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  • Can YAML have inheritance?

    - by Jason
    This question involves a lot of symfony but it should be easy enough for someone to follow who only knows YAML and not symfony. My symfony models come from a three-step process: First, I create the tables in MySQL. Second, I run a symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-schema) to convert my table structure into a YAML file. Third, I run another symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-model) to convert the YAML file into PHP code. Here's the problem: there are some tables in the database that I don't want to end up in my symfony code. For example, let's say I have two tables: one called my_table and another called wordpress. The YAML file I end up with might look like this: MyTable: connection: doctrine tableName: my_table Wordpress: connection: doctrine tableName: wordpress That's great except the wordpress table has nothing to do with my symfony models. The result is that every single time I make a change to my database and generate this YAML file, I have to manually remove wordpress. It's annoying! I'd like to be able to create a file called baseConfig.php or something that looks like this: $config = array( 'MyTable' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'my_table', ), 'Wordpress' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'wordpress', ), ); And then I could have a separate file called config.php or something where I could make modifications to the base config: unset($config['Wordpress']); So my question is: is there any way to convert YAML into executable PHP code (as opposed to load YAML INTO PHP code like what sfYaml::load() does) to achieve this sort of thing? Or is there maybe some other way to achieve YAML inheritance? Thanks, Jason

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  • Why is my code signing (MS authenticode) verification failing?

    - by Tim
    I posted this question and have a freshly minted code signing cert from Thawte. I followed the instructions (or so I thought) and the code signing claims to be done right, however when I try to verify the tool shows an error. I have no idea what it means and no idea how to fix this. Any comments would be appreciated. Command line to sign exe: signtool sign /f mdt.pfx /p password /t http://timestamp.verisign.com/scripts/timstamp.dll test.exe Results: The following certificate was selected: Issued to: [my company] Issued by: Thawte Code Signing CA Expires: 4/23/2011 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: 7D1A42364765F8969E83BC00AB77F901118F3601 Done Adding Additional Store Attempting to sign: test.exe Successfully signed and timestamped: test.exe Number of files successfully Signed: 1 Number of warnings: 0 Number of errors: 0 Note that there are no errors or warnings. Now, when I try to verify imagine my surprise: signtool verify /v test.exe results in: Verifying: test.exe SHA1 hash of file: 490BA0656517D3A322D19F432F1C6D40695CAD22 Signing Certificate Chain: Issued to: Thawte Premium Server CA Issued by: Thawte Premium Server CA Expires: 12/31/2020 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: 627F8D7827656399D27D7F9044C9FEB3F33EFA9A Issued to: Thawte Code Signing CA Issued by: Thawte Premium Server CA Expires: 8/5/2013 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: A706BA1ECAB6A2AB18699FC0D7DD8C7DE36F290F Issued to: [my company] Issued by: Thawte Code Signing CA Expires: 4/23/2011 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: 7D1A42364765F8969E83BC00AB77F901118F3601 The signature is timestamped: 4/27/2010 10:19:19 AM Timestamp Verified by: Issued to: Thawte Timestamping CA Issued by: Thawte Timestamping CA Expires: 12/31/2020 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: BE36A4562FB2EE05DBB3D32323ADF445084ED656 Issued to: VeriSign Time Stamping Services CA Issued by: Thawte Timestamping CA Expires: 12/3/2013 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: F46AC0C6EFBB8C6A14F55F09E2D37DF4C0DE012D Issued to: VeriSign Time Stamping Services Signer - G2 Issued by: VeriSign Time Stamping Services CA Expires: 6/14/2012 7:59:59 PM SHA1 hash: ADA8AAA643FF7DC38DD40FA4C97AD559FF4846DE Number of files successfully Verified: 0 Number of warnings: 0 Number of errors: 1

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  • Trend analysis using iterative value increments

    - by Dave Jarvis
    We have configured iReport to generate the following graph: The real data points are in blue, the trend line is green. The problems include: Too many data points for the trend line Trend line does not follow a Bezier curve (spline) The source of the problem is with the incrementer class. The incrementer is provided with the data points iteratively. There does not appear to be a way to get the set of data. The code that calculates the trend line looks as follows: import java.math.BigDecimal; import net.sf.jasperreports.engine.fill.*; /** * Used by an iReport variable to increment its average. */ public class MovingAverageIncrementer implements JRIncrementer { private BigDecimal average; private int incr = 0; /** * Instantiated by the MovingAverageIncrementerFactory class. */ public MovingAverageIncrementer() { } /** * Returns the newly incremented value, which is calculated by averaging * the previous value from the previous call to this method. * * @param jrFillVariable Unused. * @param object New data point to average. * @param abstractValueProvider Unused. * @return The newly incremented value. */ public Object increment( JRFillVariable jrFillVariable, Object object, AbstractValueProvider abstractValueProvider ) { BigDecimal value = new BigDecimal( ( ( Number )object ).doubleValue() ); // Average every 10 data points // if( incr % 10 == 0 ) { setAverage( ( value.add( getAverage() ).doubleValue() / 2.0 ) ); } incr++; return getAverage(); } /** * Changes the value that is the moving average. * @param average The new moving average value. */ private void setAverage( BigDecimal average ) { this.average = average; } /** * Returns the current moving average average. * @return Value used for plotting on a report. */ protected BigDecimal getAverage() { if( this.average == null ) { this.average = new BigDecimal( 0 ); } return this.average; } /** Helper method. */ private void setAverage( double d ) { setAverage( new BigDecimal( d ) ); } } How would you create a smoother and more accurate representation of the trend line?

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  • Add a custom variable to an email header already within a gmail inbox

    - by Ali
    Hi guys - this may seem odd but I was wondering if it was possible to add custom header details to emails already in an inbox. Like lets say I wish to add in the Header of the email something like - myvariable = myvalue and then be able to query it somehow. I'm looking at code from Iloha mail and most of the details like subject and from recieved etc are in the headers and you can search through them. SO is it possible to add my own custom variable to an email header and query it in the same way? How can it be done using php? EDIT ==================== Thanks I know how you can modify the headers of sent messages plus also query for custom variables in message headers however in this case I want to know if it would be possible to add a custom variable in a recieved message already in my inbox. Actually let me define the situation here. I'm working on a google apps solution which requires maintaining references to emails. Basically the application is as such that when an email comes in - we create an order from that email and wish to maintain a reference to that EXACT email by some kind of identifier which would enable us to identify that email. The fact is that we don't want to download the emails in a database and maintain a separate store as we would want to keep all the emailing on GMAIL. We just need: A way to be able to 'link' to a specific email permanently - the UID is just a sequence number and not very reliable. We couldn't find any property of emails that could function as a unique ID or primary key and so we thought if we could instead generate a key on our end and store it in a custom variable on the email itself. However it seems unfortunately that there isn't a way to manipulate headers of an already existing email. :( is there any solution to this problem I could use any IDEA !

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  • MonoDevelop: Addin generation issues

    - by calmcajun
    I am having problems creating the root.mrep file for a updated MonoDevelop Addin. The Addin was originally built for MonoDevelop 2.2. I am able to build the updated project but when I use mdrun.exe setup rep-build to generate the .mrep files(main and root) it only generates the main.mrep file and not the root.mrep file. Is there a new way of building the addin that I am missing? I used both setup pack and then setup rep-build. I have listed a snippet of the addin.xml file below: <Addin id = "Addin" namespace = "MonoDevelop" name = "Monobjc development" author = "Rob L" copyright = "" description = "Addin" category = "Mac Development" version = "1.0"> <Runtime> <Import assembly="MonoDevelop.Sample.dll" /> <Import assembly="MonoDevelop.MacDev.dll" /> <Import assembly="Sample.Tools.dll" /> </Runtime> <Dependencies> <Addin id="Core" version="2.4" /> <Addin id="Core.Gui" version="2.4" /> <Addin id="Projects" version="2.4" /> <Addin id="Projects.Gui" version="2.4" /> <Addin id="Ide" version="2.4" /> </Dependencies> <MoreStuffHere /> </Addin>

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  • playframework auto-test Jenkins CI wait for completion?

    - by notbrain
    I am trying to set up Jenkins CI for a playframework.org application but am having trouble properly launching play after the auto-test command is run. The tests all run fine, but it seems as though my script is launching both play auto-test and play start --%ci at the same time. When the play start --%ci command runs, it gets a pid and everything, but it's not running. FILE: auto-test.sh, jenkins runs this with execute shell #!/bin/bash # pwd is jenkins workspace dir # change into approot dir cd customer-portal; # kill any previous play launches if [ -e "server.pid" ] then kill `cat server.pid`; rm -rf server.pid; fi # drop and re-create the DB mysql --user=USER --password=PASS --host=HOSTNAME < ../setupdb.sql # auto-test the most recent build /usr/local/lib/play/play auto-test; # this is inadequate for waiting for auto-test to complete? # how to wait for actual process completion? # sleep 60; wait; # Conditional start based on tests # Launch normal on pass, test on fail # if [ -e "./test-result/result.passed" ] then /usr/local/lib/play/play start --%ci; exit 0; else /usr/local/lib/play/play test; exit 1; fi

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  • Fast screen capture and lost Vsync

    - by user338759
    Hi, I'd like to generate a movie in real time with a self-made application doing fast screen captures with part of the screen occupied by a running 3D application. I'm aware that several applications already exist for this (like FRAPS or Taksi), and even dedicated DirectShow filters (like UScreenCapture), but i really need to make this with my own external application. When correctly setup (UScreenCapture + ffdshow), capturing an compressing a full screen does not consumes as much CPU as you would expect (about 15%), and does not impairs the performances of the 3D app. The problem of doing a capture from an external application is that the 3D application loses it's Vsync and creates a shaggy, difficult to use 3D application (3D app is only presented on a small part of the screen, the rest being GDI, DirectX) FRAPS solves this problem by allowing you to capture only one application at a time (the one with focus). Depending on the technology used (OpenGl, DirectX, GDI), it hooks the Vsync and does its capture (with glReadPixels,...), without perturbing it. Doing this does not solve my problem, since I want the full composed screen image (including 3D and the rest) AND a smooth 3D app. The UScreenCapture seems to use a fast DirectX call to capture the whole screen, but the openGL 3D app is still out of sync. Doing a BitBlt is too slow and CPU consumming to do real time 30 fps acquisition (at least under windows XP, not sure with 7) My question is to know if there is a way to achieve my goal with Windows 7 and it's brand new DirectX compositing engine? Windows 7 succeeds to show live VSynced duplicated previews of every app (in the taskbar), so there must be a way to access the currenlty displayed screen buffer without perturbing the rendering of the 3D OpenGL app ? Any other suggestion, technology ? thank you

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  • FTP server output and accents

    - by James P.
    I've written this little test class to connect up to an FTP server. import java.io.BufferedInputStream; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStream; import java.net.MalformedURLException; import java.net.URL; import java.net.URLConnection; public class FTPTest { public static void main(String[] args) { URL url = null; try { url = new URL("ftp://anonymous:[email protected]"); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } URLConnection conn = null; try { conn = url.openConnection(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } InputStream in = null; try { in = conn.getInputStream(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } BufferedInputStream bin = new BufferedInputStream(in); int b; try { while ((b = bin.read()) != -1) { char c = (char) b; System.out.print("" + (char) b); } } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } Here's the output: -rw-r--r-- 1 ftp ftp 4700 Apr 30 2007 premier.java -rw-r--r-- 1 ftp ftp 88576 Oct 23 2007 Serie1_1.doc -rw-r--r-- 1 ftp ftp 1401 Nov 21 2006 tp20061121.txt drwxr-xr-x 1 ftp ftp 0 Apr 23 20:04 répertoire Notice the name of the directory at the end of the list. There should be an "é" (e with acute accent) instead of the double character "é". This reminds me of an issue encountered previously with JSF where there was a mix-up between standards. I have little experience with character-encoding though so I'm not sure what's happening. I'm supposing that the server output is in ASCII so how do I adapt the output so it appears correctly in the console?

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  • Problem connecting to Apache Derby using Hibernate configuration file in Netbeans (ERROR XSDB6)

    - by me_here
    I've created a local Apache Derby database in Netbeans, but am having problems when I try and autogenerate the POJO files, using the "Hibernate Reverse Engineering Wizard". My Hibernate configuration (generated by Netbeans from the database connection, then I added a few bits): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-configuration PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Configuration DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-configuration-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <!-- Default Netbeans generated parameters --> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.url">jdbc:derby:C:/CerealDatabase</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">cerealuser</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">cerealpass</property> <!-- Additional parameters --> <property name="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.DerbyDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.show_sql">true</property> <property name="hibernate.default_schema">CEREALUSER</property> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> When I try and generate the POJOs using this configuration file, I get the message to check my configuration file, and the derby.log gives the errors: java.sql.SQLException: Failed to start database 'C:/CerealDatabase', see the next exception for details. Caused by: java.sql.SQLException: Failed to start database 'C:/CerealDatabase', see the next exception for details. Caused by: ERROR XSDB6: Another instance of Derby may have already booted the database C:\CerealDatabase. I've closed any other connections to the database before trying this, and there is no "db.lck" lock file at the time, which indicates there are no connections to the database as I understand it. Does anyone have any ideas? Help gratefully received.

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  • jquery use return data from 2 functions in another function ---always get undefined. why ??

    - by user253530
    Function socialbookmarksTableData(data) is called by another function to generate the content of a table -- data is a JSON object. Inside the function i call 2 other functions that use getJSON and POST (with json as a return object) to get some data. The problem is: though the functions execute correctly i get undefined value for the 2 variables (bookmarkingSites, bookmarkCategories). Help with a solution please. function socialbookmarksGetBookmarkCategories(bookmarkID) { var toReturn = ''; $.post("php/socialbookmark-get-bookmark-categories.php",{ bookmarkID: bookmarkID },function(data){ $.each(data,function(i,categID){ toReturn += '<option value ="' + data[i].categID + '">' + data[i].categName + '</option>'; }) return toReturn; },"JSON"); } function socialbookmarksGetBookmarkSites() { var bookmarkingSites = ''; $.getJSON("php/socialbookmark-get-bookmarking-sites.php",function(bookmarks){ for(var i = 0; i < bookmarks.length; i++){ //alert( bookmarks[i].id); bookmarkingSites += '<option value = "' + bookmarks[i].id + '">' + bookmarks[i].title + '</option>'; } return bookmarkingSites; }); } function socialbookmarksTableData(data) { var toAppend = ''; var bookmarkingSites = socialbookmarksGetBookmarkSites(); $.each(data.results, function(i, id){ var bookmarkCategories = socialbookmarksGetBookmarkCategories(data.results[i].bookmarkID); //rest of the code is not important }); $("#searchTable tbody").append(toAppend); }

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  • Project Euler Question 14 (Collatz Problem)

    - by paradox
    The following iterative sequence is defined for the set of positive integers: n -n/2 (n is even) n -3n + 1 (n is odd) Using the rule above and starting with 13, we generate the following sequence: 13 40 20 10 5 16 8 4 2 1 It can be seen that this sequence (starting at 13 and finishing at 1) contains 10 terms. Although it has not been proved yet (Collatz Problem), it is thought that all starting numbers finish at 1. Which starting number, under one million, produces the longest chain? NOTE: Once the chain starts the terms are allowed to go above one million. I tried coding a solution to this in C using the bruteforce method. However, it seems that my program stalls when trying to calculate 113383. Please advise :) #include <stdio.h> #define LIMIT 1000000 int iteration(int value) { if(value%2==0) return (value/2); else return (3*value+1); } int count_iterations(int value) { int count=1; //printf("%d\n", value); while(value!=1) { value=iteration(value); //printf("%d\n", value); count++; } return count; } int main() { int iteration_count=0, max=0; int i,count; for (i=1; i<LIMIT; i++) { printf("Current iteration : %d\n", i); iteration_count=count_iterations(i); if (iteration_count>max) { max=iteration_count; count=i; } } //iteration_count=count_iterations(113383); printf("Count = %d\ni = %d\n",max,count); }

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  • authlogic in Rails

    - by Adnan
    Hello, I am using the authlogic gem for authentication. I have followed the steps at: http://railscasts.com/episodes/160-authlogic I have the following code: # config/environment.rb config.gem "authlogic" # models/user.rb acts_as_authentic # users_controller.rb def create @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:notice] = "Registration successful." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end def edit @user = current_user end def update @user = current_user if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) flash[:notice] = "Successfully updated profile." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'edit' end end # user_sessions_controller.rb def create @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Successfully logged in." redirect_to root_url else render :action => 'new' end end def destroy @user_session = UserSession.find @user_session.destroy flash[:notice] = "Successfully logged out." redirect_to root_url end # application_controller.rb filter_parameter_logging :password helper_method :current_user private def current_user_session return @current_user_session if defined?(@current_user_session) @current_user_session = UserSession.find end def current_user return @current_user if defined?(@current_user) @current_user = current_user_session && current_user_session.record end # config/routes.rb map.login "login", :controller => "user_sessions", :action => "new" map.logout "logout", :controller => "user_sessions", :action => "destroy" I got it all working, except I would like to have a user_id in session so I can track which user posted which post, where should I set it?

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  • WordPress > Optimizing a query to show recent posts with a "View All" link when postcount exceeds ma

    - by Scott B
    I have a setting in my theme that allows the site owner to set the maximum number of posts ($maxPosts) to display in a "Recent Posts" menu. I'm using a custom script to generate the recent posts (because the Recent Posts widget does not highlight the current page, which I need for my css). My menu also is set up to display a "View All" link below the post listing, but only if the actual post count is $maxposts I'm trying to work out the best method for getting the post count and comparing it to $maxposts in order to determine whether or not to show a "View All" link. I'm sure there's probably a better way, but here's my code. I'm looking to optimize it to support very large post counts... $cat=get_cat_ID('excludeFromRecentPosts'); $catHidden=get_cat_ID('hidden'); $myquery = new WP_Query(); $myquery->query(array( 'cat' => "-$cat,-$catHidden", 'post_not_in' => get_option('sticky_posts') )); $myrecentpostscount = $myquery->found_posts; if ($myrecentpostscount > 0) { //show the menu if ($myrecentpostscount > $maxPosts) { //show "View All" link } } I really only need to determine if the total post count from the query is greater than the maxPost setting in order to determine whether to show the "View All" link, so I'm wondering if, in the case there are thousands of posts matching the criteria, to avoid performance issues, I don't need to get a count of all of them. I just need to count up until the point of maxPosts + 1, and that's where I'm struggling a bit because the user could elect to make maxPosts = -1 which means they want to show all posts. But this would be impractical, so I would probably set a upper limit of 20...

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  • Working around MySQL error "Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction"

    - by Anon Guy
    Hi all: I have a MySQL table with about 5,000,000 rows that are being constantly updated in small ways by parallel Perl processes connecting via DBI. The table has about 10 columns and several indexes. One fairly common operation gives rise to the following error sometimes: DBD::mysql::st execute failed: Deadlock found when trying to get lock; try restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276. The SQL statement that triggers the error is something like this: UPDATE file_table SET a_lock = 'process-1234' WHERE param1 = 'X' AND param2 = 'Y' AND param3 = 'Z' LIMIT 47 The error is triggered only sometimes. I'd estimate in 1% of calls or less. However, it never happened with a small table and has become more common as the database has grown. Note that I am using the a_lock field in file_table to ensure that the four near-identical processes I am running do not try and work on the same row. The limit is designed to break their work into small chunks. I haven't done much tuning on MySQL or DBD::mysql. MySQL is a standard Solaris deployment, and the database connection is set up as follows: my $dsn = "DBI:mysql:database=" . $DbConfig::database . ";host=${DbConfig::hostname};port=${DbConfig::port}"; my $dbh = DBI->connect($dsn, $DbConfig::username, $DbConfig::password, { RaiseError => 1, AutoCommit => 1 }) or die $DBI::errstr; I have seen online that several other people have reported similar errors and that this may be a genuine deadlock situation. I have two questions: What exactly about my situation is causing the error above? Is there a simple way to work around it or lessen its frequency? For example, how exactly do I go about "restarting transaction at Db.pm line 276"? Thanks in advance.

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  • Using MSADO15.DLL and C++ with MinGW/GCC on Windows Vista

    - by Eugen Mihailescu
    INTRODUCTION Hi, I am very new to C++, is my 1st statement. I have started initially with VC++ 2008 Express, I've notice that GCC becomes kind of standard so I am trying to make the right steps event from the beginning. I have written a piece of code that connects to MSSQL Server via ADO, on VC++ it's working like a charm by importing MSADO15.dll: #import "msado15.dll" no_namespace rename("EOF", "EndOfFile") Because I am going to move from VC++ I was looking for an alternative (eventually multi-platform) IDE, so I stick (for this time) with Code::Block (I'm using last nightly buil, SVN 6181). As compiler I choose to use GCC 3.4.5 (ported via MinGW 5.1.6), under Vista. I was trying to compile a simple "hello world" application with GCC that use/import the same msado15.dll (#import "c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll" no_namespace rename("EOF", "EndOfFile")) and I was surprised to see a lot of compile-time errors. I was expected that the #import compiler's directive will generate a library from "msado15.dll" so it can link to it later (link-edit time or whatever). Instead it was trying to read it as a normal file (like a header file,if you like) because it was trying to interprete each line in the DLL (which has a MZ signature): Example: Compiling: main.cpp E:\MyPath\main.cpp:2:64: warning: extra tokens at end of #import directive In file included from E:\MyPath\main.cpp:2: c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1: error: stray '\144' in program In file included from E:\MyPath\main.cpp:2: c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1:4: warning: null character(s) ignored c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1: error: stray '\3' in program c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1:6: warning: null character(s) ignored c:\Program Files\Common Files\System\ADO\msado15.dll:1: error: stray '\4' in program ... and so on. MY QUESTION Well, it is obvious that under this version of GCC the #import directive does not do the expected job (perhaps #import is not supported anymore by GCC), so finally my question: how to use the ADO to access MSSQL database on a C++ program compiled with GCC (v3.4.5)?

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  • Authlogic, logout, credential capture and security

    - by Paddy
    Ok this is something weird. I got authlogic-oid installed in my rails app today. Everything works perfectly fine but for one small nuisance. This is what i did: I first register with my google openid. Successful login, redirection and my email, along with my correct openid is stored in my database. I am happy that everything worked fine! Now when i logout, my rails app as usual destroys the session and redirects me back to my root url where i can login again. Now if i try to login it still remembers my last login id. Not a big issue as i can always "Sign in as a different user" but i am wondering if there is anyway to not only logout from my app but also logout from google. I noticed the same with stack overflow's openid authentication system. Why am i so bothered about this, you may ask. But is it not a bad idea if your web apps end user, who happens to be in a cyber cafe, thinks he has logged out from your app and hence from his google account only to realize later that his google account had got hacked by some unworthy loser who just happened to notice that the one before him had not logged out from google and say.. changed his password!! Should i be paranoid? Isn't this a major security lapse while implementing the openid spec? Probably today someone can give me a workaround for this issue and the question is solved for me. But what about the others who have implemented openid in their apps and not implemented a workaround?

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  • Accessing Current URL using Prototype

    - by Jason Nerer
    Hi folks, following Ryan Bates Screencast #114 I'm trying to generate endless pages using prototype. In difference to Ryan's showcase my URL called via the AJAX request shall be handled dynamically, cause I do not always call the same URL when the user reaches the end of my page. So my JS running in backround looks like that and uses document.location.href instead a fixed URL: var currentPage = 1; function checkScroll() { if (nearBottomOfPage()) { currentPage++; new Ajax.Request(document.location.href + '?page=' + currentPage, {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, method:'get'}); } else { setTimeout("checkScroll()", 250); } } function nearBottomOfPage() { return scrollDistanceFromBottom() < 10; } function scrollDistanceFromBottom(argument) { return pageHeight() - (window.pageYOffset + self.innerHeight); } function pageHeight() { return Math.max(document.body.scrollHeight, document.body.offsetHeight); } document.observe('dom:loaded', checkScroll); The question is: The code seems to work in Safari but fails in FF 3.6. It seems that FF calculates scrollHeight or offsetHeight differently. How can I prevent that? Thx in advance. Jason

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  • Paperclip wont save image in rails app

    - by Micke
    Hello stackoverflow. I am trying to use Paperclip with my rails app to add an avatar to a user but it wont save my image when creating the user. This is what the model looks like: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :avatar And the registerform in haml: - form_for :user, @user, :url => { :action => "signup" }, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| ... ... %li %div{:class => "header"} Profilepicture %div{:class => "input"} = f.file_field :avatar And when i look in the log this is what is being passet to the "signup" action: Parameters: {"commit"=>"Save", "action"=>"signup", "controller"=>"user/register", "user"=>{"name"=>"Micke Lisinge", "birthmonth"=>"07", "password_confirmation"=>"[FILTERED]", "nickname"=>"lisinge", "avatar"=>#<File:/tmp/RackMultipart20100426-3076-1x04oxy-0>, "gen"=>"m", "birthday"=>"23", "password"=>"[FILTERED]", "birthyear"=>"1992", "email"=>"[email protected]"}} [paperclip] Saving attachments. Paperclip says it is saving the template but when i look in the public folder in my app it has created a system but the system folder is empty. So it seems like it isnt saving the picture to the folder. It gets handled by the form and saved in my /tmp folder. Maybe you guys have any tips or know what this problem might be? Thanks in advance, Micke.

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  • python - tkinter - update label from variable

    - by Tom
    I wrote a python script that does some stuff to generate and then keep changing some text stored as a string variable. This works, and I can print the string each time it gets changed. Problems have arisen while trying to display that output in a GUI (just as a basic label) using tkinter. I can get the label to display the string for the first time... but it never updates. This is really the first time I have tried to use tkinter, so it's likely I'm making a foolish error. What I've got looks logical to me, but I'm evidently going wrong somewhere! from tkinter import * outputText = 'Ready' counter = int(0) root = Tk() root.maxsize(400, 400) var = StringVar() l = Label(root, textvariable=var, anchor=NW, justify=LEFT, wraplength=398) l.pack() var.set(outputText) while True: counter = counter + 1 #do some stuff that generates string as variable 'result' outputText = result #do some more stuff that generates new string as variable 'result' outputText = result #do some more stuff that generates new string as variable 'result' outputText = result if counter == 5: break root.mainloop() I also tried: from tkinter import * outputText = 'Ready' counter = int(0) root = Tk() root.maxsize(400, 400) var = StringVar() l = Label(root, textvariable=var, anchor=NW, justify=LEFT, wraplength=398) l.pack() var.set(outputText) while True: counter = counter + 1 #do some stuff that generates string as variable 'result' outputText = result var.set(outputText) #do some more stuff that generates new string as variable 'result' outputText = result var.set(outputText) #do some more stuff that generates new string as variable 'result' outputText = result var.set(outputText) if counter == 5: break root.mainloop() In both cases, the label will show 'Ready' but won't update to change that to the strings as they're generated later. After a fair bit of googling and looking through answers on this site, I thought the solution might be to use update_idletasks - I tried putting that in after each time the variable was changed, but it didn't help. It also seems possible I am meant to be using trace and callback somehow to make all this work...but I can't get my head around how that works (I tried, but didn't manage to make anything that even looked like it would do something, let alone actually worked). I'm still very new to both python and especially tkinter, so, any help much appreciated but please spell it out for me if you can :)

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  • GlassFish Security Realm, Active Directory and Referral

    - by Allan Lykke Christensen
    I've setup up a Security Realm in Glassfish to authenticate against an Active Directory server. The configuration of the realm is as follows: Class Name: com.sun.enterprise.security.auth.realm.ldap.LDAPRealm JAAS context: ldapRealm Directory: ldap://172.16.76.10:389/ Base DN: dc=smallbusiness,dc=local search-filter: (&(objectClass=user)(sAMAccountName=%s)) group-search-filter: (&(objectClass=group)(member=%d)) search-bind-dn: cN=Administrator,CN=Users,dc=smallbusiness,dc=local search-bind-password: abcd1234! The realm is functional and I can log-in, but when ever I log in I get the following error in the log: SEC1106: Error during LDAP search with filter [(&(objectClass=group)(member=CN=Administrator,CN=Users,dc=smallbusiness,dc=local))]. SEC1000: Caught exception. javax.naming.PartialResultException: Unprocessed Continuation Reference(s); remaining name 'dc=smallbusiness,dc=local' at com.sun.jndi.ldap.LdapCtx.processReturnCode(LdapCtx.java:2820) .... .... ldaplm.searcherror While searching for a solution I found that it was recommended to add java.naming.referral=follow to the properties of the realm. However, after I add this it takes 20 minutes for GlassFish to authenticate against Active Directory. I suspect it is a DNS problem on the Active Directory server. The Active Directory server is a vanilla Windows Server 2003 setup in a Virtual Machine. Any help/recommendation is highly appreciated!

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  • Establishing Upper / Lower Bound in T-SQL Procedure

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am trying to establish upper / lower bound in my stored procedure below and am having some problems at the end (I am getting no results where, without the temp table inner join i get the expected results). I need some help where I am trying to join the columns in my temp table #PageIndexForUsers to the rest of my join statement and I am mucking something up with this statement: INNER JOIN #PageIndexForUsers ON ( dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId = #PageIndexForUsers.UserId AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId >= @PageLowerBound AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId <= @PageUpperBound ) I could use feedback at this point - and, any advice on how to improve my procedure's logic (if you see anything else that needs improvement) is also appreciated. Thanks in advance... ALTER PROCEDURE dbo.wb_Membership_GetAllUsers @ApplicationName nvarchar(256), @sortOrderId smallint = 0, @PageIndex int, @PageSize int AS BEGIN DECLARE @ApplicationId uniqueidentifier SELECT @ApplicationId = NULL SELECT @ApplicationId = ApplicationId FROM dbo.aspnet_Applications WHERE LOWER(@ApplicationName) = LoweredApplicationName IF (@ApplicationId IS NULL) RETURN 0 -- Set the page bounds DECLARE @PageLowerBound int DECLARE @PageUpperBound int DECLARE @TotalRecords int SET @PageLowerBound = @PageSize * @PageIndex SET @PageUpperBound = @PageSize - 1 + @PageLowerBound BEGIN TRY -- Create a temp table TO store the select results CREATE TABLE #PageIndexForUsers ( IndexId int IDENTITY (0, 1) NOT NULL, UserId uniqueidentifier ) -- Insert into our temp table INSERT INTO #PageIndexForUsers (UserId) SELECT u.UserId FROM dbo.aspnet_Membership m, dbo.aspnet_Users u WHERE u.ApplicationId = @ApplicationId AND u.UserId = m.UserId ORDER BY u.UserName SELECT @TotalRecords = @@ROWCOUNT SELECT dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid, dbo.wb_ProfileData.firstname, dbo.wb_ProfileData.lastname, dbo.wb_Email.emailaddress, dbo.wb_Email.isconfirmed, dbo.wb_Email.emaildomain, dbo.wb_Address.streetname, dbo.wb_Address.cityorprovince, dbo.wb_Address.state, dbo.wb_Address.postalorzip, dbo.wb_Address.country, dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addresstype,dbo.wb_ProfileData.birthday, dbo.wb_ProfileData.gender, dbo.wb_Session.sessionid, dbo.wb_Session.lastactivitydate, dbo.aspnet_Membership.userid, dbo.aspnet_Membership.password, dbo.aspnet_Membership.passwordquestion, dbo.aspnet_Membership.passwordanswer, dbo.aspnet_Membership.createdate FROM dbo.wb_Profiles INNER JOIN dbo.wb_ProfileAddress ON ( dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.profileid AND dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addresstype = 'home' ) INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Address ON dbo.wb_ProfileAddress.addressid = dbo.wb_Address.addressid INNER JOIN dbo.wb_ProfileData ON dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_ProfileData.profileid INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Email ON ( dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_Email.profileid AND dbo.wb_Email.isprimary = 1 ) INNER JOIN dbo.wb_Session ON dbo.wb_Profiles.profileid = dbo.wb_Session.profileid INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Membership ON dbo.wb_Profiles.userid = dbo.aspnet_Membership.userid INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Users ON dbo.aspnet_Membership.UserId = dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId INNER JOIN dbo.aspnet_Applications ON dbo.aspnet_Users.ApplicationId = dbo.aspnet_Applications.ApplicationId INNER JOIN #PageIndexForUsers ON ( dbo.aspnet_Users.UserId = #PageIndexForUsers.UserId AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId >= @PageLowerBound AND #PageIndexForUsers.IndexId <= @PageUpperBound ) ORDER BY CASE @sortOrderId WHEN 1 THEN dbo.wb_ProfileData.lastname WHEN 2 THEN dbo.wb_Profiles.username WHEN 3 THEN dbo.wb_Address.postalorzip WHEN 4 THEN dbo.wb_Address.state END END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @@TRANCOUNT > 0 ROLLBACK TRAN EXEC wb_ErrorHandler RETURN 55555 END CATCH RETURN @TotalRecords END GO

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  • MVC2 and jquery.validate.js

    - by Will I Am
    I am experiencing some confusion with jquery.validate.js First of all, what is MicrosoftMvcJqueryValidation.js. It is referenced in snippets on the web but appears to have dissapeared from the RTM MVC2 and is now in futures. Do I need it? The reason I'm asking is that I'm trying to use the validator with MVC and I can't get it to work. I defined my JS as: $(document).ready(function () { $("#myForm").validate({ rules: { f_fullname: { required: true }, f_email: { required: true, email: true }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "#f_email" }, f_password: { required: true, minlength: 6 }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "#f_password" } }, messages: { f_fullname: { required: "* required" }, f_email: { required: "* required", email: "* not a valid email address" }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" }, f_password: { required: "* required", minlength: "password must be at least 6 characters long" }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" } } }); }); and my form on the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm("CreateNew", "Account", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "myForm" })) { %> <fieldset> <label for="f_fullname">name:</label><input id="f_fullname"/> <label for="f_email"><input id="f_email"/> ...etc... <input type="submit" value="Create" id="f_submit"/> </fieldset> <% } %> and the validation method gets called on .ready() with no errors in firebug. however when I submit the form, nothing gets validated and the form gets submitted. If I create a submitHandler() it gets called, but the plugin doesn't detect any validation errors (.valid() == true) What am I missing?

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  • Photo gallery not open in titanium 1.0

    - by user291247
    Hello, I am developing new app. using titanium 1.0 In that I am opening phtogallery in new window but I am not able to open it why this was happened? Code to open photogallery in app.js Titanium.App.addEventListener('recordvideo', function(e) { win1.close(); var w = Titanium.UI.createWindow({ backgroundColor:'#336699', title:'Modal Window', barColor:'black', url:'xhr_testfileupload.js' }); w.open({animated:true}); }); xhr_testfileupload.js code: var win = Titanium.UI.currentWindow; var ind=Titanium.UI.createProgressBar({ width:200, height:50, min:0, max:1, value:0, style:Titanium.UI.iPhone.ProgressBarStyle.PLAIN, top:10, message:'Uploading Image', font:{fontSize:12, fontWeight:'bold'}, color:'#888' }); win.add(ind); ind.show(); Titanium.Media.openPhotoGallery({ success:function(event) { Ti.API.info("success! event: " + JSON.stringify(event)); var image = event.media; var xhr = Titanium.Network.createHTTPClient(); xhr.onerror = function(e) { Ti.API.info('IN ERROR ' + e.error); }; xhr.onload = function() { Ti.API.info('IN ONLOAD ' + this.status + ' readyState ' + this.readyState); }; xhr.onsendstream = function(e) { ind.value = e.progress ; Ti.API.info('ONSENDSTREAM - PROGRESS: ' + e.progress); } // open the client xhr.open('POST','https://twitpic.com/api/uploadAndPost'); // send the data xhr.send({media:image,username:'fgsandford1000',password:'sanford1000',message:'check me out'}); }, cancel:function() { }, error:function(error) { }, allowImageEditing:true, });

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  • How to make dynamically generated .net service client read configuration from another location than

    - by Bryan
    Hi, I've currently written code to use the ServiceContractGenerator to generate web service client code based on a wsdl, and then compile it into an assembly in memory using the code dom. I'm then using reflection to set up the binding, endpoint, service values/types, and then ultimately invoke the web service method based on xml configuration that can be altered at run time. This all currently works fine. However, the problem I'm currently running into, is that I'm hitting several exotic web services that require lots of custom binding/security settings. This is forcing me to add more and more configuration into my custom xml configurations, as well as the corresponding updates to my code to interpret and set those binding/security settings in code. Ultimately, this makes adding these 'exotic' services slower, and I can see myself eventually reimplementing the 'system.serviceModel' section of the web or app.config file, which is never a good thing. My question is, and this is where my lack of experience .net and C# shows, is there a way to define the configuration normally found in the web.config or app.config 'system.serviceModel' section somewhere else, and at run time supply this to configuration to the web service client? Is there a way to attach an app.config directly to an assembly as a resource or any other way to supply this configuration to the client? Basically, I'd like attach an app.config only containing a 'system.serviceModel' to the assembly containing a web service client so that it can use its configuration. This way I wouldn't need to handle every configuration under the sun, I could let .net do it for me. Fyi, it's not an option for me to put the configuration for every service in the app.config for the running application. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance! Bryan

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  • Authlogic, logout and credential capture

    - by Paddy
    Ok this is something weird. I got authlogic-oid installed in my rails app today. Everything works perfectly fine but for one small nuisance. This is what i did: I first register with my google openid. Successful login, redirection and my email, along with my correct openid is stored in my database. I am happy that everything worked fine! Now when i logout, my rails app as usual destroys the session and redirects me back to my root url where i can login again. Now if i try to login it still remembers my last login id. Not a big issue as i can always "Sign in as a different user" but i am wondering if there is anyway to not only logout from my app but also logout from google. I noticed the same with stack overflow's openid authentication system. Why am i so bothered about this, you may ask. But is it not a bad idea if your web apps end user, who happens to be in a cyber cafe, thinks he has logged out from your app and hence from his google account only to realize later that his google account had got hacked by some unworthy loser who just happened to notice that the one before had not logged out from google and say.. changed his password!! Should i be paranoid?

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