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  • Maven nexus with jetty 7 and apache2 reverse proxy

    - by user613154
    Hello stackoverflow ! Here is my problem : i try to run a maven nexus behind an apache reverse proxy. As i have multiples war in my jetty, i want the nexus to run here : http://localhost:8080/nexus I made a jetty context file as follow : {jetty.home}/contexts/nexus.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <!DOCTYPE Configure PUBLIC "-//Jetty//Configure//EN" "http://www.eclipse.org/jetty/configure.dtd"> <Configure class="org.eclipse.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <Set name="contextPath">/nexus</Set> <Set name="war"><SystemProperty name="jetty.home" default="."/>/webapps/nexus.war</Set> </Configure> My jetty connector in jetty.xml is as follow : <Call name="addConnector"> <Arg> <New class="org.eclipse.jetty.server.nio.SelectChannelConnector"> <Set name="host"><Property name="jetty.host" /></Set> <Set name="port"><Property name="jetty.port" default="8080"/></Set> <Set name="maxIdleTime">300000</Set> <Set name="Acceptors">2</Set> <Set name="forwarded">true</Set> <Set name="statsOn">false</Set> <Set name="confidentialPort">8443</Set> <Set name="lowResourcesConnections">20000</Set> <Set name="lowResourcesMaxIdleTime">5000</Set> </New> </Arg> </Call> I want http://maven.foo.com/ as an end point for the nexus, so i made this apache2 configuration file : ProxyRequests Off ProxyVia Off ProxyPreserveHost On <Proxy *> AddDefaultCharset off Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName maven.foo.com ProxyPass / http://localhost:8080/nexus/ ProxyPassReverse / http://localhost:8080/nexus/ ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error_nexus.log </VirtualHost> But i can't manage to make it work. The error message displayed in the browser is "The server has not found anything matching the request URI". I tried to read docs on jetty and apache web site, but didn't find information for mapping a subdomain "sub.foo.com" to a context "localhost:8080/sub" ... Any help welcome ! Thanks

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  • log4net logging problem

    - by Dotnet_user
    Hello everyone, I'm not sure if this is the right forum to post this question. But I'm just hoping someone here might have used log4net in the past, so hoping to get some help. I'm using log4net to log my exceptions. The configuration settings look like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net"/> </configSections> <log4net debug="false"> <appender name="RollingLogFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="C:\Logs\sample.log" /> <appendToFile value="true"/> <rollingStyle value="Size"/> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10"/> <maximumFileSize value="10MB"/> <staticLogFileName value="true"/> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%-5level %date %logger.%method[line %line] - %message%newline"/> </layout> </appender> <root> <level value="INFO"/> <appender-ref ref="RollingLogFileAppender"/> </root> </log4net> </configuration> I started out by adding this configuration to web.config, but I got an error (VS studio could not find a schema for log4net-"Could not find schema information for the element log4net"). So I followed this link (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/174430/log4net-could-not-find-schema-information-messages) and configured my settings in a separate xml file and added the following line of code in my AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(ConfigFile = "xmlfile.xml", Watch = true)] And in the actual code, I placed this line: public void CreateUser(String username, String password) { try { log.Info("Inside createuser"); //code for creating user } catch(exception e) { log.Info("something happened in create user", e); } } The problem is that the log file is not being created. I can't see anything inside C:\Logs. Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong here? Any suggestions/inputs will be very helpful. Thank you all in advance.

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  • trouble with utf-8 chars & apache2 rewrite rules

    - by tixrus
    I see the post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2565864/validating-utf-8-in-htaccess-rewrite-rule and I think that is great, but a more fundamental problem I am having first: I needed to expand to handle utf-8 chars for query string parameters, names of directories, files, and used in displays to users etc. I configured my Apache with DefaultCharset utf-8 and also my php if that matters. My original rewrite rule filtered everything except regular A-Za-z and underscore and hyphen. and it worked. Anything else would give you a 404 (which is what I want!) Now, however it seems that everything matches, including stuff I don't want, however, although it seems to match it doesn't go in the query string unless it is a regular A-Za-z_- character string. I find this confusing, because the rule says put whatever you matched into the query string: Here is the original rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/([A-Za-z_-]+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] and here is the revised rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/(\w+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] I made the change because somewhere I read that \w matches ALL the alpha chars where as A-Zetc. only matches the ones without accents and stuff. It doesn't seem to matter which of those rules I use: Here is what happens: In the application I have this: echo $_GET['g']; If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/USA it echoes out "USA" and works fine. If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/México it echoes nothing for that and warns me that index g is not defined and of course doesn't get resources for Mexico. if I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/fuzzle/buzzle/j.qle it does the same thing. This last case should be a 404! And it does this no matter which of the above rules I use. I configured a rewrite log RewriteLogLevel 5 RewriteLog /opt/local/apache2/logs/puzzles.httpd.rewrite but it is empty. Here is from the regular access log (it gives a status of 200) [26/May/2010:11:21:42 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M%C3%A9xico HTTP/1.1" 200 342 [26/May/2010:11:21:54 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M/l.foo HTTP/1.1" 200 342 What can I do to get these $%#$@(*#@!!! characters but not slash, dot or other non-alpha into my program, and once there, will it decode them correctly??? Would posix char classes work any better? Is there anything else I need to configure?

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  • Fixed point math in c#?

    - by x4000
    Hi there, I was wondering if anyone here knows of any good resources for fixed point math in c#? I've seen things like this (http://2ddev.72dpiarmy.com/viewtopic.php?id=156) and this (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/79677/whats-the-best-way-to-do-fixed-point-math), and a number of discussions about whether decimal is really fixed point or actually floating point (update: responders have confirmed that it's definitely floating point), but I haven't seen a solid C# library for things like calculating cosine and sine. My needs are simple -- I need the basic operators, plus cosine, sine, arctan2, PI... I think that's about it. Maybe sqrt. I'm programming a 2D RTS game, which I have largely working, but the unit movement when using floating-point math (doubles) has very small inaccuracies over time (10-30 minutes) across multiple machines, leading to desyncs. This is presently only between a 32 bit OS and a 64 bit OS, all the 32 bit machines seem to stay in sync without issue, which is what makes me think this is a floating point issue. I was aware from this as a possible issue from the outset, and so have limited my use of non-integer position math as much as possible, but for smooth diagonal movement at varying speeds I'm calculating the angle between points in radians, then getting the x and y components of movement with sin and cos. That's the main issue. I'm also doing some calculations for line segment intersections, line-circle intersections, circle-rect intersections, etc, that also probably need to move from floating-point to fixed-point to avoid cross-machine issues. If there's something open source in Java or VB or another comparable language, I could probably convert the code for my uses. The main priority for me is accuracy, although I'd like as little speed loss over present performance as possible. This whole fixed point math thing is very new to me, and I'm surprised by how little practical information on it there is on google -- most stuff seems to be either theory or dense C++ header files. Anything you could do to point me in the right direction is much appreciated; if I can get this working, I plan to open-source the math functions I put together so that there will be a resource for other C# programmers out there. UPDATE: I could definitely make a cosine/sine lookup table work for my purposes, but I don't think that would work for arctan2, since I'd need to generate a table with about 64,000x64,000 entries (yikes). If you know any programmatic explanations of efficient ways to calculate things like arctan2, that would be awesome. My math background is all right, but the advanced formulas and traditional math notation are very difficult for me to translate into code.

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  • Winform radiobutton data binding

    - by Rajarshi
    I am following the "Presentation Model" design pattern suggested by Martin Fowler for my GUI architecture in a Windows Forms project. "The essence of a Presentation Model is of a fully self-contained class that represents all the data and behavior of the UI window, but without any of the controls used to render that UI on the screen. A view then simply projects the state of the presentation model onto the glass...." - Martin Fowler Read more about this pattern at www.martinfowler.com/eaaDev/PresentationModel.html I am finding the concept very fluid and easy to understand except this one issue of data binding RadioButtons to properties on the Data/Domain object. Suposing I have a Windows Form with 3 radio buttons to depict some "Mode" options as - Auto Manual Import How can I use boolean properties on Data/Domain Objects to DataBind to these buttons? I have tried many ways but to no avail. For example I would like to code like - rbtnAutoMode.DataBindings.Add("Text", myBusinessObject, "IsAutoMode"); rbtnManualMode.DataBindings.Add("Text", myBusinessObject, "IsManualMode"); rbtnImportMode.DataBindings.Add("Text", myBusinessObject, "IsImportMode"); There should be a fourth property like "SelectedMode" on the data/domain object which at the end should depict a single value like "SelectedMode = Auto". I am trying to update this property when any of the "IsAutoMode", "IsManualMode" or "IsImportMode" is changed, e.g. through the property setters. I have INotifyPropertyChanged implemented on my data/domain object so, updating any data/domain object property automatically updates my UI controls, that's not an issue. There is a good example of binding 2 radio buttons here - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/344964/how-do-i-use-databinding-with-windows-forms-radio-buttons but I am missing the link while implementing the same with 3 buttons. I am having very erratic behaviors for the Radio Buttons. I hope I was able to explain reasonably. I am actually in a hurry and could not put a detailed code on post, but any help in this regard is appreciated. There is a simple solution to this issue by exposing a method like - public void SetMode(Modes mode) { this._selectedMode = mode; } which could be called from the "CheckedChanged" event of the Radio Buttons from the UI and would perfectly set the "SelectedMode" on the business object, but I need to stretch the limits to verify whether this can be done by DataBinding.

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  • Getting results in a result set from dynamic SQL in Oracle

    - by msorens
    This question is similar to a couple others I have found on StackOverflow, but the differences are signficant enough to me to warrant a new question, so here it is: I want to obtain a result set from dynamic SQL in Oracle and then display it as a result set in a SqlDeveloper-like tool, just as if I had executed the dynamic SQL statement directly. This is straightforward in SQL Server, so to be concrete, here is an example from SQL Server that returns a result set in SQL Server Management Studio or Query Explorer: EXEC sp_executesql N'select * from countries' Or more properly: DECLARE @stmt nvarchar(100) SET @stmt = N'select * from countries' EXEC sp_executesql @stmt The question "How to return a resultset / cursor from a Oracle PL/SQL anonymous block that executes Dynamic SQL?" addresses the first half of the problem--executing dynamic SQL into a cursor. The question "How to make Oracle procedure return result sets" provides a similar answer. Web search has revealed many variations of the same theme, all addressing just the first half of my question. I found this post explaining how to do it in SqlDeveloper, but that uses a bit of functionality of SqlDeveloper. I am actually using a custom query tool so I need the solution to be self-contained in the SQL code. This custom query tool similarly does not have the capability to show output of print (dbms_output.put_line) statements; it only displays result sets. Here is yet one more possible avenue using 'execute immediate...bulk collect', but this example again renders the results with a loop of dbms_output.put_line statements. This link attempts to address the topic but the question never quite got answered there either. Assuming this is possible, I will add one more condition: I would like to do this without having to define a function or procedure (due to limited DB permissions). That is, I would like to execute a self-contained PL/SQL block containing dynamic SQL and return a result set in SqlDeveloper or a similar tool. So to summarize: I want to execute an arbitrary SQL statement (hence dynamic SQL). The platform is Oracle. The solution must be a PL/SQL block with no procedures or functions. The output must be generated as a canonical result set; no print statements. The output must render as a result set in SqlDeveloper without using any SqlDeveloper special functionality. Any suggestions?

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  • Rail test case fixtures not loading

    - by Deano
    Rails appears to not be loading any fixtures for unit or functional tests. I have a simple 'products.yml' that parses and appears correct: ruby: title: Programming Ruby 1.9 description: Ruby is the fastest growing and most exciting dynamic language out there. If you need to get working programs delivered fast, you should add Ruby to your toolbox. price: 49.50 image_url: ruby.png My controller functional test begins with: require 'test_helper' class ProductsControllerTest < ActionController::TestCase fixtures :products setup do @product = products(:one) @update = { :title => 'Lorem Ipsum' , :description => 'Wibbles are fun!' , :image_url => 'lorem.jpg' , :price => 19.95 } end According to the book, Rails should "magically" load the fixtures (as my test_helper.rb has fixtures :all in it. I also added the explicit fixtures load (seen above). Yes Rails complains: user @ host ~/Dropbox/Rails/depot > rake test:functionals (in /Somewhere/Users/user/Dropbox/Rails/depot) /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/bin/ruby -Ilib:test "/System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.3/lib/rake/rake_test_loader.rb" "test/functional/products_controller_test.rb" Loaded suite /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rake-0.8.3/lib/rake/rake_test_loader Started EEEEEEE Finished in 0.062506 seconds. 1) Error: test_should_create_product(ProductsControllerTest): NoMethodError: undefined method `products' for ProductsControllerTest:Class /test/functional/products_controller_test.rb:7 2) Error: test_should_destroy_product(ProductsControllerTest): NoMethodError: undefined method `products' for ProductsControllerTest:Class /test/functional/products_controller_test.rb:7 ... I did come across the other Rails test fixture question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1547634/rails-unit-testing-doesnt-load-fixtures, but that leads to a plugin issue (something to do with the order of loading fixtures). BTW, I am developing on Mac OS X 10.6 with Rail 2.3.5 and Ruby 1.8.7, no additional plugins (beyond the base install). Any pointers on how to debug, why the magic of Rails appears to be failing here? Is it a version problem? Can I trace code into the libraries and find the answer? There are so many "mixin" modules I can't find where the fixtures method really lives.

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  • Creating thousands of records in Rails

    - by willCosgrove
    Let me set the stage: My application deals with gift cards. When we create cards they have to have a unique string that the user can use to redeem it with. So when someone orders our gift cards, like a retailer, we need to make a lot of new card objects and store them in the DB. With that in mind, I'm trying to see how quickly I can have my application generate 100,000 Cards. Database expert, I am not, so I need someone to explain this little phenomena: When I create 1000 Cards, it takes 5 seconds. When I create 100,000 cards it should take 500 seconds right? Now I know what you're wanting to see, the card creation method I'm using, because the first assumption would be that it's getting slower because it's checking the uniqueness of a bunch of cards, more as it goes along. But I can show you my rake task desc "Creates cards for a retailer" task :order_cards, [:number_of_cards, :value, :retailer_name] => :environment do |t, args| t = Time.now puts "Searching for retailer" @retailer = Retailer.find_by_name(args[:retailer_name]) puts "Retailer found" puts "Generating codes" value = args[:value].to_i number_of_cards = args[:number_of_cards].to_i codes = [] top_off_codes(codes, number_of_cards) while codes != codes.uniq codes.uniq! top_off_codes(codes, number_of_cards) end stored_codes = Card.all.collect do |c| c.code end while codes != (codes - stored_codes) codes -= stored_codes top_off_codes(codes, number_of_cards) end puts "Codes are unique and generated" puts "Creating bundle" @bundle = @retailer.bundles.create!(:value => value) puts "Bundle created" puts "Creating cards" @bundle.transaction do codes.each do |code| @bundle.cards.create!(:code => code) end end puts "Cards generated in #{Time.now - t}s" end def top_off_codes(codes, intended_number) (intended_number - codes.size).times do codes << ReadableRandom.get(CODE_LENGTH) end end I'm using a gem called readable_random for the unique code. So if you read through all of that code, you'll see that it does all of it's uniqueness testing before it ever starts creating cards. It also writes status updates to the screen while it's running, and it always sits for a while at creating. Meanwhile it flies through the uniqueness tests. So my question to the stackoverflow community is: Why is my database slowing down as I add more cards? Why is this not a linear function in regards to time per card? I'm sure the answer is simple and I'm just a moron who knows nothing about data storage. And if anyone has any suggestions, how would you optimize this method, and how fast do you think you could get it to create 100,000 cards? (When I plotted out my times on a graph and did a quick curve fit to get my line formula, I calculated how long it would take to create 100,000 cards with my current code and it says 5.5 hours. That maybe completely wrong, I'm not sure. But if it stays on the line I curve fitted, it would be right around there.)

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  • Can a View Controller manage more than 1 nib based view?

    - by Hugo Brynjar
    I have a VC controlling a screen of content that has 2 modes; a normal mode and an edit mode. Can I create a single VC with 2 views, each from separate nibs? In many situations on the iphone, you have a VC which controls an associated view. Then on a button press or other event, a new VC is loaded and its view becomes the top level view etc. But in this situation, I have 2 modes that I want to use the same VC for, because they are closely related. So I want a VC which can swap in/out 2 views. As per here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/863321/iphone-how-to-load-a-view-using-a-nib-file-created-with-interface-builder/2683153#2683153 I have found that I can load a VC with an associated view from a nib and then later on load a different view from another nib and make that new view the active view. NSArray *nibObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"EditMode" owner:self options:nil]; UIView *theEditView = [nibObjects objectAtIndex:0]; self.editView = theEditView; [self.view addSubview:theEditView]; The secondary nib has outlets wired up to the VC like the primary nib. When the new nib is loaded, the outlets are all connected up fine and everything works nicely. Unfortunately when this edit view is then removed, there doesn't seem to be any elegant way of getting the outlets hooked up again to the (normal mode) view from the original nib. Nib loading and outlet setting seems a once only thing. So, if you want to have a VC that swaps in/out 2 views without creating a new VC, what are the options? 1) You can do everything in code, but I want to use nibs because it makes creating the UI simpler. 2) You have 1 nib for your VC and just hide/show elements using the hidden property of UIView and its subclasses. 3) You load a new nib as described above. This is fine for the new nib, but how do you sort the outlets when you go back to the original nib. 4) Give up and accept having a 1:1 between VCs and nibs. There is a nib for normal mode, a nib for edit mode and each mode has a VC that subclasses a common superclass. In the end, I went with 4) and it works, but requires a fair amount of extra work, because I have a model class that I instantiate in normal mode and then have to pass to the edit mode VC because both modes need access to the model. I'm also using NSTimer and have to start and stop the timer in each mode. It is because of all this shared functionality that I wanted a single VC with 2 nibs in the first place.

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  • Soon to be PhD in Computer Science - Which Path to Follow?

    - by mttr
    I am going to submit my PhD thesis within the next six months. My PhD is on managing the availabiity of large-scale distributed systems, so I have some experience actually building non-trivial systems (+ I have four years experience working as a programmer). I am now trying to figure out what I should do following the PhD. I enjoy research (a quick definition: identify problem, come up with solution, ask interesting questions, find ways to answer them, build system, experiment, contribute some new knowledge and publish). I also like teaching and supervising students. It would seem that a career in academia is the ideal thing to do (can work on non-trivial problems and contribute something of use to some or more people). However, a career in academia has two significant drawbacks. First, it can be difficult to gain access to real systems with real users which then display real problems. This creates the danger that you do work that seems important (to you and maybe to some of your colleagues), but is not really relevant to anything or anyone. Second, the pay is pretty sad. Apparently, you have to sacrifice this for the privilege of doing research. I enjoy programming, but don't just want to hack some web-based system for the rest of my life. That is, working in IT for a bank is not a future I see myself enjoying. I want to work on interesting problms (that's difficult to define clearly): things where you don't know how to start, that take some time to figure out and attack, that require a rigorous approach to demonstrate that the problem has been solved, and problems that need a solution in the real world. Give the experience of people on stackoverflow, what do you think suitable options are and why (or alternatively, what gaps in my thinking does the above reveal)? Is industrial research (aka IBM Research, Microsoft Research) the only alternative avenue to a career in academia? What other areas, companies, occupations, etc. could provide me with stimulating, inspiring work? Which regions, countries am I most likely to find such work? Please share your experience.

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  • Non RBAC User Roles and Permissions System: a role with properties

    - by micha12
    We are currently designing a User Roles and Permissions System in our web application (ASP.NET), and it seems that we have several cases that do no fit within the classical Role-Based Access Control (RBAC). I will post several questions, each devoted to a particular case. This is my second question (the first question is here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2839797/non-rbac-user-roles-and-permissions-system-checking-the-users-city). We have the following case: we need to implement a Manager role in our web application. However, a Manager can belong to one or several companies (within a big group of companies for which we are creating this web app). Say, there can be “Manager of companies A and B”, “Manager of company C”, etc. Depending on the companies that the Manager belongs, he has access to certain operations: for example, he can communicate with clients only of those companies that he belongs to. That is, “Manager of companies A and B” can only have contacts with clients of companies A and B, and not with those of company C. He can also view clients’ details pages of companies A and B and not of C, etc. It seems that this case falls within the RBAC. However, this is not really the case. We will need to create a ManagerRole class that will have a Companies property – that is, this will not be just a role as a collection of permissions (like in the classical RBAC), but a role with properties! This was just one example of a role having properties. There will be others: for example, an Administrator role that will also belong to a number of companies and will also have other custom properties. This means that we will a hierarchy or roles classes: class Role – base class class ManagerRole : Role List Companies class AdministratorRole : Role List Companies Other properties We investigated pure RBAC and its implementation in several systems, and found no systems featuring a hierarchy or roles, each having custom properties. In RBAC, roles are just collections of permissions. We could model our cases using permission with properties, like ManagerPermission, AdministratorPermission, but this has a lot of drawbacks, the main being that we will not be able to assign a role like “Manager of Companies A and B” to a user directly, but will have to create a role containing a ManagerPermission for companies A and B… Moreover, a "Manager" seems to be rather a "role" (position in the company) rather than a "permission" from the linguistic point of view. Would be grateful for any ideas on this subject, as well as any experience in this field! Thank you.

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  • Convert a PDF to a Transparent PNG with GhostScript

    - by Jonathon Wolfe
    Hi all. I am attempting, unsuccessfully, to use Ghostscript to rasterize PDF files with a transparent background to PNG files with a transparent background. I've searched high and low for questions from others attempting the same thing and none of the posted solutions, which as far as I can tell come down to specifying -sDEVICE=pngalpha, have worked with my test files. At this point I would really appreciate any advice or tips a more experienced hand could provide. My test PDF is located here: http://www.kolossus.com/files/test.pdf It could be that the issue is with this file, but I doubt it. As far as I can tell, it has no specified background, and when I open the file with a transparency-aware app like Photoshop or Illustrator, sure enough it displays with a transparent background. However, when opened with an application like Adobe Reader the file is rendered with a white background. I believe that this has more to do with the application rendering the PDF than with the PDF itself -- apps like Adobe Reader assume you want to see what a printed document will look like and therefore always show a white canvas behind the artwork -- but I can't be sure. The gs command I'm using is: gs -dNOPAUSE -dBATCH -sDEVICE=pngalpha -r72 -sOutputFile=test.png test.pdf This produces a PNG that has transparent pixels outside of the bounding box of the artwork in the file, but all pixels that are inside the artwork's bounding box are rasterized against a white background. This is a problem for me, as my artwork has drop shadows and antialiased edges that need to be preserved in the final output, and can't just be postprocessed out with ImageMagick. A sample of my PNG output is at the same location as the pdf above, with .png at the end (stackoverflow won't let me include more than one url in my post). Interestingly, I see no effects from using the -dBackgroundColor flag, even if I set it to something non-white like -dBackgroundColor=16#ff0000. Perhaps my understanding of the syntax of this flag is wrong. Also interestingly, I see no effects from using the -dTextAlphaBits=4 -dGraphicsAlphaBits=4 flags to try to enable subpixel antialiasing. I would also appreciate any advice on how to enable subpixel antialiasing, especially on text. Finally, I'm using GPL Ghostscript 8.64 on Mac OS 10.5.7, and the rendering workflow I'm trying to get set up is to generate transparent PNG images from PDFs output by PrinceXML. I'm calling Ghostscript directly for the rasterization instead of using ImageMagick because ImageMagick delegates to Ghostscript for PDF rasterization and I should be able to control the rasterization better by calling GS directly. Thanks for your help. -Jon Wolfe

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  • PHP mysqli wrapper: passing by reference with __call() and call_user_func_array()

    - by Dave
    Hi everyone. I'm a long running fan of stackoverflow, first time poster. I'd love to see if someone can help me with this. Let me dig in with a little code, then I'll explain my problem. I have the following wrapper classes: class mysqli_wrapper { private static $mysqli_obj; function __construct() // Recycles the mysqli object { if (!isset(self::$mysqli_obj)) { self::$mysqli_obj = new mysqli(MYSQL_SERVER, MYSQL_USER, MYSQL_PASS, MYSQL_DBNAME); } } function __call($method, $args) { return call_user_func_array(array(self::$mysqli_obj, $method), $args); } function __get($para) { return self::$mysqli_obj->$para; } function prepare($query) // Overloaded, returns statement wrapper { return new mysqli_stmt_wrapper(self::$mysqli_obj, $query); } } class mysqli_stmt_wrapper { private $stmt_obj; function __construct($link, $query) { $this->stmt_obj = mysqli_prepare($link, $query); } function __call($method, $args) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->stmt_obj, $method), $args); } function __get($para) { return $this->stmt_obj->$para; } // Other methods will be added here } My problem is that when I call bind_result() on the mysqli_stmt_wrapper class, my variables don't seem to be passed by reference and nothing gets returned. To illustrate, if I run this section of code, I only get NULL's: $mysqli = new mysqli_wrapper; $stmt = $mysqli->prepare("SELECT cfg_key, cfg_value FROM config"); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($cfg_key, $cfg_value); while ($stmt->fetch()) { var_dump($cfg_key); var_dump($cfg_value); } $stmt->close(); I also get a nice error from PHP which tells me: PHP Warning: Parameter 1 to mysqli_stmt::bind_result() expected to be a reference, value given in test.php on line 48 I've tried to overload the bind_param() function, but I can't figure out how to get a variable number of arguments by reference. func_get_args() doesn't seem to be able to help either. If I pass the variables by reference as in $stmt->bind_result(&$cfg_key, &$cfg_value) it should work, but this is deprecated behaviour and throws more errors. Does anyone have some ideas around this? Thanks so much for your time.

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  • "Alert" and "if" changes behaviour of dom copying from iframe to div

    - by lowkey
    Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance! UPDATE: Like the answers said i have created an event handler. They used jQuery, i have made one in mootools: window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('buffer').addEvent('load', function(){ $('display').set('html',window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML) window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; }).set('src','somelink'); }); Bonus question: 3) Im new at stackoverflow (what an amazing place!), is it better if i make new threads for follow up questions?

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  • Am I "wasting" my time learning C and other low level stuff ?

    - by Andreas Grech
    I have just recently started learning C and the reason I did that was because frankly, I consider myself to be of a "less-developer" than the people who know and work with C. Thus I planned to start learning ASM, C, C++ and bought the K&R book and started pushing myself to learn the C Programming Language and up till now I'm doing great...learning about arrays the low level way (ie the pointer + offset thing), pointers and all that and obviously asking questions on stackoverflow for guidance. My problem is that sometimes I get thinking if instead of learning this low level stuff, maybe I should maybe spend more time learning newer, more widely used technologies...basically, more web stuff. Now I am well versed with both C# and ASP.Net and currently that's what I do for a living, but still there exists Microsoft technologies that I haven't quite touched upon...such as ASP.Net MVC, The Entity Framework etc... And those are only Microsoft Technologies...obviously there are other stuff that I would like to touch upon...stuff like Ruby, which would lead me to Ruby on Rails, or Python for Django or even Java and J2EE, or maybe even PHP; ie, basically mainly Web Stuff. Mind you, I did touch upon some of the stuff I mentioned earlier on, such as PHP and Java but I am still not quite versed in them as I am in C# and ASP.Net...but still, I think that by learning other languages that are used in the web environment will broaden my horizons...both as a developer who loves learning, and also Career wise. My point is, am I really using up my time correctly by learning older, lower level stuff? Stuff that for my current line of work, will most probably never use, but still is interesting to know ? To be frankly honest, I am also learning C so that I could, maybe someday, get into Electronics and Micro-controller programming but that is a whole new world for me and, if I choose to go there, will take some time to get adjusted to. And even then, I don't know if I can get a career in working in that line of work. ...but I still wonder about this question over and over...Am I doing the right thing by learning C instead of something (Web-stuff) that will most probably be more useful for me career-wise? I'm sorry for such asking such a long and most probably a boring question, but I feel as if this is the only place where I can ask such a question and get an honest answer from experts in the field. Thank you for your time.

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  • General Questions on setting up Subversion (w/Netbeans) and web development workflow.

    - by Roeland
    Hey guys, I am web developer who currently works mostly on his own but, some projects require outside coding help (my brother.) Anyway, after running in to the problem of "working on the same files" and "saving over each others edits" I decided to research ways to avoid this. Through the help of stackoverflow I decided on subversion. My setup is the following: A windows 2008 server with a clean install. My desktop which is on the local network of the server. Then my brothers desktop which is at his house, not on lan. We both prefer to use netbeans for development. My Questions: How do we set this thing up correctly and most optimally. Here is my current setup and work flow. dev site: in the past I just created sub domains with my web host for test sites (company1.bythepixel.com, company2.bythepixel.com), and editted those sites with netbeans set up having remote sources (ftp). how do i set up my netbeans now? should I set it up with remote sources? I guess I may need to set up a web server on my local server. I'm just not sure of the work flow. When i hit save in netbeans.. will it update the repository.. then do i need to update the site from the repository somehow? live site: when going live, i would just copy all the files from the dev site into the live site. from what i gather i should be able to update the site from the dev repository? Currently I am toying with virtualsvn server (http://www.visualsvn.com/server/) on my local server. It looks like it is set up to use the http protocol. Is there advantages to this or should I consider something that does the file//. Do you recommend any other subversion software that would run on my 2008 box? how will my brother connect? should i set up a permanent vpn from his house to mine? suggestions? (not that important) how do I deal with databases, there anyway to do subversion on database? I know I have a lot of questions and I am trying to read / make sense of the free online subversion book, but its all so overwhelming! Wish there was a small subversion for dummies guide :)

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  • AVFoundation buffer comparison to a saved image

    - by user577552
    Hi, I am a long time reader, first time poster on StackOverflow, and must say it has been a great source of knowledge for me. I am trying to get to know the AVFoundation framework. What I want to do is save what the camera sees and then detect when something changes. Here is the part where I save the image to a UIImage : if (shouldSetBackgroundImage) { CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); // Create a bitmap graphics context with the sample buffer data CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(rowBase, bufferWidth, bufferHeight, 8, bytesPerRow, colorSpace, kCGBitmapByteOrder32Little | kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedFirst); // Create a Quartz image from the pixel data in the bitmap graphics context CGImageRef quartzImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); // Free up the context and color space CGContextRelease(context); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); // Create an image object from the Quartz image UIImage * image = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:quartzImage]; [self setBackgroundImage:image]; NSLog(@"reference image actually set"); // Release the Quartz image CGImageRelease(quartzImage); //Signal that the image has been saved shouldSetBackgroundImage = NO; } and here is the part where I check if there is any change in the image seen by the camera : else { CGImageRef cgImage = [backgroundImage CGImage]; CGDataProviderRef provider = CGImageGetDataProvider(cgImage); CFDataRef bitmapData = CGDataProviderCopyData(provider); char* data = CFDataGetBytePtr(bitmapData); if (data != NULL) { int64_t numDiffer = 0, pixelCount = 0; NSMutableArray * pointsMutable = [NSMutableArray array]; for( int row = 0; row < bufferHeight; row += 8 ) { for( int column = 0; column < bufferWidth; column += 8 ) { //we get one pixel from each source (buffer and saved image) unsigned char *pixel = rowBase + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); unsigned char *referencePixel = data + (row * bytesPerRow) + (column * BYTES_PER_PIXEL); pixelCount++; if ( !match(pixel, referencePixel, matchThreshold) ) { numDiffer++; [pointsMutable addObject:[NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(SCREEN_WIDTH - (column/ (float) bufferHeight)* SCREEN_WIDTH - 4.0, (row/ (float) bufferWidth)* SCREEN_HEIGHT- 4.0)]]; } } } numberOfPixelsThatDiffer = numDiffer; points = [pointsMutable copy]; } For some reason, this doesn't work, meaning that the iPhone detects almost everything as being different from the saved image, even though I set a very low threshold for detection in the match function... Do you have any idea of what I am doing wrong?

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  • DropDownList not updating value

    - by annelie
    Hello, I posted a question earlier but have another problem after making those changes. The previous thread can be found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2700028/binding-a-dropdownlist-inside-a-detailsview Basically, I've got a dropdownlist that's dynamically populated with a list of regions. It selects the correct region when viewing the dropdown, but when I try to edit it changes the value to null. I think it might be because it doesn't know which field to update. Previously, when the dropdown list was hardcoded, I had SelectedValue='<%# Bind("region_id")%' set on the dropdown list, and when I updated it worked fine. However, I had to move the setting of the selected value into the code behind and now it just gets set to null every time I update. Here's the aspx code: <asp:DetailsView id="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="false" DataSourceID="myMySqlDataSrc" DataKeyNames="id" AutoGenerateDeleteButton="True" AutoGenerateEditButton="True" AutoGenerateInsertButton="False" OnDataBound="DetailsView1_DataBound" > <Fields> <snip> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Region"> <ItemTemplate><%# Eval("region_name") %></ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="RegionDropdownList" runat="server"> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And here's the code behind: protected void DetailsView1_DataBound(object sender, EventArgs e) { ArrayList regionsList = BPBusiness.getRegions(); if (DetailsView1.CurrentMode == DetailsViewMode.Edit) { DropDownList ddlRegions = (DropDownList)DetailsView1.FindControl("RegionDropdownList"); if (ddlRegions != null) { ddlRegions.DataSource = regionsList; ddlRegions.DataValueField = "Value"; ddlRegions.DataTextField = "Text"; ddlRegions.DataBind(); if (ddlRegions.Items.Contains(ddlRegions.Items.FindByValue(objBusiness.iRegionID.ToString()))) { ddlRegions.SelectedIndex = ddlRegions.Items.IndexOf(ddlRegions.Items.FindByValue(objBusiness.iRegionID.ToString())); } } } } EDIT: The database is MySql, and the update statement looks like this: myMySqlDataSrc.UpdateCommand = "UPDATE myTable SET business_name = ?, addr_line_1 = ?, addr_line_2 = ?, addr_line_3 = ?, postcode = ?, county = ?, town_city = ?, tl_url = ?, customer_id = ?, region_id = ?, description = ?, approval_status = ?, tl_user_name = ?, phone = ?, uploaders_own = ? WHERE id = ?"; Thanks, Annelie

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  • WPF MVVM: Convention over Configuration for ResourceDictionary ?

    - by Jeffrey Knight
    Update In the wiki spirit of StackOverflow, here's an update: I spiked Joe White's IValueConverter suggestion below. It works like a charm. I've written a "quickstart" example of this that automates the mapping of ViewModels-Views using some cheap string replacement. If no View is found to represent the ViewModel, it defaults to an "Under Construction" page. I'm dubbing this approach "WPF MVVM White" since it was Joe White's idea. Here are a couple screenshots. The first image is a case of "[SomeControlName]ViewModel" has a corresponding "[SomeControlName]View", based on pure naming convention. The second is a case where the ModelView doesn't have any views to represent it. No more ResourceDictionaries with long ViewModel to View mappings. It's pure naming convention now. I'm hosting a download of the project here: http://rootsilver.com/files/Mvvm.White.Quickstart.zip I'll follow up with a longer blog post walk through. Original Post I read Josh Smith's fantastic MSDN article on WPF MVVM over the weekend. It's destined to be a cult classic. It took me a while to wrap my head around the magic of asking WPF to render the ViewModel. It's like saying "Here's a class, WPF. Go figure out which UI to use to present it." For those who missed this magic, WPF can do this by looking up the View for ModelView in the ResourceDictionary mapping and pulling out the corresponding View. (Scroll down to Figure 10 Supplying a View ). The first thing that jumps out at me immediately is that there's already a strong naming convention of: classNameView ("View" suffix) classNameViewModel ("ViewModel" suffix) My question is: Since the ResourceDictionary can be manipulated programatically, I"m wondering if anyone has managed to Regex.Replace the whole thing away, so the lookup is automatic, and any new View/ViewModels get resolved by virtue of their naming convention? [Edit] What I'm imagining is a hook/interception into ResourceDictionary. ... Also considering a method at startup that uses interop to pull out *View$ and *ViewModel$ class names to build the DataTemplate dictionary in code: //build list foreach .... String.Format("<DataTemplate DataType=\"{x:Type vm:{0} }\"><v:{1} /></DataTemplate>", ...)

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  • Averaging initial values for rolling series

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Question Given a maximum sliding window size of 40 (i.e., the set of numbers in the list cannot exceed 40), what is the calculation to ensure a smooth averaging transition as the set size grows from 1 to 40? Problem Description Creating a trend line for a set of data has skewed initial values. The complete set of values is unknown at runtime: they are provided one at a time. It seems like a reverse-weighted average is required so that the initial values are averaged differently. In the image below the leftmost data for the trend line are incorrectly averaged. Current Solution Created a new type of ArrayList subclass that calculates the appropriate values and ensures its size never goes beyond the bounds of the sliding window: /** * A list of Double values that has a maximum capacity enforced by a sliding * window. Can calculate the average of its values. */ public class AveragingList extends ArrayList<Double> { private float slidingWindowSize = 0.0f; /** * The initial capacity is used for the sliding window size. * @param slidingWindowSize */ public AveragingList( int slidingWindowSize ) { super( slidingWindowSize ); setSlidingWindowSize( ( float )slidingWindowSize ); } public boolean add( Double d ) { boolean result = super.add( d ); // Prevent the list from exceeding the maximum sliding window size. // if( size() > getSlidingWindowSize() ) { remove( 0 ); } return result; } /** * Calculate the average. * * @return The average of the values stored in this list. */ public double average() { double result = 0.0; int size = size(); for( Double d: this ) { result += d.doubleValue(); } return (double)result / (double)size; } /** * Changes the maximum number of numbers stored in this list. * * @param slidingWindowSize New maximum number of values to remember. */ public void setSlidingWindowSize( float slidingWindowSize ) { this.slidingWindowSize = slidingWindowSize; } /** * Returns the number used to determine the maximum values this list can * store before it removes the first entry upon adding another value. * @return The maximum number of numbers stored in this list. */ public float getSlidingWindowSize() { return slidingWindowSize; } } Resulting Image Example Input The data comes into the function one value at a time. For example, data points (Data) and calculated averages (Avg) typically look as follows: Data: 17.0 Avg : 17.0 Data: 17.0 Avg : 17.0 Data: 5.0 Avg : 13.0 Data: 5.0 Avg : 11.0  Related Sites The following pages describe moving averages, but typically when all (or sufficient) data is known: http://www.cs.princeton.edu/introcs/15inout/MovingAverage.java.html http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2161815/r-zoo-series-sliding-window-calculation http://taragana.blogspot.com/ http://www.dreamincode.net/forums/index.php?showtopic=92508 http://blogs.sun.com/nickstephen/entry/dtrace_and_moving_rolling_averages

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  • How to access a named element in a control that inherits from a templated control

    - by Mrt
    Hello this is similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2620165/how-to-access-a-named-element-of-a-derived-user-control-in-silverlight with the difference is inheriting from a templated control, not a user control. I have a templated control called MyBaseControl <Style TargetType="Problemo:MyBaseControl"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="Problemo:MyBaseControl"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White"> <Border Name="HeaderControl" Background="Red" /> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> public class MyBaseControl : Control { public UIElement Header { get; set; } public MyBaseControl() { DefaultStyleKey = typeof(MyBaseControl); } public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); var headerControl = GetTemplateChild("HeaderControl") as ContentPresenter; if (headerControl != null) headerControl.Content = Header; } } I have another control called myControl which inherits from MyBaseControl Control <me:MyBaseControl x:Class="Problemo.MyControl" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" xmlns:me="clr-namespace:Problemo" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="400"> <me:MyBaseControl.Header> <TextBlock Name="xxx" /> </me:MyBaseControl.Header> </me:MyBaseControl> public partial class MyControl : MyBaseControl { public string Text { get; set; } public MyControl(string text) { InitializeComponent(); Text = text; Loaded += MyControl_Loaded; } void MyControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { base.ApplyTemplate(); xxx.Text = Text; } } The issue is xxx is null. How do I access the xxx control in the code behind ?

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  • Which mobile operating system should I code for?

    - by samgoody
    It seems as though mobile computing has fully arrived. I would like to rewrite two of our programs for mobile devices, but am a bit lost as to which platform to target. Complicating this decision: I would need to learn the relevant languages and IDEs - my coding to date has been almost all web based (PHP, JS, Actionscript, etc. Some ASPX). Most users seem to be religious about their mobile decision, so oral conversations leave me more confused then enlightened. I do not yet own a smartphone - will have to buy one once I know which platform to be aiming for. Both of my programs are more for business users, (one is only useful for C.P.A.s). I am a single developer, and cannot develop for more than one platform at a time. Getting it right is important. Based on what I've found on the web, I would've expected RIM to be a shoo-in, and the general order to be as follows: RIM Blackberry - More of them than any other brand. Despite naysayers, they've had double the sales (or perhaps 5X the sales) of any other smartphone, and have continued to grow. And, they have business users. Android - According to Schmidt, they have outsold everyone else except RIM (though I can't find where I read that now), and they are just getting started. According to Comscore, they are already at 8% of the market and expected to hit Shcmidt's claims within six months. Nokia - The largest worldwide. If they would just make up between Maemo or Symbian, I would be far less confused. iPhone - Much more competition by other apps, fewer sales to be had, and a overlord that can delay or cancel my app at any time. Is Cocoa hard to learn? Windows Mobile - Word is that version 7 will not be backwards compatible and losing market share. Palm WebOS - Perhaps this should go first, as it is the only one that offers tools to make my life easy as a web application developer. No competition in marketplace. But not very many users either. However, a search on StackOverflow shows a hugely disproportionate number of iPhone questions versus Blackberry. Likewise, there are clearly more apps on iPhone, so it must be getting developer love. What is the one platform I should develop for? Please back up your answer with the logic.

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  • Form won't submit properly in IE

    - by VUELA
    Hi! My simple donation form submits properly except for Internet Explorer. I'm sure it has to do with issues with change() and focus() or blur(), but all my hundreds of attempts so far have failed me. I tried using .click() instead of change() as mentioned in this post:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/208471/getting-jquery-to-recognise-change-in-ie (and elsewhere), but I could not get it to work! ... so I am overlooking something simple perhaps. Any help is greatly appreciated!! Here is the link to the page: http://www.wsda.org/donate HTML FORM: <form id="donationForm" method="post" action="https://wsda.foxycart.com/cart.php" class="foxycart"> <input type="hidden" id="name" name="name" value="Donation" /> <input type="hidden" id="price" name="price" value="10" /> <div class="row"> <label for="price_select">How much would you like to donate?</label> <select id="price_select" name="price_select"> <option value="10">$10</option> <option value="20">$20</option> <option value="50">$50</option> <option value="100">$100</option> <option value="300">$300</option> <option value="0">Other</option> </select> </div> <div class="row" id="custom_amount"> <label for="price_input">Please enter an amount: $</label> <input type="text" id="price_input" name="price_select" value="" /> </div> <input type="submit" id="DonateBtn" value="Submit Donation »" /> </form> JQUERY: // donation form $("#custom_amount").hide(); $("#price_select").change(function(){ if ($("#price_select").val() == "0") { $("#custom_amount").show(); } else { $("#custom_amount").hide(); } $("#price").val($("#price_select").val()); }); $("#price_input").change(function(){ $("#price").val($("#price_input").val()); });

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  • How do I construct a Django reverse/url using query args?

    - by Andrew Dalke
    I have URLs like http://example.com/depict?smiles=CO&width=200&height=200 (and with several other optional arguments) My urls.py contains: urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^$', 'cansmi.index'), (r'^cansmi$', 'cansmi.cansmi'), url(r'^depict$', cyclops.django.depict, name="cyclops-depict"), I can go to that URL and get the 200x200 PNG that was constructed, so I know that part works. In my template from the "cansmi.cansmi" response I want to construct a URL for the named template "cyclops-depict" given some query parameters. I thought I could do {% url cyclops-depict smiles=input_smiles width=200 height=200 %} where "input_smiles" is an input to the template via a form submission. In this case it's the string "CO" and I thought it would create a URL like the one at top. This template fails with a TemplateSyntaxError: Caught an exception while rendering: Reverse for 'cyclops-depict' with arguments '()' and keyword arguments '{'smiles': u'CO', 'height': 200, 'width': 200}' not found. This is a rather common error message both here on StackOverflow and elsewhere. In every case I found, people were using them with parameters in the URL path regexp, which is not the case I have where the parameters go into the query. That means I'm doing it wrong. How do I do it right? That is, I want to construct the full URL, including path and query parameters, using something in the template. For reference, % python manage.py shell Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Feb 11 2010, 00:51:29) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. (InteractiveConsole) >>> from django.core.urlresolvers import reverse >>> reverse("cyclops-depict", kwargs=dict()) '/depict' >>> reverse("cyclops-depict", kwargs=dict(smiles="CO")) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py", line 356, in reverse *args, **kwargs))) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py", line 302, in reverse "arguments '%s' not found." % (lookup_view_s, args, kwargs)) NoReverseMatch: Reverse for 'cyclops-depict' with arguments '()' and keyword arguments '{'smiles': 'CO'}' not found.

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  • PagerView overlapping PagerTabStrip / PagerTitleStrip

    - by user1256169
    I've been trying for about a week to get my PagerView not to overlap the TitleStrip. I've tried absolutely everything I can think of, and one StackOverflow question that looked like the same question, had an answer that wasn't applicable. It appears that both the PagerTitleStrip and the TextView start at 0,0 (left,top) Any help would be appreciated. Note that I can't use any XML (inc Layout.xml) so it's all done programatically. Here's a full working example of my problem: package com.example.projname; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.support.v4.view.PagerAdapter; import android.support.v4.view.PagerTabStrip; import android.support.v4.view.ViewPager; import android.view.Gravity; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.view.ViewGroup.LayoutParams; import android.widget.TextView; public class MainActivity extends Activity { @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); MyPagerAdapter myPagerAdapter = new MyPagerAdapter(); PagerTabStrip myPagerTabStrip = new PagerTabStrip(this); myPagerTabStrip.setGravity(Gravity.TOP); ViewPager viewPager = new ViewPager(this); viewPager.addView(myPagerTabStrip, LayoutParams.MATCH_PARENT, LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT); viewPager.setAdapter(myPagerAdapter); setContentView(viewPager); } class MyPagerAdapter extends PagerAdapter { public final String[] Titles = { "Title One", "Title Two", "Title Three", "Title Four", "Title Five" }; @Override public int getCount() { return Titles.length; } @Override public boolean isViewFromObject(View view, Object object) { return (view == object); } @Override public CharSequence getPageTitle(int position) { return Titles[position]; } @Override public Object instantiateItem(ViewGroup container, int position) { TextView textView = new TextView(getApplicationContext()); String myString = new String("Page " + (position + 1) + "\r\n"); textView.setText(myString + myString + myString + myString + myString + myString); container.addView(textView); return textView; } @Override public void destroyItem(ViewGroup container, int position, Object object) { container.removeView((View) object); } } } Edit: Adding a screenshot of the problem:

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