Search Results

Search found 18729 results on 750 pages for 'edit'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 609/750 | < Previous Page | 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616  | Next Page >

  • Is there a mechanism to distribute an app with its own JRE?

    - by user179997
    These fine folks are my users: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=o4MwTvtyrUQ If you don't want to enjoy the video here is the gist: my users can't tell between a file and a folder, between a browser and a web site. I need to create a Java web app (Tomcat or Jetty) and deploy it in as many of their computers, Windows and Mac. The question is: Is there a mechanism to distribute an app with its own JRE? (in the Tcl world there are starpacks and starkits, in the Python world there's py2exe and others, that's the idea). And also, is it legal? I know the VM is open source but I'm not clear about the libraries, and I know about GNU Classpath but I don't know if all the packages are there. I don't want to depend on the installed JRE or on the user having enough privileges to install one. On the Mac I don't want to depend on Apple (I had to switch from Tiger to Snow Leopard just to have Java 1.6, I can't put my users in that position) Any info greatly appreciated. Thanks! jb edit: I'm wondering if I can just paste the JRE folder under my app folder. Is that allowed?

    Read the article

  • Issue calling superclass method in subclass constructor

    - by stormin986
    I get a NullPointerException calling a Superclass Method in Subclass Inner Class Constructor... What's the Deal? In my application's main class (subclass of Application), I have a public inner class that simply contains 3 public string objects. In the parent class I declare an object of that inner class. public class MainApplication extends Application { public class Data { public String x; public String y; public String z; } private Data data; MainApplication() { data = new Data() data.x = SuperClassMethod(); } } After I instantiate the object in the constructor, I get a runtime error when I try to assign a value in the inner class with a superclass method. Any idea what's up here?? Can you not call superclass methods in the subclass constructor? ** Edit ** Original question was about inner class member assignment in outer class constructor. Turned out the issue was with calling a superclass method in the class's constructor. It was giving me a null pointer exception. Thus, the question has changed.

    Read the article

  • Prevent TEXTAREAs scroll by themselves on IE8

    - by Justin Grant
    IE8 has a known bug (per connect.microsoft.com) where typing or pasting text into a TEXTAREA element will cause the textarea to scroll by itself. This is hugely annoying and shows up in many community sites, including Wikipedia. The repro is this: open the HTML below with IE8 (or use any long page on wikipedia which will exhibit the same problem until they fix it) size the browser full-screen paste a few pages of text into the TEXTAREA move the scrollbar to the middle position now type one character into the textarea Expected: nothing happens Actual: scrossing happens on its own, and the insertion point ends up near the bottom of the textarea! Below is repro HTML (can also see this live on the web here: http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Text_box&action=edit) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <body> <div style="width: 80%"> <textarea rows="20" cols="80" style="width:100%;" ></textarea> </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Drupal-- How to place an image in Panels 3 panels and mini-panels, w/o views or nodes?

    - by msumme
    Is it possible, through any modular functionality, to insert an image into a (mini-)panel, either through token replacement, or through an upload dialog, or through a file selection menu? Do I have to use views? Do I have to create nodes? Would the best way be to make a panel node, and then embed it in a mini-node, if I want a block-like panel that can be placed on multiple pages? I want to build a site with images in a particular layout as a small block, and make it very easy for my client to change those images in the future. I can think of some other ways to make this work, but it's driving me crazy that there seems to be no way to simply PUT an image in a mini-panel without having to upload it and hard-code an image tag. And since my client knows no HTML, coding it this way makes it un-helpful for him. And this mini-panel block is going to be used on a number of pages, and needs to be easily modified. I have been googling for about 45 minutes, and come up with nothing useful. EDIT: OR EVEN just put ONLY one image from an image field w/ multiple values in a panel region on a panel node?

    Read the article

  • Use ini/appconfig file or sql server file to store user config?

    - by h2g2java
    I know that the preference for INI or appconfig XML is their human readability. Let's say user preferences stored for my app are hierarchical and numbers about a thousand items and it would be really confusing for a user to edit an INI to change things anyway. I have always been using a combination of INI with appconfig. I am leaning towards using sql server db file, now. Every time the user changes a preference while using the app, it would be stored into the db file - that's my line of thought. I am also thinking that such a config db file could move around with the app too, just like an INI. Before I do that, any advice 1. If there are any disadvantages against using a db file over INI or appconfig. 2. If a shop uses mysql or oracle, do you think your colleagues would lift up their pro-mysql or pro-oracle eyebrow questioning why you would use sql server technology in a mysql or oracle shop? I mean, I am just using it like an INI file or app.config anyway, right?

    Read the article

  • MySQL default value based on view

    - by Jake
    Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

    Read the article

  • Requirements for connecting to Oracle with JDBC?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    I'm a newbie to Java-related web development, and I can't seem to get a simple program with JDBC working. I'm using off-the-shelf Oracle 10g XE and the Eclipse EE IDE. From the books and web pages I've checked so far, I've narrowed the problem down to either an incorrectly written database URL or a missing JAR file. I'm getting the following error: java.sql.SQLException: No suitable driver found for jdbc:oracle://127.0.0.1:8080 with the following code: import java.sql.*; public class DatabaseTestOne { public static void main(String[] args) { String url = "jdbc:oracle://127.0.0.1:8080"; String username = "HR"; String password = "samplepass"; String sql = "SELECT EMPLOYEE_ID FROM EMPLOYEES WHERE LAST_NAME='King'"; Connection connection; try { connection = DriverManager.getConnection(url, username, password); Statement statement = connection.createStatement(); System.out.println(statement.execute(sql)); connection.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { System.err.println(e); } } } What is the proper format for a database URL, anyways? They're mentioned a lot but I haven't been able to find a description. Thanks! EDIT (the answer): Based on duffymo's answer, I got ojdbc14.jar from http://www.oracle.com/technology/software/tech/java/sqlj_jdbc/htdocs/jdbc_10201.html and dropped it in the Eclipse project's Referenced Libraries. Then I changed the start of the code to ... try { Class.forName("oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver"); } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { System.err.println(e); } // jdbc:oracle:thin:@<hostname>:<port>:<sid> String url = "jdbc:oracle:thin:@GalacticAC:1521:xe"; ... and it worked.

    Read the article

  • P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical

    - by Bobrovsky
    My code imports following native methods: DeleteObject, GetFontData and SelectObject from gdi32.dll GetDC and ReleaseDC from user32.dll I want to run the code in full trust and medium trust environments (I am fine with exceptions being thrown when these imported methods are indirectly used in medium trust environments). When I run Code Analysis on the code I get warnings like: CA5122 P/Invoke declarations should not be safe-critical. P/Invoke method 'GdiFont.DeleteObject(IntPtr)' is marked safe-critical. Since P/Invokes may only be called by critical code, this declaration should either be marked as security critical, or have its annotation removed entirely to avoid being misleading. Could someone explain me (in layman terms) what does this warning really mean? I tried putting these imports in static SafeNativeMethods class as internal static methods but this doesn't make the warnings go away. I didn't try to put them in NativeMethods because after reading this article I am unsure that it's the right way to go because I don't want my code to be completely unusable in medium trust environments (I think this will be the consequence of moving imports to NativeMethods). Honestly, I am pretty much confused about the real meaning of the warning and consequences of different options to suppressing it. Could someone shed some light on all this? EDIT: My code target .NET 2.0 framework. Assembly is marked with [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] Methods are declared like this: [DllImport("gdi32")] internal static extern int DeleteObject(HANDLE hObject);

    Read the article

  • git rebase without changing commit timestamps

    - by Olivier
    Would it make sense to perform git rebase while preserving the commit timestamps? I believe a consequence would be that the new branch will not necessarily have commit dates chronologically. Is that theoretically possible at all? (e.g. using plumbing commands; just curious here) If it is theoretically possible, then is it possible in practice with rebase, not to change the timestamps? For example, assume I have the following tree: master <jun 2010> | : : : oldbranch <feb 1984> : / oldcommit <jan 1984> Now, if I rebase oldbranch on master, the date of the commit changes from feb 1984 to jun 2010. Is it possible to change that behaviour so that the commit timestamp is not changed? In the end I would thus obtain: oldbranch <feb 1984> / master <jun 2010> | : Would that make sense at all? Is it even allowed in git to have a history where an old commit has a more recent commit as a parent? Edit A crucial question of Von C helped me understand what is going on: when your rebase, the committer's timestamp changes, but not the author's timestamp, which suddenly all makes sense. So my question was actually not precise enough. The answer is that rebase actually doesn't change the author's timestamps (you don't need to do anything for that), which suits me perfectly.

    Read the article

  • Installer downloads wrong version of sql server compact edition

    - by MartinStettner
    I have a Visual Studio setup project which defines SQL Server 3.5 as prerequisite. I also set it up to download the required files from the source (i.e. Microsoft). My project uses Sql Server 3.5 SP1. If I create the installer on my development machine, everything works fine. When the installer is built on the build machine, it downloads the "old" 3.5 version (without SP1) which makes my application crash. (If I install SP1 on the test system manually, the application just works find...) I installed both Visual Studio 2008 SP1 and Sql Server 3.5 SP1 on the build machine. This seems to be some issue with the prerequisite packages but they look the same on the development and the build machines. Any idea what goes wrong here? EDIT Ok, I rechecked it and the package descriptions are'nt the sames. Oddly enough, the .msi file is the right one on the build machine but the old one on the development machine, so I guess if I tried to build an installer which includes the prerequisites, I'd get the wrong result on the dev machine and the right one on the build machine. Extended question: How are the prerequesite packages (under C:\Program Files\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v6.0A\Bootstrapper\Packages\SQL Server Compact Edition) meant to be updated to SP1? Is the SQL Server CE SP1 installer responsible for this?

    Read the article

  • Is there an ORM that supports composition w/o Joins

    - by Ken Downs
    EDIT: Changed title from "inheritance" to "composition". Left body of question unchanged. I'm curious if there is an ORM tool that supports inheritance w/o creating separate tables that have to be joined. Simple example. Assume a table of customers, with a Bill-to address, and a table of vendors, with a remit-to address. Keep it simple and assume one address each, not a child table of addresses for each. These addresses will have a handful of values in common: address 1, address 2, city, state/province, postal code. So let's say I'd have a class "addressBlock" and I want the customers and vendors to inherit from this class, and possibly from other classes. But I do not want separate tables that have to be joined, I want the columns in the customer and vendor tables respectively. Is there an ORM that supports this? The closest question I have found on StackOverflow that might be the same question is linked below, but I can't quite figure if the OP is asking what I am asking. He seems to be asking about foregoing inheritance precisely because there will be multiple tables. I'm looking for the case where you can use inheritance w/o generating the multiple tables. Model inheritance approach with Django's ORM

    Read the article

  • How to remove the "button" effect for a menu item (WPF)

    - by Sorin Comanescu
    Hi, When the mouse is over a menu item (first level) it displays a 3D button effect. How can this be removed? Thanks. EDIT: Tried <Style TargetType="MenuItem"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter Property="BorderBrush" Value="Transparent"> <Setter Property="BorderThickness" Value="0"> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> with no effect. The menu XAML: <Window x:Class="UCWPF.Window3" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:conv="clr-namespace:UCWPF.Converters" Title="Window3" Height="600" Width="600" Background="{StaticResource WindowBackgroundBrush}" > <StackPanel Style="{StaticResource WindowContainerStyle}"> <Menu> <MenuItem Header="New" Icon="{StaticResource ImageExport}" /> <MenuItem Header="Open" Icon="{StaticResource ImageOpen}" /> <MenuItem Header="Save" Icon="{StaticResource ImageSave}" /> <MenuItem Header="Export" Icon="{StaticResource ImageExport}" /> </Menu> ... And here's the screenshot:

    Read the article

  • Disable control in .aspx from Masterpage conditionally

    - by miccet
    Ok, this might be a bit weird, so I'll start with explaining what I'm trying to do. I have several masterpages for my site, and in they inherit each other. In the second of them (4 in total) I have a background image. Here comes the trick, I'd like to override this image from the final aspx page. I can't change the position of this image, it has to be in masterpage 2, since some pages uses that very page as masterpage. One idea I had was to create a ContentPlaceHolder next to the image and if there are any images in that (check in Page_Load) then the main image would be hidden. I did this with a recursive function, that finds the image by looping through the ContentPlaceHolder's controls. When I set the visibility property to false though, nothing happens. Any other ideas to how this could be done, or why the above doesn't work? Edit: It's not about changing items in the master pages, rather the other way around, that from the Masterpages codebehind dig down into the page that is displayed currently and see if it has controls in a specific ContentPlaceHolder.

    Read the article

  • How does the CheckBox obtain it's respective drawables?

    - by alex2k8
    The CheckBox class extends the CompoundButton, but add nothing to it. But some how it obtains it's respective look. I found some declarations in Android sources, but wonder how they are mapped to CheckBox class? public class CheckBox extends CompoundButton { public CheckBox(Context context) { this(context, null); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { this(context, attrs, com.android.internal.R.attr.checkboxStyle); } public CheckBox(Context context, AttributeSet attrs, int defStyle) { super(context, attrs, defStyle); } } Styles <style name="Theme"> <item name="checkboxStyle">@android:style/Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox</item> </style> <style name="Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox"> <item name="android:background">@android:drawable/btn_check_label_background</item> <item name="android:button">@android:drawable/btn_check</item> </style> EDIT: Probably I was not clear... I understand how the drawable assigned to Widget.CompoundButton.CheckBox style, but how this style assigned to CheckBox class? I see the ".CheckBox" in the style name, but is this naming convention really what makes the trick? If so, what are the rules? If I derive MyCheckBox from CompoundButton, can I just define the Widget.CompoundButton.MyCheckBox style and it will work?

    Read the article

  • Plot vectors with labels in matlab

    - by mad
    I have a Nx62 matrix with N 62-D vectors and a NX1 vector with the labels for the vectors. I am trying to plot these vectors with their labels because I want to see the behavior of these classes when plotted in a 62-dimensional space. The vectors belong to three classes according to the labels of a NX1 vector cited before. How to to that in matlab? when i do plot(vector,classes) the result is very weird to analyse, how to put labels in the graph? The code i am using to get the labels, vectors and plotting is the following: %labels is a vector with labels, vectors is a matrix where each line is a vector [labels,vectors]=libsvmread('features-im1.txt'); when I plot a three dimensional vector is simple a=[1,2,3] plot(a) and then I get the result but now i have a set of vectors and a set of labels, and i want to see the distribution of them, i want to plot each of these labels but also want to identify their classes. How to do that in matlab? EDIT: This code is almost working. The problem is the fact that for each vector and class the plot will assign a color. I just want three colors and three labels, one per class. [class,vector]=libsvmread('features-im1.txt'); %the plot doesn't allow negative and 0 values in the label class=class+2; labels = {'class -1','class 0','class 1'}; h = plot(vector); legend(h,labels{class})

    Read the article

  • Prevent box shadow from showing on a specific side

    - by kaile
    Is there any way to create a css box-shadow in which regardless of the blur value, the shadow only appears on the desired sides? For example if I want to create a div with shadows on left and right sides and no shadow on the top or bottom. The div is not absolutely positioned and its height is determined by the content. -- Edit -- @ricebowl: I appreciate your answer. Maybe you can help with creating a complete solution to fix the problems stated in my reply to your solution... My page setup is as follows: <div id="container"> <div id="header"></div> <div id="content"></div> <div id="clearfooter"></div> </div> <div id="footer"></div> And CSS like this: #container {width:960px; min-height:100%; margin:0px auto -32px auto; position:relative; padding:0px; background-color:#e6e6e6; -moz-box-shadow: -3px 0px 5px rgba(0,0,0,.8), 3px 0px 5px rgba(0,0,0,.8);} #header {height:106px; position:relative;} #content {position:relative;} #clearFooter {height:32px; clear:both; display:block; padding:0px; margin:0px;} #footer {height:32px; padding:0px; position:relative; width:960px; margin:0px auto 0px auto;}

    Read the article

  • Cannot set property X of undefined - programatically created element

    - by Dave
    I am working on a class to create a fairly complex custom element. I want to be able to define element attributes (mainly CSS) as I am creating the elements. I came up with the below function to quickly set attrs for me given an input array: // Sample array structure of apply_settings //var _button_div = { // syle : { // position: 'absolute', // padding : '2px', // right : 0, // top : 0 // } //}; function __apply_settings(__el,apply_settings){ try{ for(settingKey in apply_settings){ __setting = apply_settings[settingKey]; if(typeof(__setting)=='string'){ __el[settingKey] = __setting; }else{ for(i in __setting){ __el[settingKey][i] = apply_settings[settingKey][i]; } } } }catch(ex){ alert(ex + " " + __el); } } The function works fine except here: function __draw_top(){ var containerDiv = document.createElement('div'); var buttonDiv = document.createElement('div'); __apply_settings(containerDiv,this.settings.top_bar); if(global_settings.show_x) buttonDiv.appendChild(__create_img(global_settings.images.close)); containerDiv.appendChild(buttonDiv); __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); return containerDiv; } The specific section that is failing is __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); with the error "Cannot set property 'position' of undefined". So naturally, I am assuming that buttonDiv is undefined.. I put alert(ex + " " + __el); in __apply_settings() to verify what I was working with. Surprisingly enough, the element is a div. Is there any reason why this function would be working for containerDiv and not buttonDiv? Any help would be greatly appreciated :) {EDIT} http://jsfiddle.net/Us8Zw/2/

    Read the article

  • Group vs role (Any real difference?)

    - by Ondrej
    Can anyone tell me, what's the real difference between group and role? Ive been trying to figure this out for some time now and the more information I read, the more I get the sence, that this is brought up just to confuse people and there is no proper difference in this. Both can do the other one's job. Ive always used a group to manage users and their access rights. Recently, I've come accross an administration software, where is a bunch of users. Each user can have assigned a module (whole system is split into a few parts called modules ie. Administration module, Survey module, Orders module, Customer module). On top of it, each module have a list of functionalities, that can be allowed or denied for each user. So let's say, a user John Smith can access module Orders and can edit any order, but havent given a right to delete any of them. If there was more users with the same competency, I would use a group to manage that. I would aggregate such users into the same group and assign access rights to modules and their functions to the group. All users in the same group would have the same access rights. Why call it a group and not role? I don't know, I just feel it that way. It seems to me, that simply it just doesnt really matter :] But I still would like to know the real difference. What about you guys? Any suggestions why this should be rather called role than group or the other way round? Thanks to everyone.

    Read the article

  • wcf trying to set up tracing to debug, not writing to log file

    - by joey j
    here's my web.config, running a WCF service in an application on IIS7, but nothing is being written to the specified file. permission on the file has been granted for everyone. </listeners> I can add a service reference just fine. I then try to call the service from a windows app and, after a few minutes, get an error on the machine running the windows app "Client is unable to finish the security negotiation within the configured timeout (00:00:00). The current negotiation leg is 1 (00:00:00)." but absolutely nothing is written to the trace log file specified in config. Is there something else I need to do to enable tracing? thanks for your help EDIT: "sources" section now matches the section recommended here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa702726.aspx I've added the "diagnostics and the event viewer shows: "Message Logging has been turned on. Sensitive information may be logged in the clear, even if it was encrypted on the wire: for example, message bodies. Process Name: w3wp Process ID: 1784 " but the log file is still empty

    Read the article

  • Autodiscovery for inclusion tags

    - by Ludwik Trammer
    The title may be a little confusing, but I don't know how else to call it. I would like to create a Django project with a large set of applications you could arbitrary turn on or off using INSTALLED_APPS option in settings.py (you would obviously also need to edit urls.py and run syncdb). After being turned on an app should be able to automatically: Register it's content in site-wide search. Luckily django-haystack has this built-in, so it's not a problem. Register cron jobs. django-cron does exactly that. Not a problem. Register a widget that should be displayed on the homepage. The homepage should include a list of boxes with widgets form different applications. I thought about inclusion tags, because you can put them anywhere on a page and they control both content and presentation. The problem is I don't know how to automatically get a list of inclusion tags provided by my applications, and display them one by one on a homepage. I need a way to register them somehow, and then display all registered tags.

    Read the article

  • Passing arguments and values from HTML to jQuery (events)

    - by Jaroslav Moravec
    What is the practice to pass arguments from HTML to jQuery events function. For example getting id of row from db: <tr class="jq_killMe" id="thisItemId-id"> ... </tr> and jQuery: $(".jq_killMe").click(function () { var tmp = $(this).attr('id).split("-"); var id = tmp[0] // ... } What's the best practise, if I want to pass more than one argument? Is it better not to use jQuery? For example: <tr onclick="killMe('id')"> ... </tr> I didn't find the answer on my question, I will be glad even for links. Thanks. Edit (pre solution) So you suggested two methods to do that: Add custom attributes to element (XHTML) Use attribute ID and parse it by regex Attribute data-* attributes in HTML5 Use hidden children elements I like first solution, but... I would like to (I have to (employer)) produce valid code. Here is a nice question and answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/994856/so-what-if-custom-html-attributes-arent-valid-xhtml And the second is not so pretty as the first, but valid. So the compromise is... The third is the solution for future, but here is a lot of CMS where we have to use XHTML or HTML4. (And HTML5 is the long process)

    Read the article

  • How to handle dynamic role or username changes in JSF?

    - by roadrunner
    I have a JSF application running on glassfish 2.1 with a EJB 3 backend. For authentication I use a custom realm. The user authenticates using the e-mail-address and password he specified on registration. Everything is working quite well. Now I have two related problems: 1) The user can edit his profile and -- naturally -- he can also change his e-mail-address. Unfortunately when I perform operations based on the current user's identity using ExternalContext.getUserPrincipal().getName(), I will receive the previous e-mail-address the user used on login. At the moment I handle this by forcing the user to reauthenticate after he changed his e-mail-address, but is there another more graceful possibility? 2) Same for user roles. E.g. I have the user roles MEMBER and PREMIUM_MEMBER. A MEMBER may become a PREMIUM_MEMBER during his current session. Unfortunately the role seems to be only determined at login. Is there any possibility, that JSF and EJB recognize the new user role without the need for the user to re-authenticated?

    Read the article

  • Flash Player scripting + IE8

    - by Joel Alejandro
    I've developed a small control bar for a Flash viewer generated by a third-party software. It has a First, Prev, Next & Last button, and a Zoom command. While Zoom works fine in all browsers, the navigation buttons seem to fail at Internet Explorer 8. I use at least two functions. This one locates the Flash object I want to manipulate: function getFlashMovieObject(movieName) { if (window.document[movieName]) { return window.document[movieName]; } if (navigator.appName.indexOf("Microsoft Internet")==-1) { if (document.embeds && document.embeds[movieName]) return document.embeds[movieName]; } else // if (navigator.appName.indexOf("Microsoft Internet")!=-1) { return document.getElementById(movieName); } } ...and any of these ones handles the frame navigation: var currentFrame = 0; function gotoFirst(id) { getFlashMovieObject(id + "Blueprints").Rewind(); currentFrame = 0; $("currentFrame").innerHTML = currentFrame + 1; $("frameTitle").innerHTML = frameTitles[id][currentFrame]; } function gotoPrev(id) { var movie = getFlashMovieObject(id + "Blueprints"); if (currentFrame 0) { currentFrame--; } movie.GotoFrame(currentFrame); $("currentFrame").innerHTML = currentFrame + 1; $("frameTitle").innerHTML = frameTitles[id][currentFrame]; } function gotoNext(id) { var movie = getFlashMovieObject(id + "Blueprints"); if (currentFrame < movie.TotalFrames() - 1) { currentFrame++; } movie.GotoFrame(currentFrame); $("currentFrame").innerHTML = currentFrame + 1; $("frameTitle").innerHTML = frameTitles[id][currentFrame]; } function gotoLast(id) { var movie = getFlashMovieObject(id + "Blueprints"); currentFrame = movie.TotalFrames() - 1; movie.GotoFrame(currentFrame); $("currentFrame").innerHTML = currentFrame + 1; $("frameTitle").innerHTML = frameTitles[id][currentFrame]; } Btw, that $ is MooTools, not jQuery. Anyway, IE dies on the movie.TotalFrames() call. What can I do to solve this? Keep in mind I need this to be done via JavaScript, as I cannot edit the SWF.

    Read the article

  • How to retrieve view of MultiIndex DataFrame

    - by Henry S. Harrison
    This question was inspired by this question. I had the same problem, updating a MultiIndex DataFrame by selection. The drop_level=False solution in Pandas 0.13 will allow me to achieve the same result, but I am still wondering why I cannot get a view from the MultiIndex DataFrame. In other words, why does this not work?: >>> sat = d.xs('sat', level='day', copy=False) Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "C:\Python27\lib\site-packages\pandas\core\frame.py", line 2248, in xs raise ValueError('Cannot retrieve view (copy=False)') ValueError: Cannot retrieve view (copy=False) Of course it could be only because it is not implemented, but is there a reason? Is it somehow ambiguous or impossible to implement? Returning a view is more intuitive to me than returning a copy then later updating the original. I looked through the source and it seems this situation is checked explicitly to raise an error. Alternatively, is it possible to get the same sort of view from any of the other indexing methods? I've experimented but have not been successful. [edit] Some potential implementations are discussed here. I guess with the last question above I'm wondering what the current best solution is to index into arbitrary multiindex slices and cross-sections.

    Read the article

  • Rails: generating URLs for actions in JSON response

    - by Chris Butler
    In a view I am generating an HTML canvas of figures based on model data in an app. In the view I am preloading JSON model data in the page like this (to avoid an initial request back): <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> <% ActiveRecord::Base.include_root_in_json = false -%> var objects = <%= @objects.to_json(:include => :other_objects) %>; ... Based on mouse (or touch) interaction I want to redirect to other parts of my app that are model specific (such as view, edit, delete, etc.). Rather than hard code the URLs in my JavaScript I want to generate them from Rails (which means it always adapts the latest routes). It seems like I have one of three options: Add an empty attr to the model that the controller fills in with the appropriate URL (we don't want to use routes in the model) before the JSON is generated Generate custom JSON where I add the different URLs manually Generate the URL as a template from Rails and replace the IDs in JavaScript as appropriate I am starting to lean towards #1 for ease of implementation and maintainability. Are there any other options that I am missing? Is #1 not the best? Thanks! Chris

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 605 606 607 608 609 610 611 612 613 614 615 616  | Next Page >