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• Having difficulties in ending Michael Hartl's tutorial. Help?

  - by konzepz

  Following Michael Hartl's (amazing) Ruby on Rails Tutorial, on the final section, I get the following errors: 1) User micropost associations status feed should include the microposts of followed users Failure/Error: @user.feed.should include(mp3) expected [#<Micropost id: 2, content: "Foo bar", user_id: 1, created_at: "2011-01-12 21:22:41", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:41">, #<Micropost id: 1, content: "Foo bar", user_id: 1, created_at: "2011-01-11 22:22:41", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:41">] to include #<Micropost id: 3, content: "Foo bar", user_id: 2, created_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:41", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:41"> Diff: @@ -1,2 +1,2 @@ -#<Micropost id: 3, content: "Foo bar", user_id: 2, created_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:41", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:41"> +[#<Micropost id: 2, content: "Foo bar", user_id: 1, created_at: "2011-01-12 21:22:41", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:41">, #<Micropost id: 1, content: "Foo bar", user_id: 1, created_at: "2011-01-11 22:22:41", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:41">] # ./spec/models/user_spec.rb:214 2) Micropost from_users_followed_by should include the followed user's microposts Failure/Error: Micropost.from_users_followed_by(@user).should include(@other_post) expected [#<Micropost id: 1, content: "foo", user_id: 1, created_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:46", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:46">] to include #<Micropost id: 2, content: "bar", user_id: 2, created_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:46", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:46"> Diff: @@ -1,2 +1,2 @@ -#<Micropost id: 2, content: "bar", user_id: 2, created_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:46", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:46"> +[#<Micropost id: 1, content: "foo", user_id: 1, created_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:46", updated_at: "2011-01-12 22:22:46">] # ./spec/models/micropost_spec.rb:75 Finished in 9.18 seconds 153 examples, 2 failures Seems like mp3 is not included in the feed. Any ideas on how to fix it? Or where to look for possible errors in the code? I compared the files with Hartl's original code; seems exact. Thanks.

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• Can PHP dissect its own syntax?

  - by Nathan Long

  Can PHP dissect its own syntax? For example, I'd like to write a function that takes in an input like $object->attribute and says to itself: OK, he's giving me $foo->bar, which means he must think that $foo is an object that has a property called bar. Before I try accessing bar and potentially get a 'Trying to get property of non-object' error, let me check whether $foo is even an object. The end goal is to echo a value if it is set, and fail silently if not. I want to avoid repetition like this: <input value="<? if(is_object($foo) && is_set($foo->bar)){ echo $foo->bar; }?> "/> ...and to avoid writing a function that does the above, but has to have the object and attribute passed in separately, like this: <input value="<? echoAttribute($foo,'bar') ?>" /> ...but to instead write something which: preserves the object-attribute syntax is flexible: can also handle array keys or regular variables Like this: <input value="<? echoIfSet($foo->bar); ?> /> <input value="<? echoIfSet($baz['buzz']); ?> /> <input value="<? echoIfSet($moo); ?> /> But this all depends on PHP being able to tell me "what kind of thing am I asking for when I say $object->attribute or $array[$key]", so that my function can handle each according to its own type. Is this possible?

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• Is it normal for C++ static initialization to appear twice in the same backtrace?

  - by Joseph Garvin

  I'm trying to debug a C++ program compiled with GCC that freezes at startup. GCC mutex protects function's static local variables, and it appears that waiting to acquire such a lock is why it freezes. How this happens is rather confusing. First module A's static initialization occurs (there are __static_init functions GCC invokes that are visible in the backtrace), which calls a function Foo(), that has a static local variable. The static local variable is an object who's constructor calls through several layers of functions, then suddenly the backtrace has a few ??'s, and then it's is in the static initialization of a second module B (the __static functions occur all over again), which then calls Foo(), but since Foo() never returned the first time the mutex on the local static variable is still set, and it locks. How can one static init trigger another? My first theory was shared libraries -- that module A would be calling some function in module B that would cause module B to load, thus triggering B's static init, but that doesn't appear to be the case. Module A doesn't use module B at all. So I have a second (and horrifying) guess. Say that: Module A uses some templated function or a function in a templated class, e.g. foo<int>::bar() Module B also uses foo<int>::bar() Module A doesn't depend on module B at all At link time, the linker has two instances of foo<int>::bar(), but this is OK because template functions are marked as weak symbols... At runtime, module A calls foo<int>::bar, and the static init of module B is triggered, even though module B doesn't depend on module A! Why? Because the linker decided to go with module B's instance of foo::bar instead of module A's instance at link time. Is this particular scenario valid? Or should one module's static init never trigger static init in another module?

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• Javascript: "Dangling" Reference to DOM element?

  - by Channel72

  It seems that in Javascript, if you have a reference to some DOM element, and then modify the DOM by adding additional elements to document.body, your DOM reference becomes invalidated. Consider the following code: <html> <head> <script type = "text/javascript"> function work() { var foo = document.getElementById("foo"); alert(foo == document.getElementById("foo")); document.body.innerHTML += "<div>blah blah</div>"; alert(foo == document.getElementById("foo")); } </script> </head> <body> <div id = "foo" onclick='work()'>Foo</div> </body> </html> When you click on the DIV, this alerts "true", and then "false." So in other words, after modifying document.body, the reference to the DIV element is no longer valid. This behavior is the same on Firefox and MSIE. Some questions: Why does this occur? Is this behavior specified by the ECMAScript standard, or is this a browser-specific issue? Note: there's another question posted on stackoverflow that seems to be referring to the same issue, but neither the question nor the answers are very clear.

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• Setting an Excel Range with an Array using Python and comtypes?

  - by technomalogical

  Using comtypes to drive Python, it seems some magic is happening behind the scenes that is not converting tuples and lists to VARIANT types: # RANGE(“C14:D21”) has values # Setting the Value on the Range with a Variant should work, but # list or tuple is not getting converted properly it seems >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Open(r'C:\temp\my_file.xlsx') >>>xl.Visible = True >>>vals=tuple([(x,y) for x,y in zip('abcdefgh',xrange(8))]) # creates: #(('a', 0), ('b', 1), ('c', 2), ('d', 3), ('e', 4), ('f', 5), ('g', 6), ('h', 7)) >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value() (('foo',1),('foo',2),('foo',3),('foo',4),('foo',6),('foo',6),('foo',7),('foo',8)) >>>sheet.Range["C14","D21"].Value[()] = vals # no error, this blanks out the cells in the Range According to the comtypes docs: When you pass simple sequences (lists or tuples) as VARIANT parameters, the COM server will receive a VARIANT containing a SAFEARRAY of VARIANTs with the typecode VT_ARRAY | VT_VARIANT. This seems to be inline with what MSDN says about passing an array to a Range's Value. I also found this page showing something similar in C#. Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? EDIT I've come up with a simpler example that performs the same way (in that, it does not work): >>>from comtypes.client import CreateObject >>>xl = CreateObject("Excel.application") >>>xl.Workbooks.Add() >>>sheet = xl.Workbooks[1].Sheets["Sheet1"] # at this point, I manually typed into the range A1:B3 >>> sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value() ((u'AAA', 1.0), (u'BBB', 2.0), (u'CCC', 3.0)) >>>sheet.Range("A1","B3").Value[()] = [(x,y) for x,y in zip('xyz',xrange(3))] # Using a generator expression, per @Mike's comment # However, this still blanks out my range :(

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• Managing logs/warnings in Python extensions

  - by Dimitri Tcaciuc

  TL;DR version: What do you use for configurable (and preferably captured) logging inside your C++ bits in a Python project? Details follow. Say you have a a few compiled .so modules that may need to do some error checking and warn user of (partially) incorrect data. Currently I'm having a pretty simplistic setup where I'm using logging framework from Python code and log4cxx library from C/C++. log4cxx log level is defined in a file (log4cxx.properties) and is currently fixed and I'm thinking how to make it more flexible. Couple of choices that I see: One way to control it would be to have a module-wide configuration call. # foo/__init__.py import sys from _foo import import bar, baz, configure_log configure_log(sys.stdout, WARNING) # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): # Maybe a custom context to change the logfile for # the module and restore it at the end. with CaptureLog(foo) as log: assert foo.bar() == 5 assert log.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Have every compiled function that does logging accept optional log parameters. # foo.c int bar(PyObject* x, PyObject* logfile, PyObject* loglevel) { LoggerPtr logger = default_logger("foo"); if (logfile != Py_None) logger = file_logger(logfile, loglevel); ... } # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): with TemporaryFile() as logfile: assert foo.bar(logfile=logfile, loglevel=DEBUG) == 5 assert logfile.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Some other way? Second one seems to be somewhat cleaner, but it requires function signature alteration (or using kwargs and parsing them). First one is.. probably somewhat awkward but sets up entire module in one go and removes logic from each individual function. What are your thoughts on this? I'm all ears to alternative solutions as well. Thanks,

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• Python: circular imports needed for type checking

  - by phild

  First of all: I do know that there are already many questions and answers to the topic of the circular imports. The answer is more or less: "Design your Module/Class structure properly and you will not need circular imports". That is true. I tried very hard to make a proper design for my current project, I in my opinion I was successful with this. But my specific problem is the following: I need a type check in a module that is already imported by the module containing the class to check against. But this throws an import error. Like so: foo.py: from bar import Bar class Foo(object): def __init__(self): self.__bar = Bar(self) bar.py: from foo import Foo class Bar(object): def __init__(self, arg_instance_of_foo): if not isinstance(arg_instance_of_foo, Foo): raise TypeError() Solution 1: If I modified it to check the type by a string comparison, it will work. But I dont really like this solution (string comparsion is rather expensive for a simple type check, and could get a problem when it comes to refactoring). bar_modified.py: from foo import Foo class Bar(object): def __init__(self, arg_instance_of_foo): if not arg_instance_of_foo.__class__.__name__ == "Foo": raise TypeError() Solution 2: I could also pack the two classes into one module. But my project has lots of different classes like the "Bar" example, and I want to seperate them into different module files. After my own 2 solutions are no option for me: Has anyone a nicer solution for this problem?

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• How can I lookup an attribute in any scope by name?

  - by Wai Yip Tung

  How can I lookup an attribute in any scope by name? My first trial is to use globals() and locals(). e.g. >>> def foo(name): ... a=1 ... print globals().get(name), locals().get(name) ... >>> foo('a') None 1 >>> b=1 >>> foo('b') 1 None >>> foo('foo') <function foo at 0x014744B0> None So far so good. However it fails to lookup any built-in names. >>> range <built-in function range> >>> foo('range') None None >>> int <type 'int'> >>> foo('int') None None Any idea on how to lookup built-in attributes?

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• Getting registry information using Python

  - by Willy

  I am trying to pull registry info from many servers and put them all into one txt file. I got the code working fine in a .bat file. I hear that there is a way simpler way to do this in Python. I am intrigued and delighted to hear this. Can anyone help finish my code: My working bat file: echo rfsqlcl01app >> foo.txt reg query "\\rfsqlcl01app\HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Network Associates\TVD\Shared Components\On Access Scanner\McShield\Configuration\Default" >> foo.txt echo GLADGSQL01 >> foo.txt reg query "\\GLADGSQL01\HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Network Associates\TVD\Shared Components\On Access Scanner\McShield\Configuration\Default" >> foo.txt echo GLADGWEB01 >> foo.txt reg query "\\GLADGWEB01\HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Network Associates\TVD\Shared Components\On Access Scanner\McShield\Configuration\Default" >> foo.txt echo PAPERVISION >> foo.txt My python code structure: >>> server_list = open('server_test.txt', 'r') >>> for line in server_list: print r'reg query \\%s\blah\blah\blah' % line.strip() reg query \\foo\blah\blah\blah reg query \\moo\blah\blah\blah reg query \\boo\blah\blah\blah >>> server_list.close()

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• echo -e acts differently when run in a script by root on ubuntu

  - by ekrub

  When running a bash script on ubuntu 9.10, I get different behavior from bash echo's "-e" option depending on whether or not I'm running as root. Consider this script: $ cat echo-test if [ "`whoami`" = "root" ]; then echo "Running as root" fi echo Testing /bin/echo -e /bin/echo -e "foo\nbar" echo Testing bash echo -e echo -e "foo\nbar" When run as non-root user, I see this output: $ ./echo-test Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e foo bar When run as root, I see this output: $ sudo ./echo-test Running as root Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e -e foo bar Notice the "-e" being echoed in the last case ("-e foo" instead of "foo" on the second-to-last line). When running a script as root, the echo command runs as if "-e" was given and, if -e is given, the option itself is echoed. I can understand some subtle differences in behavior between /bin/echo and bash echo, but I would expect bash echo to behave the same no matter which user invokes it. Anyone know why this is the case? Is this a bug in bash echo? FYI -- I'm running GNU bash, version 4.0.33(1)-release (x86_64-pc-linux-gnu)

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• OmniCppComplete: Completing on Class Members which are STL containers

  - by Robert S. Barnes

  Completion on class members which are STL containers is failing. Completion on local objects which are STL containers works fine. For example, given the following files: // foo.h #include <string> class foo { public: void set_str(const std::string &); std::string get_str_reverse( void ); private: std::string str; }; // foo.cpp #include "foo.h" using std::string; string foo::get_str_reverse ( void ) { string temp; temp.assign(str); reverse(temp.begin(), temp.end()); return temp; } /* ----- end of method foo::get_str ----- */ void foo::set_str ( const string &s ) { str.assign(s); } /* ----- end of method foo::set_str ----- */ I've generated the tags for these two files using: ctags -R --c++-kinds=+pl --fields=+iaS --extra=+q . When I type temp. in the cpp I get a list of string member functions as expected. But if I type str. omnicppcomplete spits out "Pattern Not Found". I've noticed that the temp. completion only works if I have the using std::string; declaration. How do I get completion to work on my class members which are STL containers?

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• boost::python string-convertible properties

  - by Checkers

  I have a C++ class, which has the following methods: class Bar { ... const Foo& getFoo() const; void setFoo(const Foo&); }; where class Foo is convertible to std::string (it has an implicit constructor from std::string and an std::string cast operator). I define a Boost.Python wrapper class, which, among other things, defines a property based on previous two functions: class_<Bar>("Bar") ... .add_property( "foo", make_function( &Bar::getFoo, return_value_policy<return_by_value>()), &Bar::setFoo) ... I also mark the class as convertible to/from std::string. implicitly_convertible<std::string, Foo>(); implicitly_convertible<Foo, std::string>(); But at runtime I still get a conversion error trying to access this property: TypeError: No to_python (by-value) converter found for C++ type: Foo How to achieve the conversion without too much boilerplate of wrapper functions? (I already have all the conversion functions in class Foo, so duplication is undesirable.

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• SQL Server stored procedure return code oddity

  - by gbn

  Hello The client that calls this code is restricted and can only deal with return codes from stored procs. So, we modified our usual contract to RETURN -1 on error and default to RETURN 0 if no error If the code hits the inner catch block, then the RETURN code default to -4. Where does this come from, does anyone know...? IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.foo') IS NOT NULL DROP TABLE dbo.foo GO CREATE TABLE dbo.foo ( KeyCol char(12) NOT NULL, ValueCol xml NOT NULL, Comment varchar(1000) NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_foo PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (KeyCol) ) GO IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.bar') IS NOT NULL DROP PROCEDURE dbo.bar GO CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.bar @Key char(12), @Value xml, @Comment varchar(1000) AS SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @StartTranCount tinyint; BEGIN TRY SELECT @StartTranCount = @@TRANCOUNT; IF @StartTranCount = 0 BEGIN TRAN; BEGIN TRY --SELECT @StartTranCount = 'fish' INSERT dbo.foo (KeyCol, ValueCol, Comment) VALUES (@Key, @Value, @Comment); END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF ERROR_NUMBER() = 2627 --PK violation UPDATE dbo.foo SET ValueCol = @Value, Comment = @Comment WHERE KeyCol = @Key; ELSE RAISERROR ('Tits up', 16, 1); END CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 COMMIT TRAN; END TRY BEGIN CATCH IF @StartTranCount = 0 AND XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLBACK TRAN; RETURN -1 END CATCH --Without this, we'll send -4 if we hit the UPDATE CATCH block above --RETURN 0 GO --Run with RETURN 0 and fish line commented out DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar2 />', 'testing2' --updated OK but we get @rtn = -4 SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo --uncomment fish line DECLARE @rtn int EXEC @rtn = dbo.bar 'abcdefghijkl', '<foobar />', 'testing' --Hit outer CATCH, @rtn = -1 as expected SELECT @rtn; SELECT * FROM dbo.foo

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• How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

  - by Kyle Kaitan

  Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

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• How do I deliver mail for wildcard addresses to a particular user/alias/program?

  - by David M

  I need to configure sendmail so that mail delivered for wildcard addresses is accepted for delivery and then delivered to a user, alias, or directly to a script. I can rewrite the envelope/headers any number of ways, but I don't know how to accept the wildcard address when it's provided in RCPT TO: Everything I've tried so far winds up with a 550 user unknown error. So here's a specific example: I want to be able to handle any address that consists of a series of digits followed by a dot followed by a word, then pipe that to a script. If the headers get rewritten, that's OK, but I need the envelope to contain the actual Delivered-To address. Here's the sort of SMTP session I need: 220 blah.foo.com ESMTP server ready; Thu, 22 Apr 2010 20:41:08 -0700 (PDT) HELO blort.foo.com 250 blah.foo.com Hello blort.foo.com [10.1.2.3], pleased to meet you MAIL FROM: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.0 <[email protected]>... Sender ok RCPT TO: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.5 <[email protected]>... Recipient ok I tried some stuff with regex maps, but I never got past 550 user unknown.

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• Castle Windsor: Reuse resolved component in OnCreate, UsingFactoryMethod or DynamicParameters

  - by shovavnik

  I'm trying to execute an action on a resolved component before it is returned as a dependency to the application. For example, with this graph: public class Foo : IFoo { } public class Bar { IFoo _foo; IBaz _baz; public Bar(IFoo foo, IBaz baz) { _foo = foo; _baz = baz; } } When I create an instance of IFoo, I want the container to instantiate Bar and pass the already-resolved IFoo to it, along with any other dependencies it requires. So when I call: var foo = container.Resolve<IFoo>(); The container should automatically call: container.Resolve<Bar>(); // should pass foo and instantiate IBaz I've tried using OnCreate, DynamicParameters and UsingFactoryMethod, but the problem they all share is that they don't hold an explicit reference to the component: DynamicParameters is called before IFoo is instantiated. OnCreate is called after, but the delegate doesn't pass the instance. UsingFactoryMethod doesn't help because I need to register these components with TService and TComponent. Ideally, I'd like a registration to look something like this: container.Register<IFoo, Foo>((kernel, foo) => kernel.Resolve<Bar>(new { foo })); Note that IFoo and Bar are registered with the transient life style, which means that the already-resolved instance has to be passed to Bar - it can't be "re-resolved". Is this possible? Am I missing something?

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• Approach For Syncing One SharePoint List With One or More SharePoint Lists

  - by plattnum

  What would be the best approach or strategy for configuring, customizing or developing in SharePoint a solution that allows me to keep one or more SharePoint lists in sync with a SharePoint list I have designated as a master or parent list. I would like to be able to create a master/parent list of some information that can be extended or used by different parts of the organization without them being able to CRUD any items on the actual columns of the master list. (I have seen some commercial web parts that offer column security on SharePoint lists and although that’s one way of potentially meeting my needs I would like to explore other options.) Scenario: I have a list called FOO: FOO Title Description I would like to create a new list BAR based off of FOO (BAR is managed by sub-organization that doesn't have access to FOO List): BAR FOO.Title (Read-Only) FOO.Description (Read-Only) NewColumn1 NewColumn2 Actions: Create- If a new item is entered in FOO I would like the new item added to BAR. Read - N/A Update - If the title or description is changed in FOO I would like it changed in BAR. Delete- No Deletes in the scenario. (Deletes are handled by the business with status column.) Templates with content extraction offer me this but it’s a one time shot at list creation. Just not sure what the best approach or strategy would be for this in MOSS 2007. Thanks!

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• str_replace() and strpos() for arrays?

  - by Josh

  I'm working with an array of data that I've changed the names of some array keys, but I want the data to stay the same basically... Basically I want to be able to keep the data that's in the array stored in the DB, but I want to update the array key names associated with it. Previously the array would have looked like this: $var_opts['services'] = array('foo-1', 'foo-2', 'foo-3', 'foo-4'); Now the array keys are no longer prefixed with "foo", but rather with "bar" instead. So how can I update the array variable to get rid of the "foos" and replace with "bars" instead? Like so: $var_opts['services'] = array('bar-1', 'bar-2', 'bar-3', 'bar-4'); I'm already using if(isset($var_opts['services']['foo-1'])) { unset($var_opts['services']['foo-1']); } to get rid of the foos... I just need to figure out how to replace each foo with a bar. I thought I would use str_replace on the whole array, but to my dismay it only works on strings (go figure, heh) and not arrays.

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• Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

  - by MainMa

  Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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• Callers block until getFoo() has a value ready?

  - by Sean Owen

  I have a Java Thread which exposes a property which other threads want to access: class MyThread extends Thread { private Foo foo; ... Foo getFoo() { return foo; } ... public void run() { ... foo = makeTheFoo(); ... } } The problem is that it takes some short time from the time this runs until foo is available. Callers may call getFoo() before this and get a null. I'd rather they simply block, wait, and get the value once initialization has occurred. (foo is never changed afterwards.) It will be a matter of milliseconds until it's ready, so I'm comfortable with this approach. Now, I can make this happen with wait() and notifyAll() and there's a 95% chance I'll do it right. But I'm wondering how you all would do it; is there a primitive in java.util.concurrent that would do this, that I've missed? Or, how would you structure it? Yes, make foo volatile. Yes, synchronize on an internal lock Object and put the check in a while loop until it's not null. Am I missing anything?

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• autorelease object not confirming protocol does not give any warning

  - by Sahil Wasan

  I have a class "ABC" and its method which returns non autoreleases object of that class. @interface ABC:NSObject +(ABC *)aClassMethodReturnsObjectWhichNotAutoreleased; @end @implementation ABC +(ABC *)aClassMethodReturnsObjectWhichNotAutoreleased{ ABC *a = [[ABC alloc]init]; return a; } @end If I have a protocol Foo. @Protocol Foo @required -(void)abc; @end My ABC class is "not" confirming Foo protocols. 1st call id<Foo> obj = [ABC aClassMethodReturnsObjectWhichNotAutoreleased]; //show warning It shows warning "Non Compatible pointers.." thats good.Abc did not confirm protocol Foo BUT 2nd call id<Foo> obj = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"abc",@"def",nil]; // It will "not" show warning as it will return autorelease object.NSArray don't confirm protocol Foo In first call compiler gives warning and in second call compiler is not giving any warning.I think that is because i am not returning autorelease object. Why is compiler not giving warning in 2nd call as NSArray is also not confirming FOO Thanks in advance

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• returning a pointed to an object within a std::vector

  - by memC

  I have a very basic question on returning a reference to an element of a vector . There is a vector vec that stores instances of class Foo. I want to access an element from this vector . ( don't want to use the vector index) . How should I code the method getFoo here? #include<vector> #include<stdio.h> #include<iostream> #include<math.h> using namespace std; class Foo { public: Foo(){}; ~Foo(){}; }; class B { public: vector<Foo> vec; Foo* getFoo(); B(){}; ~B(){}; }; Foo* B::getFoo(){ int i; vec.push_back(Foo()); i = vec.size() - 1; // how to return a pointer to vec[i] ?? return vec.at(i); }; int main(){ B b; b = B(); int i = 0; for (i = 0; i < 5; i ++){ b.getFoo(); } return 0; }

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• Passing functor and function pointers interchangeably using a templated method in C++

  - by metroxylon

  I currently have a templated class, with a templated method. Works great with functors, but having trouble compiling for functions. Foo.h template <typename T> class Foo { public: // Constructor, destructor, etc... template <typename Func> void bar(T x, Func f); }; template <typename T> template <typename Func> Foo::bar(T x, Func f) { /* some code here */ } Main.cpp #include "Foo.h" template <typename T> class Functor { public: Functor() {} void operator()(T x) { /* ... */ } private: /* some attributes here */ }; void Function(T x) { /* ... */ } int main() { Foo<int> foo; foo.bar(2, Functor); // No problem foo.bar(2, Function); // <unresolved overloaded function type> return 0; }

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• When are temporaries created as part of a function call destroyed?

  - by Michael Mrozek

  Is a temporary created as part of an argument to a function call guaranteed to stay around until the called function ends, even if the temporary isn't passed directly to the function? There's virtually no chance that was coherent, so here's an example: class A { public: A(int x) : x(x) {printf("Constructed A(%d)\n", x);} ~A() {printf("Destroyed A\n");} int x; int* y() {return &x;} }; void foo(int* bar) { printf("foo(): %d\n", *bar); } int main(int argc, char** argv) { foo(A(4).y()); } If A(4) were passed directly to foo it would definitely not be destroyed until after the foo call ended, but instead I'm calling a method on the temporary and losing any reference to it. I would instinctively think the temporary A would be destroyed before foo even starts, but testing with GCC 4.3.4 shows it isn't; the output is: Constructed A(4) foo(): 4 Destroyed A The question is, is GCC's behavior guaranteed by the spec? Or is a compiler allowed to destroy the temporary A before the call to foo, invaliding the pointer to its member I'm using?

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• What are the right reverse PTR, domain keys, and SPF settings for two domains running the same appli

  - by James A. Rosen

  I just read Jeff Atwood's recent post on DNS configuration for email and decided to give it a go on my application. I have a web-app that runs on one server under two different IPs and domain names, on both HTTP and HTTPS for each: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName foo.org ServerAlias www.foo.org ... </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 1.2.3.4:443> ServerName foo.org ServerAlias www.foo.org </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName bar.org ServerAlias www.bar.org ... </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 2.3.4.5:443> ServerName bar.org ServerAlias www.bar.org </VirtualHost> I'm using GMail as my SMTP server. Do I need the reverse PTR and SenderID records? If so, do I put the same ones on all of my records (foo.org, www.foo.org, bar.org, www.bar.org, ASPMX.L.GOOGLE.COM, ASPMX2.GOOGLEMAIL.COM, ..)? I'm pretty sure I want the domain-keys records, but I'm not sure which domains to attach them to. The Google mail servers? foo.org and bar.org? Everything?

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