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  • Is there a good way to execute MySQL statements atomically via JDBC?

    - by javanix
    Suppose I have a table that contains valid data. I would like to modify this data in some way, but I'd like to make sure that if any errors occur with the modification, the table isn't changed and the method returns something to that effect. For instance, (this is kind of a dumb example, but it illustrates the point so bear with me) suppose I want to edit all the entries in a "name" column so that they are properly capitalized. For some reason, I want either ALL of the names to have proper capitalization, or NONE of them to have proper capitalization (and the starting state of the table is that NONE of them do). Is there an already-implemented way to run a batch update on the table and be assured that, if any one of the updates fails, all changes are rolled back and the table remains unchanged? I can think of a few ways to do this by hand (though suggestions are welcomed), but it'd be nice if there was some method I could use that would function this way. I looked at the java.sql.statement.executeBatch() command, but I'm not convinced by the documentation that my table wouldn't be changed if it failed in some manner.

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  • Associating an object with another object for GC clearup

    - by thecoop
    Is there any way of associating an object instance (object A) with a second object (object B) in a generalised way, so that when B gets collected A becomes eligable for collection? The same behaviour that would happen if B had an instance variable pointing to A, but without explicitly changing the class definition of B, and being able to do this in a dynamic way? The same sort of effect could be done by using the Component.Disposed event in a funky way, but I don't want to make B disposable EDIT I'm basically creating a cache of objects that are associated with a single 'root' object, and I don't want the cache to be static, as there can be lots of root objects using different caches, so lots of memory will be used up when a root object is no longer used but the cached objects are still around. So, I want a collection of cached objects to be associated with each 'root' object, without changing the root object definition. Sort of like metadata of an extra object reference attached to each root object instance. That way, each collection will get collected when the root object is collected, and not hang around like they would if a static cache was used.

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  • Requirements for connecting to Oracle with JDBC?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    I'm a newbie to Java-related web development, and I can't seem to get a simple program with JDBC working. I'm using off-the-shelf Oracle 10g XE and the Eclipse EE IDE. From the books and web pages I've checked so far, I've narrowed the problem down to either an incorrectly written database URL or a missing JAR file. I'm getting the following error: java.sql.SQLException: No suitable driver found for jdbc:oracle://127.0.0.1:8080 with the following code: import java.sql.*; public class DatabaseTestOne { public static void main(String[] args) { String url = "jdbc:oracle://127.0.0.1:8080"; String username = "HR"; String password = "samplepass"; String sql = "SELECT EMPLOYEE_ID FROM EMPLOYEES WHERE LAST_NAME='King'"; Connection connection; try { connection = DriverManager.getConnection(url, username, password); Statement statement = connection.createStatement(); System.out.println(statement.execute(sql)); connection.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { System.err.println(e); } } } What is the proper format for a database URL, anyways? They're mentioned a lot but I haven't been able to find a description. Thanks! EDIT (the answer): Based on duffymo's answer, I got ojdbc14.jar from http://www.oracle.com/technology/software/tech/java/sqlj_jdbc/htdocs/jdbc_10201.html and dropped it in the Eclipse project's Referenced Libraries. Then I changed the start of the code to ... try { Class.forName("oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver"); } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { System.err.println(e); } // jdbc:oracle:thin:@<hostname>:<port>:<sid> String url = "jdbc:oracle:thin:@GalacticAC:1521:xe"; ... and it worked.

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  • Question about decorator pattern and the abstract decorator class?

    - by es11
    This question was asked already here, but rather than answering the specific question, descriptions of how the decorator pattern works were given instead. I'd like to ask it again because the answer is not immediately evident to me just by reading how the decorator pattern works (I've read the wikipedia article and the section in the book Head First Design Patterns). Basically, I want to know why an abstract decorator class must be created which implements (or extends) some interface (or abstract class). Why can't all the new "decorated classes" simply implement (or extend) the base abstract object themselves (instead of extending the abstract decorator class)? To make this more concrete I'll use the example from the design patterns book dealing with coffee beverages: There is an abstract component class called Beverage Simple beverage types such as HouseBlend simply extend Beverage To decorate beverage, an abstract CondimentDecorator class is created which extends Beverage and has an instance of Beverage Say we want to add a "milk" condiment, a class Milk is created which extends CondimentDecorator I'd like to understand why we needed the CondimentDecorator class and why the class Milk couldn't have simply extended the Beverage class itself and been passed an instance of Beverage in its constructor. Hopefully this is clear...if not I'd simply like to know why is the abstract decorator class necessary for this pattern? Thanks. Edit: I tried to implement this, omitting the abstract decorator class, and it seems to still work. Is this abstract class present in all descriptions of this pattern simply because it provides a standard interface for all of the new decorated classes?

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  • MySQL default value based on view

    - by Jake
    Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

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  • writing CMS in ZEND

    - by Neoman
    Hello guys, I'm trying to write my own CMS using Zend framework and I created modular structure. I have modules like 'news', 'blog' and etc. Also I have "admin" module which has different layout and this is like the administrator panel where admin can edit all the content and etc. But the problem is that I'm looking for the best practice and solution to solve the problem. I don't like the idea that my admin module will have a lot of controllers which will be for administer all the other modules. So I want to ask you all, maybe you have some tuts or just have an advice how to implement admin module separated from other modules as much as it can be done. Because I just want to copy one module for example from one project to another and I want it will work same. I don't want to search the right admin controller, view or something like this in admin module and copy this part seperatelly into new admin module. Hope the question and situation is clear enough and I will be happy to hear any advice or see any tutorials how to do it. Thanks guys!

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  • Is there an ORM that supports composition w/o Joins

    - by Ken Downs
    EDIT: Changed title from "inheritance" to "composition". Left body of question unchanged. I'm curious if there is an ORM tool that supports inheritance w/o creating separate tables that have to be joined. Simple example. Assume a table of customers, with a Bill-to address, and a table of vendors, with a remit-to address. Keep it simple and assume one address each, not a child table of addresses for each. These addresses will have a handful of values in common: address 1, address 2, city, state/province, postal code. So let's say I'd have a class "addressBlock" and I want the customers and vendors to inherit from this class, and possibly from other classes. But I do not want separate tables that have to be joined, I want the columns in the customer and vendor tables respectively. Is there an ORM that supports this? The closest question I have found on StackOverflow that might be the same question is linked below, but I can't quite figure if the OP is asking what I am asking. He seems to be asking about foregoing inheritance precisely because there will be multiple tables. I'm looking for the case where you can use inheritance w/o generating the multiple tables. Model inheritance approach with Django's ORM

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  • How to show a form field ONLY if another is selected in JavaScript or jQuery?

    - by Sam
    I have a form, like so: <form action="" method="post"> <select name="pageType"> <option value="main">Main Page</option> <option value="sub">Sub Page</option> <option value="sub-sub">Sub-Sub Page</option> </select> <br /> <label>Choose Sub Sub Name:</label> <input type="text" name="sub-sub-name" /> <br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="GO!" /> </form> What I would like to achive is for this text field (and it's label): <label>Choose Sub Sub Name:</label> <input type="text" name="sub-sub-name" /> to only appear if the 3rd option (sub sub page) is selected from the drop down and not show up otherwise. How can this be done with either javascript or the jquery framework? EDIT by the way, it would be nice if this can be achieved without the page needing to refresh and losing previously submitted form data. I know form data can still be kept using variables that store the values even on page refresh, but I was hoping for that effect that I see on a lot of sites where the additional text area (or other form element) just appears without page refresh.

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  • Disable control in .aspx from Masterpage conditionally

    - by miccet
    Ok, this might be a bit weird, so I'll start with explaining what I'm trying to do. I have several masterpages for my site, and in they inherit each other. In the second of them (4 in total) I have a background image. Here comes the trick, I'd like to override this image from the final aspx page. I can't change the position of this image, it has to be in masterpage 2, since some pages uses that very page as masterpage. One idea I had was to create a ContentPlaceHolder next to the image and if there are any images in that (check in Page_Load) then the main image would be hidden. I did this with a recursive function, that finds the image by looping through the ContentPlaceHolder's controls. When I set the visibility property to false though, nothing happens. Any other ideas to how this could be done, or why the above doesn't work? Edit: It's not about changing items in the master pages, rather the other way around, that from the Masterpages codebehind dig down into the page that is displayed currently and see if it has controls in a specific ContentPlaceHolder.

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  • How to remove the "button" effect for a menu item (WPF)

    - by Sorin Comanescu
    Hi, When the mouse is over a menu item (first level) it displays a 3D button effect. How can this be removed? Thanks. EDIT: Tried <Style TargetType="MenuItem"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter Property="BorderBrush" Value="Transparent"> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0"> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> with no effect. The menu XAML: <Window x:Class="UCWPF.Window3" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:conv="clr-namespace:UCWPF.Converters" Title="Window3" Height="600" Width="600" Background="{StaticResource WindowBackgroundBrush}" > <StackPanel Style="{StaticResource WindowContainerStyle}"> <Menu> <MenuItem Header="New" Icon="{StaticResource ImageExport}" /> <MenuItem Header="Open" Icon="{StaticResource ImageOpen}" /> <MenuItem Header="Save" Icon="{StaticResource ImageSave}" /> <MenuItem Header="Export" Icon="{StaticResource ImageExport}" /> </Menu> ... And here's the screenshot:

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  • Java Code for calculating Leap Year, is this code correct ?

    - by Ibn Saeed
    Hello I am following "The Art and Science of Java" book and it shows how to calculate a leap year. The book uses ACM Java Task Force's library. Here is the code the books uses: import acm.program.*; public class LeapYear extends ConsoleProgram { public void run() { println("This program calculates leap year."); int year = readInt("Enter the year: "); boolean isLeapYear = ((year % 4 == 0) && (year % 100 != 0) || (year % 400 == 0)); if (isLeapYear) { println(year + " is a leap year."); } else println(year + " is not a leap year."); } } Now, this is how I calculated the leap year. import acm.program.*; public class LeapYear extends ConsoleProgram { public void run() { println("This program calculates leap year."); int year = readInt("Enter the year: "); if ((year % 4 == 0) && year % 100 != 0) { println(year + " is a leap year."); } else if ((year % 4 == 0) && (year % 100 == 0) && (year % 400 == 0)) { println(year + " is a leap year."); } else { println(year + " is not a leap year."); } } } Is there anything wrong with my code or should i use the one provided by the book ? EDIT :: Both of the above code works fine, What i want to ask is which code is the best way to calculate the leap year.

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  • How to retrieve view of MultiIndex DataFrame

    - by Henry S. Harrison
    This question was inspired by this question. I had the same problem, updating a MultiIndex DataFrame by selection. The drop_level=False solution in Pandas 0.13 will allow me to achieve the same result, but I am still wondering why I cannot get a view from the MultiIndex DataFrame. In other words, why does this not work?: >>> sat = d.xs('sat', level='day', copy=False) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\pandas\core\frame.py", line 2248, in xs raise ValueError('Cannot retrieve view (copy=False)') ValueError: Cannot retrieve view (copy=False) Of course it could be only because it is not implemented, but is there a reason? Is it somehow ambiguous or impossible to implement? Returning a view is more intuitive to me than returning a copy then later updating the original. I looked through the source and it seems this situation is checked explicitly to raise an error. Alternatively, is it possible to get the same sort of view from any of the other indexing methods? I've experimented but have not been successful. [edit] Some potential implementations are discussed here. I guess with the last question above I'm wondering what the current best solution is to index into arbitrary multiindex slices and cross-sections.

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  • How does the CheckBox obtain it's respective drawables?

    - by alex2k8
    The CheckBox class extends the CompoundButton, but add nothing to it. But some how it obtains it's respective look. I found some declarations in Android sources, but wonder how they are mapped to CheckBox class? public class CheckBox extends CompoundButton { public CheckBox(Context context) { this(context, null); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { this(context, attrs, com.android.internal.R.attr.checkboxStyle); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs, int defStyle) { super(context, attrs, defStyle); } } Styles <style name="Theme"> <item name="checkboxStyle">@android:style/Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox</item> </style> <style name="Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox"> <item name="android:background">@android:drawable/btn_check_label_background</item> <item name="android:button">@android:drawable/btn_check</item> </style> EDIT: Probably I was not clear... I understand how the drawable assigned to Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox style, but how this style assigned to CheckBox class? I see the ".CheckBox" in the style name, but is this naming convention really what makes the trick? If so, what are the rules? If I derive MyCheckBox from CompoundButton, can I just define the Widget.CompoundButton.MyCheckBox style and it will work?

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  • IIS7 integrated mode MVC deploy 404 not found on some actions

    - by majkinetor
    Hello. Once deployed parts of my web-application stop working. Index-es on each controller do work, and one form posting via Ajax, other then that yields 404. I understand that nothing particular should be done in integrated mode. One interesting thing is that 1 AJAX action is working. I don't know how to proceed with troubleshooting. Some info: App is using default app pool set to integrated mode. WebApp is done in net framework 3.5. I use default routing model. Along web.config in root there is web.config in /View folder referencing HttpNotFoundHandler. OS is Windows Server 2008. Admins issued aspnet_regiis.exe -i IIS 7 Any help is appreciated. Thx. EDIT: Noticed one very strange thing. One ajax call works, other ajax call doesn't works as I login, but when I move to ther page and return to that one it starts working ?! Small video of the problem is available here

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  • Cannot set property X of undefined - programatically created element

    - by Dave
    I am working on a class to create a fairly complex custom element. I want to be able to define element attributes (mainly CSS) as I am creating the elements. I came up with the below function to quickly set attrs for me given an input array: // Sample array structure of apply_settings //var _button_div = { // syle : { // position: 'absolute', // padding : '2px', // right : 0, // top : 0 // } //}; function __apply_settings(__el,apply_settings){ try{ for(settingKey in apply_settings){ __setting = apply_settings[settingKey]; if(typeof(__setting)=='string'){ __el[settingKey] = __setting; }else{ for(i in __setting){ __el[settingKey][i] = apply_settings[settingKey][i]; } } } }catch(ex){ alert(ex + " " + __el); } } The function works fine except here: function __draw_top(){ var containerDiv = document.createElement('div'); var buttonDiv = document.createElement('div'); __apply_settings(containerDiv,this.settings.top_bar); if(global_settings.show_x) buttonDiv.appendChild(__create_img(global_settings.images.close)); containerDiv.appendChild(buttonDiv); __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); return containerDiv; } The specific section that is failing is __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); with the error "Cannot set property 'position' of undefined". So naturally, I am assuming that buttonDiv is undefined.. I put alert(ex + " " + __el); in __apply_settings() to verify what I was working with. Surprisingly enough, the element is a div. Is there any reason why this function would be working for containerDiv and not buttonDiv? Any help would be greatly appreciated :) {EDIT} http://jsfiddle.net/Us8Zw/2/

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  • How to use associated Model as datasource for DataView

    - by Chris Gilbert
    I have a Model structure as shown below and I want to know how to use the Bookings array as the datasource of my DataView. Model Structure: Client ClientId Name Bookings (HasManyAssociation) Contacts (HasManyAssociation) AjaxProxy JsonReader (ImplicitIncludes is set to true so child models are created with one call) Booking BookingNodeId BookingDetails Contact ContactNodeId ContactDetails The above gives me a data structure as follows: Client Bookings[ Booking Booking ] Contacts[ Contact Contact ] What I want to be able to do is either, create a Store from my Bookings array and then use that store as the datasource for my DataView OR directly use the Bookings array as the datasource (I don't really care how I do it to be honest). If I setup the AjaxProxy on my Booking model it works fine but then obviously I cannot automatically create my Client and Contacts when I load my JSON. It seems to me to make sense that the Client model, being the top level model hierarchically, is the one to load the data. EDIT: I figured it out as follows (with special thanks to handet87 below for his dataview.setStore() pointer). The key in this case is to know that creating the relationship actually sets up another store called, in this case BookingsStore and ContactsStore. All I needed to do was dataview.setStore("BookingsStore")

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  • JSF don't find component in view root with the form id

    - by kenzokujpn
    I have a t:inputFileUpload inside the form, in the html of the display page the id of this component is form:inputFile but when I tried to get the component from the view root using "form:inputFile" the return is null, but when the "form:" is removed the return is the component. The component don't set the value in my managed bean, someone have this problem? EDIT: <h:form id="form" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <t:inputFileUpload id="inputFile" size="40" value="#{managedBean.inputFile}"/> </h:form> In the managed bean: private UploadedFile inputFile; with the gets and sets provided by Eclipse. //This method scans the view root and returns the component with the id passed as parameter findComponentInRoot("form:inputFile"); This returns null, but when I use: //This method scans the view root and returns the component with the id passed as parameter findComponentInRoot("inputFile"); The return is the component I'm looking for, but when I use the View Source in Internet Explorer the id of this component is "form:inputFile". I don't know if this is related, but the component don't set the value in my managed bean and it's strange the fact that the id of the component is different from the HTML source. I'm using JSF 1.2 Mojarra. Someone else has this problem? Or know why this happens?

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  • Autodiscovery for inclusion tags

    - by Ludwik Trammer
    The title may be a little confusing, but I don't know how else to call it. I would like to create a Django project with a large set of applications you could arbitrary turn on or off using INSTALLED_APPS option in settings.py (you would obviously also need to edit urls.py and run syncdb). After being turned on an app should be able to automatically: Register it's content in site-wide search. Luckily django-haystack has this built-in, so it's not a problem. Register cron jobs. django-cron does exactly that. Not a problem. Register a widget that should be displayed on the homepage. The homepage should include a list of boxes with widgets form different applications. I thought about inclusion tags, because you can put them anywhere on a page and they control both content and presentation. The problem is I don't know how to automatically get a list of inclusion tags provided by my applications, and display them one by one on a homepage. I need a way to register them somehow, and then display all registered tags.

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  • wcf trying to set up tracing to debug, not writing to log file

    - by joey j
    here's my web.config, running a WCF service in an application on IIS7, but nothing is being written to the specified file. permission on the file has been granted for everyone. </listeners> I can add a service reference just fine. I then try to call the service from a windows app and, after a few minutes, get an error on the machine running the windows app "Client is unable to finish the security negotiation within the configured timeout (00:00:00). The current negotiation leg is 1 (00:00:00)." but absolutely nothing is written to the trace log file specified in config. Is there something else I need to do to enable tracing? thanks for your help EDIT: "sources" section now matches the section recommended here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa702726.aspx I've added the "diagnostics and the event viewer shows: "Message Logging has been turned on. Sensitive information may be logged in the clear, even if it was encrypted on the wire: for example, message bodies. Process Name: w3wp Process ID: 1784 " but the log file is still empty

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  • Apply CSS style to anchor problem

    - by Jake
    Using jquery I have a clicking tab mechanism that are nothing but anchor tags that return false but call javascript functions to run some events on the page. The problem is I am using jquery to apply an opacity style to the active anchor. and the other sibling anchor get a lesser opacity view. My code looks like this $("#menutab li a").click(function(){ $(this).animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); } I would think this code would act only on the clicked element and apply that css style to that element and the other style to the other anchor tags except the clicked one. It kind of does that, but also what it does is leave the earlier clicked element to opacity =1, so if I click an element it sets it opacity to 1 and then if I click another one it sets it opacity to 1 while leave the earlier clicked one to 1 also instead of setting it to .25 like the others. Edit: I changed the above code to: $("#menutab ul li").click(function(){ $(this).children().animate({opacity:'1'},1000); $(this).siblings().children().animate({opacity:'.25'},1000); }); and now I get the desired effect, except that when the first anchor in the list is clicked doesn't follow the event rules, When the first one is clicked its as if, the click event is not triggered, because no opacity style changes. which I don't understand.

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  • displaying a saved buffer in OpenGL ES

    - by Adam
    Hi everyone, So basically I have a screenshot that I've saved that I want to later display on the screen. I've saved it with: glReadPixels(0, 0, self.bounds.size.width, self.bounds.size.height, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, savedBuffer); And later I'm trying to write it to the screen with: GLuint RenderedTex; glGenTextures(1, &RenderedTex); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, RenderedTex); glTexImage2D (GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, self.bounds.size.width, self.bounds.size.height, 0, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, savedBuffer); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); I'm pretty new to OpenGL so I don't know if I'm doing things right... actually I know I'm not, because nothing shows up. Also not sure how to dispose of the texture when I'm done with it. Anyone know the correct way to do this? Edit: I think I might be having a problem loading the texture because it's not a power of 2, it's 320x480... also, I think this code is just loading the texture, but not drawing it, I'd need a call to glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, 4) in there somewhere...

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  • jquery clone only once

    - by tsiger
    I have a series of divs like this: <div id="available-posts"> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> <div class="post" id="unique_id"> <a href="#" class="addme">Add</a> Some text </div> </div> The unique_id is a different number for each of the divs. Now i have a new empty div like this <div class="related-posts"></div> And i clone items in there. The thing is that i want to check if an item is already cloned. If it is i want to stop it from being cloned again. This is how i clone items: // clone it $('.addme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').clone().fadeIn('normal').appendTo('#related-posts').find('a.addme').html('Remove').removeClass('addme').addClass('removeme'); return false; }); // remove it $('.removeme').live('click', function() { $(this).parents('div.thepost').fadeOut('normal', function() {$(this).remove(); }); return false; }); In other words i want the cloned list to contain only unique items. Not for example 2 clones of the same post. *edit: i am using live coz the first list (available posts) is populated through an AJAX call.

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  • git rebase without changing commit timestamps

    - by Olivier
    Would it make sense to perform git rebase while preserving the commit timestamps? I believe a consequence would be that the new branch will not necessarily have commit dates chronologically. Is that theoretically possible at all? (e.g. using plumbing commands; just curious here) If it is theoretically possible, then is it possible in practice with rebase, not to change the timestamps? For example, assume I have the following tree: master <jun 2010> | : : : oldbranch <feb 1984> : / oldcommit <jan 1984> Now, if I rebase oldbranch on master, the date of the commit changes from feb 1984 to jun 2010. Is it possible to change that behaviour so that the commit timestamp is not changed? In the end I would thus obtain: oldbranch <feb 1984> / master <jun 2010> | : Would that make sense at all? Is it even allowed in git to have a history where an old commit has a more recent commit as a parent? Edit A crucial question of Von C helped me understand what is going on: when your rebase, the committer's timestamp changes, but not the author's timestamp, which suddenly all makes sense. So my question was actually not precise enough. The answer is that rebase actually doesn't change the author's timestamps (you don't need to do anything for that), which suits me perfectly.

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  • App no longer working - any ideas

    - by hamishmcn
    I am out of ideas as to why my app has suddenly stopped working - perhaps the collective mind of the SO community can help... Background: I have a large application that has been working up until recently. Now when ever I try and run it I get the error "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000005)" This happens before the app gets to _tmain(). It happens in both release and debug builds. I have tried cleaning and rebuilding the projects and rebooted my PC. The call stack just shows entries for kernel32.dll and ntdll.dll The output window shows: First-chance exception at 0x00532c13 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xabababdb. First-chance exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Unhandled exception at 0x7c964ed1 in a.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. Any ideas? Edit: Okay - found the problem - it was dll related my app uses shared dlls a.dll and b.dll (and others) a.dll hardly every changes (and uses b.dll) b.dll was changed by another developer this morning and a.dll was not rebuilt. Depends.exe did not show any missing dlls, however a.dll no longer works because of the change to b.dll

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  • Passing arguments and values from HTML to jQuery (events)

    - by Jaroslav Moravec
    What is the practice to pass arguments from HTML to jQuery events function. For example getting id of row from db: <tr class="jq_killMe" id="thisItemId-id"> ... </tr> and jQuery: $(".jq_killMe").click(function () { var tmp = $(this).attr('id).split("-"); var id = tmp[0] // ... } What's the best practise, if I want to pass more than one argument? Is it better not to use jQuery? For example: <tr onclick="killMe('id')"> ... </tr> I didn't find the answer on my question, I will be glad even for links. Thanks. Edit (pre solution) So you suggested two methods to do that: Add custom attributes to element (XHTML) Use attribute ID and parse it by regex Attribute data-* attributes in HTML5 Use hidden children elements I like first solution, but... I would like to (I have to (employer)) produce valid code. Here is a nice question and answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/994856/so-what-if-custom-html-attributes-arent-valid-xhtml And the second is not so pretty as the first, but valid. So the compromise is... The third is the solution for future, but here is a lot of CMS where we have to use XHTML or HTML4. (And HTML5 is the long process)

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