was right or not and then continue onto the next question. Would any of that logic have to go into the view in order to make sure it's sending back the user inputted answers to the controller?

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• How to make Spring load a JDBC Driver BEFORE initializing Hibernate's SessionFactory?

  - by Bill_BsB

  I'm developing a Spring(2.5.6)+Hibernate(3.2.6) web application to connect to a custom database. For that I have custom JDBC Driver and Hibernate Dialect. I know for sure that these custom classes work (hard coded stuff on my unit tests). The problem, I guess, is with the order on which things get loaded by Spring. Basically: Custom Database initializes Spring load beans from web.xml Spring loads ServletBeans(applicationContext.xml) Hibernate kicks in: shows version and all the properties correctly loaded. Hibernate's HbmBinder runs (maps all my classes) LocalSessionFactoryBean - Building new Hibernate SessionFactory DriverManagerConnectionProvider - using driver: MyCustomJDBCDriver at CustomDBURL I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL Hibernate loads the Custom Dialect My CustomJDBCDriver finally gets registered with DriverManager (log messages) SettingsFactory runs SchemaExport runs (hbm2ddl) I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL (again?!) Application get successfully deployed but there are no tables on my custom Database. Things that I tried so far: Different techniques for passing hibernate properties: embedded in the 'sessionFactory' bean, loaded from a hibernate.properties file. Nothing worked but I didn't try with hibernate.cfg.xml file neither with a dataSource bean yet. MyCustomJDBCDriver has a static initializer block that registers it self with the DriverManager. Tried different combinations of lazy initializing (lazy-init="true") of the Spring beans but nothing worked. My custom JDBC driver should be the first thing to be loaded - not sure if by Spring but...! Can anyone give me a solution for this or maybe a hint for what else I could try? I can provide more details (huge stack traces for instance) if that helps. Thanks in advance.

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• efficient thread-safe singleton in C++

  - by user168715

  The usual pattern for a singleton class is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); return *inst; } However, it's my understanding that this solution is not thread-safe, since 1) Foo's constructor might be called more than once (which may or may not matter) and 2) inst may not be fully constructed before it is returned to a different thread. One solution is to wrap a mutex around the whole method, but then I'm paying for synchronization overhead long after I actually need it. An alternative is something like static Foo &getInst() { static Foo *inst = NULL; if(inst == NULL) { pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); if(inst == NULL) inst = new Foo(...); pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); } return *inst; } Is this the right way to do it, or are there any pitfalls I should be aware of? For instance, are there any static initialization order problems that might occur, i.e. is inst always guaranteed to be NULL the first time getInst is called?

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• Xcode Unit Testing - Accessing Resources from the application's bundle?

  - by Ben Scheirman

  I'm running into an issue and I wanted to confirm that I'm doing things the correct way. I can test simple things with my SenTestingKit tests, and that works okay. I've set up a Unit Test Bundle and set it as a dependency on the main application target. It successfully runs all tests whenever I press cmd+B. Here's where I'm running into issues. I have some XML files that I need to load from the resources folder as part of the application. Being a good unit tester, I want to write unit tests around this to make sure that they are loading properly. So I have some code that looks like this: NSString *filePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"foo" ofType:@"xml"]; This works when the application runs, but during a unit test, mainBundle points to the wrong bundle, so this line of code returns nil. So I changed it up to utilize a known class like this: NSString *filePath = [[NSBundle bundleForClass:[Config class]] pathForResource:@"foo" ofType:@"xml"]; This doesn't work either, because in order for the test to even compile code like this, it Config needs to be part of the Unit Test Target. If I add that, then the bundle for that class becomes the Unit Test bundle. (Ugh!) Am I approaching this the wrong way?

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• Fast path cache generation for a connected node graph

  - by Sukasa

  I'm trying to get a faster pathfinding mechanism in place in a game I'm working on for a connected node graph. The nodes are classed into two types, "Networks" and "Routers." In this picture, the blue circles represent routers and the grey rectangles networks. Each network keeps a list of which routers it is connected to, and vice-versa. Routers cannot connect directly to other routers, and networks cannot connect directly to other networks. Networks list which routers they're connected to Routers do the same I need to get an algorithm that will map out a path, measured in the number of networks crossed, for each possible source and destination network excluding paths where the source and destination are the same network. I have one right now, however it is unusably slow, taking about two seconds to map the paths, which becomes incredibly noticeable for all connected players. The current algorithm is a depth-first brute-force search (It was thrown together in about an hour to just get the path caching working) which returns an array of networks in the order they are traversed, which explains why it's so slow. Are there any algorithms that are more efficient? As a side note, while these example graphs have four networks, the in-practice graphs have 55 networks and about 20 routers in use. Paths which are not possible also can occur, and as well at any time the network/router graph topography can change, requiring the path cache to be rebuilt. What approach/algorithm would likely provide the best results for this type of a graph?

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• How does Access 2007's moveNext/moveFirst/, etc., feature work?

  - by Chris M

  I'm not an Access expert, but am an SQL expert. I inherited an Access front-end referencing a SQL 2005 database that worked OK for about 5000 records, but is failing miserably for 800k records... Behind the scenes in the SQL profiler & activity manager I see some kind of Access query like: SELECT "MS1"."id" FROM "dbo"."customer" "MS1" ORDER BY "MS1"."id" The MS prefix doesn't appear in any Access code I can see. I'm suspicious of the built-in Access navigation code: DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNext The GoToRecord has AcRecord constant, which includes things like acFirst, acLast, acNext, acPrevious and acGoTo. What does it mean in a database context to move to the "next" record? This particular table uses an identity column as the PK, so is it internally grabbing all the IDs and then moving to the one that is the next highest??? If so, how would it work if a table was comprised of three different fields for the PK? Or am I on the wrong track, and something else in Access is calling that statement? Unfortunately I see a ton of prepared statements in the profiler. THanks!

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• Is this feasbile with GIS?

  - by Gnu Engineer

  I'm just getting myself to familiarize with GIS but i like to know before hand if the following is feasible with current GIS apps/tools... I get the point for an address by geocoding. Easy part. Now if the point falls within a boundary (may be a city/county/state) then i need to get the data (any id/flag) associated with the boundary. Based on the id/flag i then apply some business logic. My question is... How do i define the boundary? What tools should i use for it? How can i store the boundary definition in database in order to check if the point falls within it? This has to be done in the back end and not in visual maps as we don't intend to show/use maps. How do i associate my custom data (id/flag) with the above boundary definition? Hope i'm having right assumption on capabilities of GIS. Most of examples what i see is around people trying to show maps with data which is exactly not what i'm looking for. Also please suggest me some tools/books on this.

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• Why are changes to classes ignored after dom changes?

  - by Lg102

  I have a price grid that uses relative positioning to move a field around, beneath a box with: overflow: hidden;. In this is field, there are absolute-positioned boxes containing prices. When this box is hovered, the matching values above and left of the will change color. In order to achieve this, a class is toggled using jQuery. This initially works. However, after the grid is moved, the class change doesn't affect the block above the grid anymore. In the Chrome console, i can see the class being added, but it's css-styling isn't applied. No other styles for the element have changed. I am 100% sure there is no other style-rule influencing the element, it just stops responding to the change in class after the DOM has been altered. Can i 'refresh' the DOM somehow? Edit: I've tried to get the relevant code only: Adding the cell in the first place: $("#price_dates_cells").append("<div id='"+weekday[theBeginDate.getDay()]+"-"+theBeginDate.getDate()+"-"+(theBeginDate.getMonth()-1)+"' class='datecell' style='left: "+( Math.floor( difference / ( 3600 * 24 * 1000) ) * ( cellwidth ) )+"px'>"+weekday[theBeginDate.getDay()]+"<br>"+theBeginDate.getDate()+" "+yearmonth[theBeginDate.getMonth()]+"</div>"); Toggle the class: var str_element = "#"+weekday[Bdate.getDay()]+"-"+Bdate.getDate()+"-"+(Bdate.getMonth()-1); $(str_element).toggleClass("red"); and the movement that seems to cause the problem: $('#price_grid').animate({"top": (( ( horizontalMovement ) * cellheight)) }, 'fast', 'linear');

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• JApplet behaving unexpectedly

  - by JohnW

  import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Image; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import javax.swing.JApplet; import javax.swing.Timer; public class CountingSheep extends JApplet { private Image sheepImage; private Image backgroundImage; private GameBoard gameBoard; private scoreBoard scoreBoard; public void init() { loadImages(); gameBoard = new GameBoard(sheepImage, backgroundImage); scoreBoard = new scoreBoard(); getContentPane().add(gameBoard); getContentPane().add(scoreBoard); } public void loadImages() { sheepImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "sheep.png"); backgroundImage = getImage(getDocumentBase(), "bg.jpg"); } } Update guys: Alright, first of all, thank you very much for all the help you've given so far (specifically creemam and Hovercraft Full of Eels), and your persistence. You've helped me out a lot as this is incredibly important (i.e. me passing my degree). The problem now is: The program works correctly when nothing but the GameBoard class is added to the JApplet, however, when I try to add the ScoreBoard class, both Panel classes do not show on the Applet. I'm guessing this is now down to positioning? Any ideas? EDIT: Gone back to the previously asked question Hovercraft, and found it was due to the layout of the contentPane and the order at with the components were added. Thanks to all of you so much. People like you make the development community a bit of alright.

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• Database locking: ActiveRecord + Heroku

  - by JP

  I'm building a Sinatra based app for deployment on Heroku. You can imagine it like a standard URL shortener but where old shortcodes expire and become available for new URLs (I realise this is a silly concept but its easier to explain this way). I'm representing the shortcode in my database as an integer and redefining its reader to give a nice short and unique string from the integer. As some rows will be deleted, I've written code that goes thru all the shortcode integers and picks the first free one to use just before_save. Unfortunately I can make my code create two rows with identical shortcode integers if I run two instances very quickly one after another, which is obviously no good! How should I implement a locking system so that I can quickly save my record with a unique shortcode integer? Here's what I have so far: Chars = ('a'..'z').to_a + ('A'..'Z').to_a + ('0'..'9').to_a CharLength = Chars.length class Shorts < ActiveRecord::Base before_save :gen_shortcode after_save :done_shortcode def shortcode i = read_attribute(:shortcode).to_i return '0' if i == 0 s = '' while i > 0 s << Chars[i.modulo(CharLength)] i /= 62 end s end private def gen_shortcode shortcode = 0 self.class.find(:all,:order=>"shortcode ASC").each do |s| if s.read_attribute(:shortcode).to_i != shortcode # Begin locking? break end shortcode += 1 end write_attribute(:shortcode,shortcode) end def done_shortcode # End Locking? end end

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• Robotlegs: Warning: Injector already has a rule for type

  - by MikeW

  I have a bunch of warning messages like this appear when using Robotlegs/Signals. Everytime this command class executes, which is every 2-3 seconds ..this message displays below If you have overwritten this mapping intentionally you can use "injector.unmap()" prior to your replacement mapping in order to avoid seeing this message. Warning: Injector already has a rule for type "mx.messaging.messages::IMessage", named "". The command functions fine otherwise but I think I'm doing something wrong anyhow. public class MessageReceivedCommand extends SignalCommand { [Inject] public var message:IMessage; ...etc.. do something with message.. } the application context doesnt map IMessage to this command, as I only see an option to mapSignalClass , besides the payload is received fine. Wonder if anyone knows how I might either fix or suppress this message. I've tried calling this as the warning suggests injector.unmap(IMessage, "") but I receive an error - no mapping found for ::IMessage named "". Thanks Edit: A bit more info about the error Here is the signal that I dispatch to the command public class GameMessageSignal extends Signal { public function GameMessageSignal() { super(IMessage); } } which is dispatched from a IPushDataService class gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); and the implementation is wired up in the app context via injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService); along with the signal signalCommandMap.mapSignalClass(GameMessageSignal, MessageReceivedCommand); Edit #2: Probably good to point out also I inject an instance of GameMessageSignal into IPushDataService public class PushDataService extends BaseDataService implements IPushDataService { [Inject] public var gameMessage:GameMessageSignal; //then private function processMessage(message:MessageEvent):void { gameMessage.dispatch(message.message); } } Edit:3 The mappings i set up in the SignalContext: injector.mapSingleton(IPushDataService); injector.mapClass(IPushDataService, PushDataService);

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• Question regarding parent/child relationships with dynamically generated checkboxes using jquery

  - by Jeff

  I have a form of checkboxes, that is dynamically generated based on the users content. Sections of checkboxes are broken up by categories, and each category has projects within. For database purposes, the category values have checkboxes, that are hidden. IF a category has sub items that have checkboxes that are checked, THEN the category checkbox is checked as well. I have gotten this working ok using the JQuery .click(), but I can't figure out how to do it when the page loads. Here is my code for when a checkbox is actually clicked: $(".project").click(function() { if($(this).is(":checked") && $(this).hasClass("project")) { $(this).parent().parent().children(':first').attr('checked', true); }else if(!$(this).parent().children('.project').is(":checked")){ $(this).parent().parent().children(':first').attr('checked', false); } }); Now when I am editing the status of these boxes (meaning after they have been saved to the db) the category boxes are not showing up as checked even though their children projects are checked. What can I do to make it so that my category box will be checked at load time if that category's child is checked? Part of the problem I think is with the dynamically changing parent child setup, how can I find the parent box in order to have it checked? Thanks!

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• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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• iPhone dev: UIBarButtonItem or title not showing up in NavigationBar

  - by IceMan85

  Hello everyone, here my problem. I have a NavigationBar at the top, a TabBar at the bottom and a TableView at the center of the screen. Very normal situation. I set it all up in IB and I have set this in the app delegate : ExpensesListNavController *expensesListNavController; This in order to be able to add new views to the stack. I need to have 3 levels: - list of items in a TableView - OK - firstLevel: once pressed one cell a view is added to the stack - OK - second level: one pressed the "modify" button on the navBar on the firstLevel I want to show a new view that can be customized by the user. My Problem is coming when trying to add the "Modify" button in the "firstLevelView". Here-below my code -(IBAction) modify:(id)sender { if (editableDetailViewController == nil) { editableDetailViewController = [[editableDetailViewController alloc] init]; } editableDetailViewController.expense = expense; [appDelegate.expensesListNavController pushViewController:editableDetailViewController animated:YES]; editableDetailViewController = nil; } // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UIBarButtonItem *modifyButton = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle:@"Modify" style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain target:self action:@selector(modify:)]; appDelegate.expensesListNavController.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = modifyButton; appDelegate.expensesListNavController.navigationItem.title = @"Titoloooo"; NSLog(@"NavBar button has just been set !!"); [modifyButton release]; Nothing is being showed, neither title nor the button. Do you have any idea of what is happening ?? I really cannot figure out !!! Thanks a lot in advance, AM

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• How to run perl script with a few arguments from php

  - by Cristalla

  My html webpage calls php script to upload files to the server from a local computer as follows. <form enctype="multipart/form-data" action="upload.php" method="POST"> <p><b><h3> <font color="#003366"> (1) Upload your reading text file. </font> </h3> </b> </p> <INPUT type="file" name="uploaded" size="50" > <br/> <input type="submit" name="files" value="upload"> </form> In order to process with an uploaded file, my php script calls shell script $output=system('/bin/sh connector_0.sh'); and my shell script is composed of a series of python/perl scripts. #!/bin/sh python main_senselearner_final_0.py senseLearner.pl -i Uploaded_Files/slinput_0.txt -o Uploaded_Files/presloutput_0 .txt -model modelNNCollocations -model modelJJCollocations -model modelVBColloc ations -pos python smutngslout_0.py python genhtml_0.py Now, the problem is the following: all python scripts in shell script worked fine through php. But perl script didn't work. When I run shell script by myself in my server, all four scripts in shell worked perfectly. However, when I run shell script from php, only perl script doesn't work. Would you please give me any tips to solve this problem? Many thanks!!!

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• How do I organize C# classes that inherit from one another, but also have properties that inherit from one another?

  - by Chris

  I have an application that has a concept of a Venue, a place where events happen. A Venue is owned by a Company and has many VenueParts. So, it looks like this: public abstract class Venue { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual Company Company { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<VenuePart> VenueParts { get; set; } } A Venue can be a GolfCourseVenue, which is a Venue that has a Slope and a specific kind of VenuePart called a HoleVenuePart: public class GolfCourseVenue { public string Slope { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<HoleVenuePart> Holes { get; set; } } In the future, there may also be other kinds of Venues that all inherit from Venue. They might add their own fields, and will always have VenueParts of their own specific type. My declarations above seem wrong, because now I have a GolfCourseVenue with two collections, when really it should just have the one. I can't override it, because the type is different, right? When I run reports, I would like to refer to the classes generically, where I just spit out Venues and VenueParts. But, when I render forms and such, I would like to be specific. I have a lot of relationships like this and am wondering what I am doing wrong. For example, I have an Order that has OrderItems, but also specific kinds of Orders that have specific kinds of OrderItems.

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• facebook Hacker cup: studious Student problem.

  - by smartmuki

  During the qualification round, the following question was asked: You've been given a list of words to study and memorize. Being a diligent student of language and the arts, you've decided to not study them at all and instead make up pointless games based on them. One game you've come up with is to see how you can concatenate the words to generate the lexicographically lowest possible string. Input As input for playing this game you will receive a text file containing an integer N, the number of word sets you need to play your game against. This will be followed by N word sets, each starting with an integer M, the number of words in the set, followed by M words. All tokens in the input will be separated by some whitespace and, aside from N and M, will consist entirely of lowercase letters. Output Your submission should contain the lexicographically shortest strings for each corresponding word set, one per line and in order. Constraints 1 <= N <= 100 1 <= M <= 9 1 <= all word lengths <= 10 Example input 5 6 facebook hacker cup for studious students 5 k duz q rc lvraw 5 mybea zdr yubx xe dyroiy 5 jibw ji jp bw jibw 5 uiuy hopji li j dcyi Example output cupfacebookforhackerstudentsstudious duzklvrawqrc dyroiymybeaxeyubxzdr bwjibwjibwjijp dcyihopjijliuiuy The program I wrote goes as: chomp($numberElements=<STDIN>); for(my $i=0; $i < $numberElements; $i++) { my $string; chomp ($string = <STDIN>); my @array=split(/\s+/,$string); my $number=shift @array; @sorted=sort @array; $sortedStr=join("",@sorted); push(@data,$sortedStr); } foreach (@data) { print "$_\n"; } The program gives the correct output for the given test cases but still facebook shows it to be incorrect. Is there something wrong with the program??

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• Algorithm to determine indices i..j of array A containing all the elements of another array B

  - by Skylark

  I came across this question on an interview questions thread. Here is the question: Given two integer arrays A [1..n] and B[1..m], find the smallest window in A that contains all elements of B. In other words, find a pair < i , j such that A[i..j] contains B[1..m]. If A doesn't contain all the elements of B, then i,j can be returned as -1. The integers in A need not be in the same order as they are in B. If there are more than one smallest window (different, but have the same size), then its enough to return one of them. Example: A[1,2,5,11,2,6,8,24,101,17,8] and B[5,2,11,8,17]. The algorithm should return i = 2 (index of 5 in A) and j = 9 (index of 17 in A). Now I can think of two variations. Let's suppose that B has duplicates. This variation doesn't consider the number of times each element occurs in B. It just checks for all the unique elements that occur in B and finds the smallest corresponding window in A that satisfies the above problem. For example, if A[1,2,4,5,7] and B[2,2,5], this variation doesn't bother about there being two 2's in B and just checks A for the unique integers in B namely 2 and 5 and hence returns i=1, j=3. This variation accounts for duplicates in B. If there are two 2's in B, then it expects to see at least two 2's in A as well. If not, it returns -1,-1. When you answer, please do let me know which variation you are answering. Pseudocode should do. Please mention space and time complexity if it is tricky to calculate it. Mention if your solution assumes array indices to start at 1 or 0 too. Thanks in advance.

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• Is it bad practise to initialise fields outside of an explicit constructor

  - by MrTortoise

  So its monday and we are arguing about coding practises. The examples here are a litttle too simple, but the real deal has several constructors. In order to initialise the simple values (eg dates to their min value) I have moved the code out of the constructors and into the field definitions. public class ConstructorExample { string _string = "John"; } public class ConstructorExample2 { string _string; public ConstructorExample2() { _string = "John"; } } How should it be done by the book. I tend to be very case by case and so am maybe a little lax abotu this kind of thing. However i feel that accams razor tells me to move the initialisation out of multiple constructors. Of course I could always move this shared initialisation into a private method. The question is essentially ... is initialising fields where they are defined as opposed to the constructor bad in any way? The argument I am facing is one of error handling, but i do not feel it is relevant as there are no possible exceptions that won't be picked up at compile time.

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• Eclipse cannot find existing project in build path

  - by PNS

  Here is probably one of the idiosyncrasies of Eclipse and its handling of build paths, which cannot be fixed despite all sorts of workarounds tested so far. The issue relates to a workspace of several projects, each of which compiles into its own JAR. Dependencies among the projects are resolved by adding the relevant ones to the build path (no Maven or other external tool or plugin is used), via Project -> Properties -> Java Build Path -> Projects Among all these projects, a couple (say, com.example.p1 and com.example.p2) refuse to recognize a third (and simple) one (say, com.example.p3), while all other projects do. So, although P3 is added to the build path, all related classes from P3 are imported properly and the source code of each such class is accessible by hitting F3, Eclipse keeps complaining that The import com.example.p3 cannot be resolved and SomeClass cannot be resolved to a type where com.example.p3.SomeClass is one of the P3 classes. If instead of the P3 project I put its compiled JAR in the build path, the issue disappears. However, code in P3 changes frequently and it is a time waste to keep compiling and refreshing the workspace so that the change is picked up, not to mention that this should not happen in an IDE anyway (and it does not for the other projects using P3). Among the workarounds tried are things like: Removing and adding again P1, P2, P3 Cleaning up and recompiling everything Checking whether any other project loads the P3 JAR Putting P3 at the top of the Eclipse build path "Order and Export" list Using the "Fix project setup" suggestion of Eclipse (available when hovering the mouse over the red-underlined-error compilation line). Actually, this option offers adding to the build path either P3 or its JAR, but if P3 is added, the issue reappears. Any ideas?

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• entity framework navigation property further filter without loading into memory

  - by cellik

  Hi, I've two entities with 1 to N relation in between. Let's say Books and Pages. Book has a navigation property as Pages. Book has BookId as an identifier and Page has an auto generated id and a scalar property named PageNo. LazyLoading is set to true. I've generated this using VS2010 & .net 4.0 and created a database from that. In the partial class of Book, I need a GetPage function like below public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { //checking whether it exist etc are not included for simplicity return Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber).First(); } This works. However, since Pages property in the Book is an EntityCollection it has to load all Pages of a book in memory in order to get the one page (this slows down the app when this function is hit for the first time for a given book). i.e. Framework does not merge the queries and run them at once. It loads the Pages in memory and then uses LINQ to objects to do the second part To overcome this I've changed the code as follows public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { MyContainer container = new MyContainer(); return container.Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber && p.Book.BookId==BookId).First(); } This works considerably faster however it doesn't take into account the pages that have not been serialized to the db. So, both options has its cons. Is there any trick in the framework to overcome this situation. This must be a common scenario where you don't want all of the objects of a Navigation property loaded in memory when you don't need them.

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• Need help extrapolating Java code

  - by Berlioz

  If anyone familiar with Rebecca Wirfs-Brock, she has a piece of Java code found in her book titled, Object Design: Roles, Responsibilities, and Collaborations. Here is the quote Applying Double Dispatch to a Specific Problem To implement the game Rock, Paper, Scissors we need to write code that determines whether one object “beats” another. The game has nine possible outcomes based on the three kinds of objects. The number of interactions is the cross product of the kinds of objects. Case or switch statements are often governed by the type of data that is being operated on. The object-oriented language equivalent is to base its actions on the class of some other object. In Java, it looks like this Here is the piece of Java code on page 16 ' import java.util.*; import java.lang.*; public class Rock { public static void main(String args[]) { } public static boolean beats(GameObject object) { if (object.getClass.getName().equals("Rock")) { result = false; } else if (object.getClass.getName().equals("Paper")) { result = false; } else if(object.getClass.getName().equals("Scissors")) { result = true; } return result; } }' ===This is not a very good solution. First, the receiver needs to know too much about the argument. Second, there is one of these nested conditional statements in each of the three classes. If new kinds of objects could be added to the game, each of the three classes would have to be modified. Can anyone share with me how to get this "less than optimal" piece of code to work in order to see it 'working'. She proceeds to demonstrate a better way, but I will spare you. Thanks

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