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  • Sanity check on this idea for an Image Viewer in a web app

    - by Charlie Flowers
    I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to via http post (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

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  • How can I pass managed objects from one AppDomain to another?

    - by Dennis P
    I have two assemblies that I'm trying to link together. One is a sort of background process that's built with WinForms and will be designed to run as a Windows Service. I have a second project that will act as a UI for the background process whenever a user launches it. I've never tried attempting something like this with managed code before, so I've started trying to use windows messages to communicate between the two processes. I'm struggling when it comes to passing more than just IntPtrs back and forth, however. Here's the code from a control in my UI project that registers itself with the background process: public void Init() { IntPtr hwnd = IntPtr.Zero; Process[] ps = Process.GetProcessesByName("BGServiceApp"); Process mainProcess = null; if(ps == null || ps.GetLength(0) == 0) { mainProcess = LaunchApp(); } else { mainProcess = ps[0]; } SendMessage(mainProcess.MainWindowHandle, INIT_CONNECTION, this.Handle, IntPtr.Zero); } protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONFIRMED && InitComplete != null) { string message = Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(m.WParam); Marshal.FreeHGlobal(m.WParam); InitComplete(message, EventArgs.Empty); } base.WndProc(ref m); } This is the code from the background process that's supposed to receive a request from the UI process to register for status updates and send a confirmation message. protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONNECTION) { RegisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); Respond(m.WParam); } if(m.Msg == UNINIT_CONNECTION) { UnregisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); if(m_RegisteredDispatchers.Count == 0) { this.Close(); } } base.WndProc(ref m); } private void Respond(IntPtr caller) { string test = "Registration confirmed!"; IntPtr ptr = Marshal.StringToHGlobalAuto(test); SendMessage(caller, INIT_CONFIRMED, ptr, IntPtr.Zero); } } The UI process receives the INIT_CONFIRMED message from my background process, but when I try to marshal the IntPtr back into a string, I get an empty string. Is the area of heap I'm using out of scope to the other process or am I missing some security attribute maybe? Is there a better and cleaner way to go about something like this using an event driven model?

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  • How do you prevent IDisposable from spreading to all your classes?

    - by GrahamS
    Start with these simple classes... Let's say I have a simple set of classes like this: class Bus { Driver busDriver = new Driver(); } class Driver { Shoe[] shoes = { new Shoe(), new Shoe() }; } class Shoe { Shoelace lace = new Shoelace(); } class Shoelace { bool tied = false; } A Bus has a Driver, the Driver has two Shoes, each Shoe has a Shoelace. All very silly. Add an IDisposable object to Shoelace Later I decide that some operation on the Shoelace could be multi-threaded, so I add an EventWaitHandle for the threads to communicate with. So Shoelace now looks like this: class Shoelace { private AutoResetEvent waitHandle = new AutoResetEvent(false); bool tied = false; // ... other stuff .. } Implement IDisposable on Shoelace Buit now FxCop will complain: "Implement IDisposable on 'Shoelace' because it creates members of the following IDisposable types: 'EventWaitHandle'." Okay, I implement IDisposable on Shoelace and my neat little class becomes this horrible mess: class Shoelace : IDisposable { private AutoResetEvent waitHandle = new AutoResetEvent(false); bool tied = false; private bool disposed = false; public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } ~Shoelace() { Dispose(false); } protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (!this.disposed) { if (disposing) { if (waitHandle != null) { waitHandle.Close(); waitHandle = null; } } // No unmanaged resources to release otherwise they'd go here. } disposed = true; } } Or (as pointed out by commenters) since Shoelace itself has no unmanaged resources, I might use the simpler dispose implementation without needing the Dispose(bool) and Destructor: class Shoelace : IDisposable { private AutoResetEvent waitHandle = new AutoResetEvent(false); bool tied = false; public void Dispose() { if (waitHandle != null) { waitHandle.Close(); waitHandle = null; } GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } } Watch in horror as IDisposable spreads Right that's that fixed. But now FxCop will complain that Shoe creates a Shoelace, so Shoe must be IDisposable too. And Driver creates Shoe so Driver must be IDisposable. and Bus creates Driver so Bus must be IDisposable and so on. Suddenly my small change to Shoelace is causing me a lot of work and my boss is wondering why I need to checkout Bus to make a change to Shoelace. The Question How do you prevent this spread of IDisposable, but still ensure that your unmanaged objects are properly disposed?

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  • Android Couchdb - libcouch and IPC Aidl Services

    - by dirtySanchez
    I am working on a native CouchdDB app with android. Now just this week CouchOne released libcouch, described as "Library files needed to interact with CouchDB on Android": couchone_libcouch@Github It is a basic app that installs CouchDB if the CouchDB service (that comes with CouchDB if it was installed previously) can't be bound to. To be more precise, as I understand it: libcouch estimates CouchDb's presence on the device by trying to bind to a IPC Service from CouchDB and through that service wants communicate with CouchDB. Please see the method "attemptLaunch()" at CouchAppLauncher.class for reviewing this: public void attemptLaunch() { Log.i(TAG,"1.) called attemptLaunch"); Intent intent = new Intent(ICouchService.class.getName()); Log.i(TAG,"1.a) setup Intent"); Boolean canStart = bindService(intent, couchServiceConn, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); Log.i(TAG,"1.b bound service. canStart: " + Boolean.toString(canStart)); if (!canStart) { setContentView(R.layout.install_couchdb); TextView label = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.install_couchdb_text); Button btn = (Button) this.findViewById(R.id.install_couchdb_btn); String text = getString(R.string.app_name) + " requires Apache CouchDB to be installed."; label.setText(text); // Launching the market will fail on emulators btn.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { launchMarket(); finish(); } }); } } The question(s) I have about this are: libcouch never is able to "find" a previously installed CouchDB. It always attempts to install CouchDB from the market. This is because it never actually is able to bind to the CouchDBService. As I understand the purpose auf AIDL generated service interfaces, the actual service that intends to offer it's IPC to other applications should make use of AIDL. In this case the AIDL has been moved to the application that is trying to bind to the remote service, which is libcouch in this case. Reviewing the commits the AIDL files have just been moved out of that repository to libcouch. For complete linkage, here's the link to the Android CouchDB sources: github.com/couchone/libcouch-android Now, I could be completely wrong in my findings, it could also be lincouch's Manifest that s missing something, but I am really looking forward to get some answers!

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  • Question about Architecture for Viewing Images in ASP.NET MVC App

    - by Charlie Flowers
    I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to from the browser via javascript (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

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  • Rails learn's confusion

    - by Steve
    This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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  • Supporting multiple instances of a plugin DLL with global data

    - by Bruno De Fraine
    Context: I converted a legacy standalone engine into a plugin component for a composition tool. Technically, this means that I compiled the engine code base to a C DLL which I invoke from a .NET wrapper using P/Invoke; the wrapper implements an interface defined by the composition tool. This works quite well, but now I receive the request to load multiple instances of the engine, for different projects. Since the engine keeps the project data in a set of global variables, and since the DLL with the engine code base is loaded only once, loading multiple projects means that the project data is overwritten. I can see a number of solutions, but they all have some disadvantages: You can create multiple DLLs with the same code, which are seen as different DLLs by Windows, so their code is not shared. Probably this already works if you have multiple copies of the engine DLL with different names. However, the engine is invoked from the wrapper using DllImport attributes and I think the name of the engine DLL needs to be known when compiling the wrapper. Obviously, if I have to compile different versions of the wrapper for each project, this is quite cumbersome. The engine could run as a separate process. This means that the wrapper would launch a separate process for the engine when it loads a project, and it would use some form of IPC to communicate with this process. While this is a relatively clean solution, it requires some effort to get working, I don't now which IPC technology would be best to set-up this kind of construction. There may also be a significant overhead of the communication: the engine needs to frequently exchange arrays of floating-point numbers. The engine could be adapted to support multiple projects. This means that the global variables should be put into a project structure, and every reference to the globals should be converted to a corresponding reference that is relative to a particular project. There are about 20-30 global variables, but as you can imagine, these global variables are referenced from all over the code base, so this conversion would need to be done in some automatic manner. A related problem is that you should be able to reference the "current" project structure in all places, but passing this along as an extra argument in each and every function signature is also cumbersome. Does there exist a technique (in C) to consider the current call stack and find the nearest enclosing instance of a relevant data value there? Can the stackoverflow community give some advice on these (or other) solutions?

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  • Specializating a template function that takes a universal reference parameter

    - by David Stone
    How do I specialize a template function that takes a universal reference parameter? foo.hpp: template<typename T> void foo(T && t) // universal reference parameter foo.cpp template<> void foo<Class>(Class && class) { // do something complicated } Here, Class is no longer a deduced type and thus is Class exactly; it cannot possibly be Class &, so reference collapsing rules will not help me here. I could perhaps create another specialization that takes a Class & parameter (I'm not sure), but that implies duplicating all of the code contained within foo for every possible combination of rvalue / lvalue references for all parameters, which is what universal references are supposed to avoid. Is there some way to accomplish this? To be more specific about my problem in case there is a better way to solve it: I have a program that can connect to multiple game servers, and each server, for the most part, calls everything by the same name. However, they have slightly different versions for a few things. There are a few different categories that these things can be: a move, an item, etc. I have written a generic sort of "move string to move enum" set of functions for internal code to call, and my server interface code has similar functions. However, some servers have their own internal ID that they communicate with, some use strings, and some use both in different situations. Now what I want to do is make this a little more generic. I want to be able to call something like ServerNamespace::server_cast<Destination>(source). This would allow me to cast from a Move to a std::string or ServerMoveID. Internally, I may need to make a copy (or move from) because some servers require that I keep a history of messages sent. Universal references seem to be the obvious solution to this problem. The header file I'm thinking of right now would expose simply this: namespace ServerNamespace { template<typename Destination, typename Source> Destination server_cast(Source && source); } And the implementation file would define all legal conversions as template specializations.

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  • Several client waiting for the same event

    - by ff8mania
    I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

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  • I'm searching for a messaging platform (like XMPP) that allows tight integration with a web applicat

    - by loxs
    Hi, At the company I work for, we are building a cluster of web applications for collaboration. Things like accounting, billing, CRM etc. We are using a RESTfull technique: For database we use CouchDB Different applications communicate with one another and with the database via http. Besides, we have a single sign on solution, so that when you login in one application, you are automatically logged to the other. For all apps we use Python (Pylons). Now we need to add instant messaging to the stack. We need to support both web and desktop clients. But just being able to chat is not enough. We need to be able to achieve all of the following (and more similar things). When somebody gets assigned to a task, they must receive a message. I guess this is possible with some system daemon. There must be an option to automatically group people in groups by lots of different properties. For example, there must be groups divided both by geographical location, by company division, by job type (all the programers from different cities and different company divisions must form a group), so that one can send mass messages to a group of choice. Rooms should be automatically created and destroyed. For example when several people visit the same invoice, a room for them must be automatically created (and they must auto-join). And when all leave the invoice, the room must be destroyed. Authentication and authorization from our applications. I can implement this using custom solutions like hookbox http://hookbox.org/docs/intro.html but then I'll have lots of problems in supporting desktop clients. I have no former experience with instant messaging. I've been reading about this lately. I've been looking mostly at things like ejabberd. But it has been a hard time and I can't find whether what I want is possible at all. So I'd be happy if people with experience in this field could help me with some advice, articles, tales of what is possible etc.

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  • I'm having trouble traversing a newly appended DOM element with jQuery

    - by culov
    I have a form that I want to be used to add entries. Once an entry is added, the original form should be reset to prepare it for the next entry, and the saved form should be duplicated prior to resetting and appended onto a div for 'storedEntries.' This much is working (for the most part), but Im having trouble accessing the newly created form... I need to change the value attribute of the submit button from 'add' to 'edit' so properly communicate what clicking that button should do. heres my form: <div class="newTruck"> <form id="addNewTruck" class='updateschedule' action="javascript:sub(sTime.value, eTime.value, lat.value, lng.value, street.value);"> <b style="color:green;">Opening at: </b> <input id="sTime" name="sTime" title="Opening time" value="Click to set opening time" class="datetimepicker"/> <b style="color:red;">Closing at: </b> <input id="eTime" name= "eTime" title="Closing time" value="Click to set closing time" class="datetimepicker"/> <label for='street'>Address</label> <input type='text' name='street' id='street' class='text' autocomplete='off'/> <input id='submit' class='submit' style="cursor: pointer; cursor: hand;" type="submit" value='Add new stop'/> <div id='suggests' class='auto_complete' style='display:none'></div> <input type='hidden' name='lat' id='lat'/> <input type='hidden' name='lng' id='lng'/> ive tried using a hundred different selectors with jquery to no avail... heres my script as it stands: function cloneAndClear(){ var id = name+now; $j("#addNewTruck").clone(true).attr("id",id).appendTo(".scheduledTrucks"); $j('#'+id).filter('#submit').attr('value', 'Edit'); $j("#addNewTruck")[0].reset(); createPickers(); } the element is properly cloned and inserted into the div, but i cant find a way to access this element... the third line in the script never works. Another problem i am having is that the 'values' in the cloned form revert back to the value in the source of the html rather than what the user inputs. advice on how to solve either of these issues is greatly appreciated!

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  • How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

    - by kevinegham
    Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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  • What IPC method should I use between Firefox extension and C# code running on the same machine?

    - by Rory
    I have a question about how to structure communication between a (new) Firefox extension and existing C# code. The firefox extension will use configuration data and will produce other data, so needs to get the config data from somewhere and save it's output somewhere. The data is produced/consumed by existing C# code, so I need to decide how the extension should interact with the C# code. Some pertinent factors: It's only running on windows, in a relatively controlled corporate environment. I have a windows service running on the machine, built in C#. Storing the data in a local datastore (like sqlite) would be useful for other reasons. The volume of data is low, e.g. 10kb of uncompressed xml every few minutes, and isn't very 'chatty'. The data exchange can be asynchronous for the most part if not completely. As with all projects, I have limited resources so want an option that's relatively easy. It doesn't have to be ultra-high performance, but shouldn't add significant overhead. I'm planning on building the extension in javascript (although could be convinced otherwise if really necessary) Some options I'm considering: use an XPCOM to .NET/COM bridge use a sqlite db: the extension would read from and save to it. The c# code would run in the service, populating the db and then processing data created by the service. use TCP sockets to communicate between the extension and the service. Let the service manage a local data store. My problem with (1) is I think this will be tricky and not so easy. But I could be completely wrong? The main problem I see with (2) is the locking of sqlite: only a single process can write data at a time so there'd be some blocking. However, it would be nice generally to have a local datastore so this is an attractive option if the performance impact isn't too great. I don't know whether (3) would be particularly easy or hard ... or what approach to take on the protocol: something custom or http. Any comments on these ideas or other suggestions? UPDATE: I was planning on building the extension in javascript rather than c++

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  • When to delete newly deprecated code?

    - by John
    I spent a month writing an elaborate payment system that handles both credit card payments and electronic fund transfers. My work was used on production server for about a month. I was told recently by the client that he no longer wants to use the electronic fund transfer feature. Because the way I had to interface and communicate with the credit card gateway is drastically different from the electronic fund transfer api (eg. the cc company gives transaction responses immediately after an http request, while the eft company gives transaction responses 5 business days after an http request), I spent a lot of time writing my own API to abstract common function calls like function payment(amount, pay_method,pay_freq) function updateRecurringSchedule(user_id,new_schedule) etc.. Now that the client wants to abandon the EFT feature, all my work for this abstracted payments API is obsolete. I'm deliberating over whether I should scrap my work. Here's my pro vs. con for scrapping it now: PRO 1: Eliminate code bloat PRO 2: New developers do not need to learn MY API. They only need to read the CC company's API PRO 3: Because the EFT company did not handle recurring payment schedules, refunds, and validation, I wrote my own application to do it. Although the CC company's API permitted this functionality, I opted to use mine instead so that I could streamline my code. now that EFT is out of the picture, I can delete all this confusing code and just rely on the CC company's sytsem to manage recurring billing, payment schedules, refunds, validations etc... CON 1: Although I can just delete the EFT code, it still takes time to remove the entire framework consolidates different payment systems. CON 2: with regards to PRO 3, it takes time to build functionality that integrates the payment system more closely with the CC company. CON 3: I feel insecure deleting all this work. I don't think I'll ever use it again. But, for some inexplicable reason, I just don't feel comfortable deleting this work "right now". So my question is, should I delete one month's worth recent development? If yes, should I do it immediately or wait X amount of time before doing so?

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  • How to Transfer Large File from MS Word Add-In (VBA) to Web Server?

    - by Ian Robinson
    Overview I have a Microsoft Word Add-In, written in VBA (Visual Basic for Applications), that compresses a document and all of it's related contents (embedded media) into a zip archive. After creating the zip archive it then turns the file into a byte array and posts it to an ASMX web service. This mostly works. Issues The main issue I have is transferring large files to the web site. I can successfully upload a file that is around 40MB, but not one that is 140MB (timeout/general failure). A secondary issue is that building the byte array in the VBScript Word Add-In can fail by running out of memory on the client machine if the zip archive is too large. Potential Solutions I am considering the following options and am looking for feedback on either option or any other suggestions. Option One Opening a file stream on the client (MS Word VBA) and reading one "chunk" at a time and transmitting to ASMX web service which assembles the "chunks" into a file on the server. This has the benefit of not adding any additional dependencies or components to the application, I would only be modifying existing functionality. (Fewer dependencies is better as this solution should work in a variety of server environments and be relatively easy to set up.) Question: Are there examples of doing this or any recommended techniques (either on the client in VBA or in the web service in C#/VB.NET)? Option Two I understand WCF may provide a solution to the issue of transferring large files by "chunking" or streaming data. However, I am not very familiar with WCF, and am not sure what exactly it is capable of or if I can communicate with a WCF service from VBA. This has the downside of adding another dependency (.NET 3.0). But if using WCF is definitely a better solution I may not mind taking that dependency. Questions: Does WCF reliably support large file transfers of this nature? If so, what does this involve? Any resources or examples? Are you able to call a WCF service from VBA? Any examples?

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  • How can I force the server socket to re-accept a request from a client?

    - by Roman
    For those who does not want to read a long question here is a short version: A server has an opened socket for a client. The server gets a request to open a socket from the same client-IP and client-port. I want to fore the server not to refuse such a request but to close the old socket and open a new one. How can I do ti? And here is a long (original) question: I have the following situation. There is an established connection between a server and client. Then an external software (Bonjour) says to my client the it does not see the server in the local network. Well, client does nothing about that because of the following reasons: If Bonjour does not see the server it does not necessarily means that client cannot see the server. Even if the client trusts the Bonjour and close the socket it does not improve the situation ("to have no open socket" is worser that "to have a potentially bad socket"). So, client do nothing if server becomes invisible to Bonjour. But than the server re-appears in the Bonjour and Bonjour notify the client about that. In this situation the following situations are possible: The server reappears on a new IP address. So, the client needs to open a new socket to be able to communicate with the server. The server reappears on the old IP address. In this case we have two subcases: 2.1. The server was restarted (switched off and then switched on). So, it does not remember the old socket (which is still used by the client). So, client needs to close the old socket and open a new one (on the same server-IP address and the same server-port). 2.2. We had a temporal network problem and the server was running the whole time. So, the old socket is still available for the use. In this case the client does not really need to close the old socket and reopen a new one. But to simplify my life I decide to close and reopen the socket on the client side in any case (in spite on the fact that it is not really needed in the last described situation). But I can have problems with that solution. If I close the socket on the client side and than try to reopen a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, server will not accept the call for a new socket. The server will think that such a socket already exists. Can I write the server in such a way, that it does not refuse such calls. For example, if it (the server) sees that a client send a request for a socket from the same client-IP and client-port, it (server) close the available socket, associated with this client-IP and client-port and than it reopens a new socket.

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  • Twisted + SQLAlchemy and the best way to do it.

    - by Khorkrak
    So I'm writing yet another Twisted based daemon. It'll have an xmlrpc interface as usual so I can easily communicate with it and have other processes interchange data with it as needed. This daemon needs to access a database. We've been using SQL Alchemy in place of hard coding SQL strings for our latest projects - those mostly done for web apps in Pylons. We'd like to do the same for this app and re-use library code that makes use of SQL Alchemy. So what to do? Well of course since that library was written for use in a Pylons app it's all the straight-forward blocking style code that everyone is accustomed to and all of the non-blocking is magically handled by Pylons via threading, thread locals, scoped sessions and so on. So now for Twisted I guess I'm a bit stuck. I could: Just write the sql I need directly if it's minimal and use the dbapi pool in twisted to do runInteractions etc when I need to hit the db. Use the objects and inherently blocking methods in our library and block now and then in my Twisted daemon. Bah. Use sAsync which was last updated in 2008 and kind of reuse the models we have defined already but not really and it does address code that needs to work in Pylons either. Does that even work with the latest version SQL Alchemy? Who knows. That project looked great though - why was it apparently abandoned? Spawn a separate subprocess and have it deal with the library code and all it's blocking, the results being returned back to my daemon when ready as objects marshalled via YAML over xmlrpc. Use deferToThread and then expunge the objects returned having made sure to do eager loads so that I have all my stuff that I might need. Seems kind of ugha to me. I'm also stuck using Python 2.5.4 atm so no 2.6 yet and I don't think I can just do an import from future to get access to the cool new multiprocessing module stuff in there. That's OK though I guess as we've got dealing with interprocess communication down pretty well. So I'm leaning towards option 4 mostly as that would avoid the mortal sin of logic duplication with option 1 while also staying the heck away from threads. Any better ideas?

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  • Interconnecting Emulator Instances Android

    - by blah01
    Hi all I want to communicate two emulators via DatagramSocket in Android. Each of them is a Node in a P2P system. Thus each of them has a server Thread and client Thread (created per GUI event). This is how I create server public static final String SERVERIP = "10.0.2.15"; //... run() { InetAddress serverAddr = InetAddress.getByName(SERVERIP); DatagramSocket socket = new DatagramSocket(SERVERPORT,serverAddr); while(true) { byte[] buf = new byte[29]; DatagramPacket packet = new DatagramPacket(buf, buf.length); socket.receive(packet); //... } } The port is given by the user during initializing application. The client part (requesting some data) InetAddress serverAddr = InetAddress.getByName("10.0.2.2"); //... Log.i("Requester", "Trying to connect to device port = "+target); DatagramSocket socketJ = new DatagramSocket(); byte[] bufJ = Adaptor.createStringMsg(Adaptor.createJoingMsg(id, Location.getX(), Location.getY())).getBytes(); DatagramPacket packetJ = new DatagramPacket(bufJ, bufJ.length, serverAddr, target); Log.i("Requester", "Sending: '" + new String(bufJ) + "'"); socketJ.send(packetJ); Log.i("Requester", "Done."); Some additional info. The Node1 (emulatorA) has a server on port 8000 and Node2 (emulatorB) has a server on port 8001. The target port for "client part" is read properly. What tried to do is to set the redirection as such: //emulatorA redir add tcp:8000:8000 //emulatorB redir add tcp:8001:8001 However I can not get any communication beetwen those 2 emulators. As far as I understood the android tutorial about it should work like this redir add tcp:localhostPort:emulatorPort. I'm stuck with it :/. Can anyone point me the mistake or give some good advice. For the record while I was testing communication on a single device (client faking other node) everything worked, so I don't think there is a bug in the code. Btw does any one knows how can I get 2 set of logs for those 2 emulators (logA, logB)? It would help me a lot.

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  • I am having trouble using jquery to submit a form. It was working before

    - by noah
    When a user clicks a link it uses jquery ajax to submit a form to go to paypal. Not working for some reason. Really appreciate any help... LINK TO CLICK I put this in an href for onClick: javascript:go_paypal(); CODE TO EXECUTE ON CLICK function go_paypal() { data = 'req_paypal=1'; $.blockUI({ message: '<h1> Going to Paypal...</h1>',css:{background:'#000'} }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "index.php", data: data, success: function(data) { $("#paypal_form").html(data); $("#payPalForm").submit(); } , error: function() {$.unblockUI(); alert('Unable to communicate to server.'); } }); return false; } CODE TO GO ON SUBMIT if(isset($_POST['req_paypal']) && $_POST['req_paypal'] == 1 ) { $sql = 'INSERT INTO `transactions` (id,type,ip,time,ammount,status) VALUES (NULL,1,\''.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].'\',\''.time().'\',\''.$global['paypal_prod_amount'].'\',0) '; echo $sql; mysql_query($sql); $id = mysql_insert_id(); $html = ' <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post" id="payPalForm"> <input type="hidden" name="item_number" value="One Year of Imgur Pro"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="'.$global['paypal_email'].'"> <input type="hidden" name="custom" value="'.base64_encode($id).'"> <input type="hidden" name="currency_code" value="USD"> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="'.$global['paypal_return'].'"> <input name="item_name" type="hidden" id="item_name" value="One Year of Imgur Pro" > <input name="amount" type="hidden" id="amount" value="'.$global['paypal_prod_amount'].'" > </form> '; echo $html;exit; }

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  • How can I obtain the IP address of my server program?

    - by Dr Dork
    Hello! This question is related to another question I just posted. I'm prepping for a simple work project and am trying to familiarize myself with the basics of socket programming in a Unix dev environment. At this point, I have some basic server side code and client side code setup to communicate. Currently, my client code successfully connects to the server code and the server code sends it a test message, then both quit out. Perfect! That's exactly what I wanted to accomplish. Now I'm playing around with the functions used to obtain info about the two environments (server and client). I'd like to obtain my server program's IP address. Here's the code I currently have to do this, but it's not working... int sockfd; unsigned int len; socklen_t sin_size; char msg[]="test message"; char buf[MAXLEN]; int st, rv; struct addrinfo hints, *serverinfo, *p; struct sockaddr_storage client; char s[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; char ip[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; //zero struct memset(&hints,0,sizeof(hints)); hints.ai_family = AF_UNSPEC; hints.ai_socktype = SOCK_STREAM; hints.ai_flags = AI_PASSIVE; //get the server info if((rv = getaddrinfo(NULL, SERVERPORT, &hints, &serverinfo ) != 0)){ perror("getaddrinfo"); exit(-1); } // loop through all the results and bind to the first we can for( p = serverinfo; p != NULL; p = p->ai_next) { //Setup the socket if( (sockfd = socket( p->ai_family, p->ai_socktype, p->ai_protocol )) == -1 ) { perror("socket"); continue; } //Associate a socket id with an address to which other processes can connect if(bind(sockfd, p->ai_addr, p->ai_addrlen) == -1){ close(sockfd); perror("bind"); continue; } break; } if( p == NULL ){ perror("Fail to bind"); } inet_ntop(p->ai_family, get_in_addr((struct sockaddr *)p->ai_addr), s, sizeof(s)); printf("Server has TCP Port %s and IP Address %s\n", SERVERPORT, s); and the output for the IP is always empty... server has TCP Port 21412 and IP Address :: any ideas for what I'm missing? thanks in advance for your help! this stuff is really complicated at first.

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  • Socket connection to a telnet-based server hangs on read

    - by mixwhit
    I'm trying to write a simple socket-based client in Python that will connect to a telnet server. I can test the server by telnetting to its port (5007), and entering text. It responds with a NAK (error) or an AK (success), sometimes accompanied by other text. Seems very simple. I wrote a client to connect and communicate with the server, but it hangs on the first attempt to read the response. The connection is successful. Queries like getsockname and getpeername are successful. The send command returns a value that equals the number of characters I'm sending, so it seems to be sending correctly. But in the end, it always hangs when I try to read the response. I've tried using both file-based objects like readline and write (via socket.makefile), as well as using send and recv. With the file object I tried making it with "rw" and reading and writing via that object, and later tried one object for "r" and another for "w" to separate them. None of these worked. I used a packet sniffer to watch what's going on. I'm not versed in all that I'm seeing, but during a telnet session I can see my typed text and the server's text coming back. During my Python socket connection, I can see my text going to the server, but packets back don't seem to have any text in them. Any ideas on what I'm doing wrong, or any strategies to try? Here's the code I'm using (in this case, it's with send and recv): #!/usr/bin/python host = "localhost" port = 5007 msg = "HELLO EMC 1 1" msg2 = "HELLO" import socket import sys try: skt = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) except socket.error, e: print("Error creating socket: %s" % e) sys.exit(1) try: skt.connect((host,port)) except socket.gaierror, e: print("Address-related error connecting to server: %s" % e) sys.exit(1) except socket.error, e: print("Error connecting to socket: %s" % e) sys.exit(1) try: print(skt.send(msg)) print("SEND: %s" % msg) except socket.error, e: print("Error sending data: %s" % e) sys.exit(1) while 1: try: buf = skt.recv(1024) print("RECV: %s" % buf) except socket.error, e: print("Error receiving data: %s" % e) sys.exit(1) if not len(buf): break sys.stdout.write(buf)

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  • Problems with starting windows service on windows xp SP3

    - by Michiel Peeters
    I'm currently facing a problem which I can not resolve and I really don't know what to do anymore. When I'm trying to start the service I receive the message: "The service is started but again also stopped, this because that some of the services will stop if they have nothing to do, for example the performance logs and the alerts service". I've looked into the Windows Logs but nothing is written there which could describe why my service is all the time stopping. I've also tried to fire the windows service via the command prompt which gives me the message: "The service is not started, but the service didn't return any faults.". I've tried to remove all keys which references to my service, which didn't resolve the issue. I've searched on google (maybe not good enough) to find an answer but I didn't found any. I did found some websites which describes what I could do, but all of these suggestions didn't work. This is kinda ** because I do not know where to look. I do not have any error message, i do not have any id which i can use to search on. I really don't know where to start and I hope you guys can help me on this one. Detailed explanation about the windows service OS: Windows XP SP3 .Net Framework: .Net 4.0 Client Profile Language: C# Development environment: Visual Studio 2010 Professional (but Visual Studio 2012 RC is installed) Communications: WCF (Named Pipes), WCF (BasicHTTPBinding) Named Pipes: I have chosen for this solution because I wanted to communicate from a windows service to a windows form application. It worked now for quite some time but suddenly my windows service shuts it self down and I couldn't restart it anymore. There are two named pipes services implemented: An event service which will send any notification to the windows form application and an management service which gives my windows form application the possibility to maintain my windows service. BasicHTTPBinding: The basic http binding makes the connection to a central server. This connection is then used for streaming information from the client to the server. I do not know which additional information you will need, but if you guys need something then I'll try to give it as detailed as possible. Thank you in advance.

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  • AllowSetForegroundWindow & SetForegroundWindow: NPAPI plug-in wants to allow a desktop application with no success

    - by David Robert Jones
    Here it's what I have: a web browser plug-in written in C++ and a Windows application written in C#. They communicate through a named pipe. The plug-in instructs the C# application to open a file (suppose that the file is a .txt and it opens in Notepad). Once the C# application is given the command, it opens the file but Notepad doesn't show in the foreground, which isn't acceptable, I must open Notepad in the foreground. I modified the C# application so that it calls the SetForegroundWindow function. This time Notepad didn't open in the foreground, but the taskbar flashes. After reading the documentation for SetForegroundWindow and many articles I think that now I understand what the problem is: the C# application can't bring Notepad to the foreground because it wasn't the the foreground process, the browser was (?). After reading this: "A process that can set the foreground window can enable another process to set the foreground window by calling the AllowSetForegroundWindow function." I decided to modify the plug-in. This time the plug-in calls the AllowSetForegroundWindow function passing ASFW_ANY as a parameter (I know, ASFW_ANY could be risky, but I wanted to make sure that AllowSetForegroundWindow would do it). After I did the modification to the plug-in I tested it and it worked! (Opera 12.02). Then I tested it on Internet Explorer and it worked too. But the problem came when I tested it in Firefox and Chrome. The C# application didn't have the ability to bring Notepad to the foreground. I noticed that for those browsers the AllowSetForegroundWindow function was returning false. So I started investigating and I come to the conclusion that maybe it's because the plugin container that Firefox uses. An idea came to my mind: it worked in Opera 12.02, but they don't have a plugin container, although they did in Opera 12.00. So I downloaded Opera 12.00, I did the test and it failed, which makes me conclude that the plugin container is the culprit. The question is: how can I give to the C# application the ability to set foreground? I don't know how to continue, and I think that I tried all the legitimate ways. The AllowSetForegroundWindow & SetForegroundWindow seems to not apply here.

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  • Rsync: how to mount truecrypt on-the-fly on the receiving side?

    - by deepc
    The short version: how can I keep an rsync backup on a truecrypt volume? The hard part is to mount/unmount this volume on the fly when it is needed for rsync. Details This is my current backup configuration (which works fairly well for the most part): backup source is on Win7 64 bit, destination is a remote Linux box (Debian) actual data transfer is done by rsync via ssh (cwRsync with cygwin) rsync daemon is started on demand via ssh On the Linux box the backup is protected by file permissions only. I want to increase security here and put the backup into a truecrypt volume. I can fuse-mount that volume manually in the shell. The question is now how can I make rsync not only open an ssh connection and starting the rsync daemon, but also to mount the truecrypt volume before (and unmount it after)? My money is on option --rsync-path which can be used to pass a command line to ssh - provided that stdin and stdout still work the same. I guess that command would have to be a shell script. Is this possible, and what would the script look like? For reference, here's a quote of that option: --rsync-path=PROGRAM Use this to specify what program is to be run on the remote machine to start-up rsync. Often used when rsync is not in the default remote-shell's path (e.g. --rsync-path=/usr/local/bin/rsync). Note that PROGRAM is run with the help of a shell, so it can be any program, script, or command sequence you'd care to run, so long as it does not corrupt the standard-in & standard-out that rsync is using to communicate. One tricky example is to set a different default directory on the remote machine for use with the --relative option. For instance: rsync -avR --rsync-path="cd /a/b && rsync" host:c/d /e/ This is the full rsync man page. Truecrypt volume auto-mount Solved! Turns out this option is actually key to auto-mounting the truecrypt volume on the remote side. The following command line does the trick (one line!): rsync $options -e "ssh -p $port -i ../.ssh/id_dsa" --rsync-path="/usr/local/bin/truecrypt -d && /usr/local/bin/truecrypt --fs-options=rw,sync,utf8,uid=$UID,umask=0007 --non-interactive -p $password $pathToVolume $remoteMountDir && rsync" $localSourceDir $user:$remoteMountMountDir Truecrypt volume auto-dismount Still open: how can I unmount the volume when rsync is done? Not sure if the following makes sense to anyone but I give it a try... Right now I am unmounting (truecrypt -d), then mounting again, then continuing with rsync. At this time rsync needs to do its thing but I dont know when its done. Adding ... rsync && truecrypt -d to the command line does not work because then the rsync daemon does not start. This is because rsync starts the daemon with parameter --server on the remote side and that parameter would go to the final truecrypt -d.

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  • DCOM Authentication Fails to use Kerberos, Falls back to NTLM

    - by Asa Yeamans
    I have a webservice that is written in Classic ASP. In this web service it attempts to create a VirtualServer.Application object on another server via DCOM. This fails with Permission Denied. However I have another component instantiated in this same webservice on the same remote server, that is created without problems. This component is a custom-in house component. The webservice is called from a standalone EXE program that calls it via WinHTTP. It has been verified that WinHTTP is authenticating with Kerberos to the webservice successfully. The user authenticated to the webservice is the Administrator user. The EXE to webservice authentication step is successful and with kerberos. I have verified the DCOM permissions on the remote computer with DCOMCNFG. The default limits allow administrators both local and remote activation, both local and remote access, and both local and remote launch. The default component permissions allow the same. This has been verified. The individual component permissions for the working component are set to defaults. The individual component permissions for the VirtualServer.Application component are also set to defaults. Based upon these settings, the webservice should be able to instantiate and access the components on the remote computer. Setting up a Wireshark trace while running both tests, one with the working component and one with the VirtualServer.Application component reveals an intresting behavior. When the webservice is instantiating the working, custom, component, I can see the request on the wire to the RPCSS endpoint mapper first perform the TCP connect sequence. Then I see it perform the bind request with the appropriate security package, in this case kerberos. After it obtains the endpoint for the working DCOM component, it connects to the DCOM endpoint authenticating again via Kerberos, and it successfully is able to instantiate and communicate. On the failing VirtualServer.Application component, I again see the bind request with kerberos go to the RPCC endpoing mapper successfully. However, when it then attempts to connect to the endpoint in the Virtual Server process, it fails to connect because it only attempts to authenticate with NTLM, which ultimately fails, because the webservice does not have access to the credentials to perform the NTLM hash. Why is it attempting to authenticate via NTLM? Additional Information: Both components run on the same server via DCOM Both components run as Local System on the server Both components are Win32 Service components Both components have the exact same launch/access/activation DCOM permissions Both Win32 Services are set to run as Local System The permission denied is not a permissions issue as far as I can tell, it is an authentication issue. Permission is denied because NTLM authentication is used with a NULL username instead of Kerberos Delegation Constrained delegation is setup on the server hosting the webservice. The server hosting the webservice is allowed to delegate to rpcss/dcom-server-name The server hosting the webservice is allowed to delegate to vssvc/dcom-server-name The dcom server is allowed to delegate to rpcss/webservice-server The SPN's registered on the dcom server include rpcss/dcom-server-name and vssvc/dcom-server-name as well as the HOST/dcom-server-name related SPNs The SPN's registered on the webservice-server include rpcss/webservice-server and the HOST/webservice-server related SPNs Anybody have any Ideas why the attempt to create a VirtualServer.Application object on a remote server is falling back to NTLM authentication causing it to fail and get permission denied? Additional information: When the following code is run in the context of the webservice, directly via a testing-only, just-developed COM component, it fails on the specified line with Access Denied. COSERVERINFO csi; csi.dwReserved1=0; csi.pwszName=L"terahnee.rivin.net"; csi.pAuthInfo=NULL; csi.dwReserved2=NULL; hr=CoGetClassObject(CLSID_VirtualServer, CLSCTX_ALL, &csi, IID_IClassFactory, (void **) &pClsFact); if(FAILED( hr )) goto error1; // Fails here with HRESULT_FROM_WIN32(ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED) hr=pClsFact->CreateInstance(NULL, IID_IUnknown, (void **) &pUnk); if(FAILED( hr )) goto error2; Ive also noticed that in the Wireshark Traces, i see the attempt to connect to the service process component only requests NTLMSSP authentication, it doesnt even attmept to use kerberos. This suggests that for some reason the webservice thinks it cant use kerberos...

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