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  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

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  • Conversion between different template instantiation of the same template

    - by Naveen
    I am trying to write an operator which converts between the differnt types of the same implementation. This is the sample code: template <class T = int> class A { public: A() : m_a(0){} template <class U> operator A<U>() { A<U> u; u.m_a = m_a; return u; } private: int m_a; }; int main(void) { A<int> a; A<double> b = a; return 0; } However, it gives the following error for line u.m_a = m_a;. Error 2 error C2248: 'A::m_a' : cannot access private member declared in class 'A' d:\VC++\Vs8Console\Vs8Console\Vs8Console.cpp 30 Vs8Console I understand the error is because A<U> is a totally different type from A<T>. Is there any simple way of solving this (may be using a friend?) other than providing setter and getter methods? I am using Visual studio 2008 if it matters.

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

    - by draconis
    Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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  • Why does VS2005 skip execution of lines when debugging managed C++ without optimizations?

    - by Sakin
    I ran into a rather odd behavior that I don't even know how to start describing. I wrote a piece of managed C++ code that makes calls to native methods. A (very) simplified version of the code would look like this (I know it looks like a full native function, just assume there is managed stuff being done all over the place): int somefunction(ptrHolder x) { // the accessptr method returns a native pointer if (x.accessptr() != nullptr) // I tried this with nullptr, NULL, 0) { try { x->doSomeNativeVeryImportantStuff(); // or whatever, doesn't matter } catch (SomeCustomExceptionClass &) { return 0; } } SomeOtherNativeClass::doStaticMagic(); return 1; } I compiled this code without optimizations using the /clr flag (VS.NET 2005, SP2) and when running it in the debugger I get to the if statement, since the pointer is actually null, I don't enter the if, but surprisingly, the cursor jumps directly to the return 1 statement, ignoring the doStaticMagic() method completely!!! When looking at the assembly code, I see that it really jumps directly to that line. If I force the debugger to enter the if block, I also jump to the return 1 statement after I press F10. Any ideas why this is happening? Thanks, Ariel

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  • Breaking dependencies when you can't make changes to other files?

    - by codemuncher
    I'm doing some stealth agile development on a project. The lead programmer sees unit testing, refactoring, etc as a waste of resources and there is no way to convince him otherwise. His philosophy is "If it ain't broke don't fix it" and I understand his point of view. He's been working on the project for over a decade and knows the code inside and out. I'm not looking to debate development practices. I'm new to the project and I've been tasked with adding a new feature. I've worked on legacy projects before and used agile development practices with good result but those teams were more receptive to the idea and weren't afraid of making changes to code. I've been told I can use whatever development methodology I want but I have to limit my changes to only those necessary to add the feature. I'm using tdd for the new classes I'm writing but I keep running into road blocks caused by the liberal use of global variables and the high coupling in the classes I need to interact with. Normally I'd start extracting interfaces for these classes and make their dependence on the global variables explicit by injecting them as constructor arguments or public properties. I could argue that the changes are necessary but considering the lead never had to make them I doubt he would see it my way. What techniques can I use to break these dependencies without ruffling the lead developer's feathers? I've made some headway using: Extract Interface (for the new classes I'm creating) Extend and override the wayward classes with test stubs. (luckily most methods are public virtual) But these two can only get me so far.

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  • How should I handle expected errors? eg. "username already exists"

    - by Pheter
    I am struggling to understand how I should design the error handling parts of my code. I recently asked a similar question about how I should go about returning server error codes to the user, eg. 404 errors. I learnt that I should handle the error from within the current part of the application; seem's simple enough. However, what should I do when I can't handle the error from the current link in the chain? For example, I may have a class that is used to manage authentication. One of it's methods could be createUser($username, $password). Within that function, I need to determine if the username already exists. If this is true, how should I alert the calling code about this? Returning null instead of a user object is one way. But how do I then know what caused the error? How should I handle errors in such a way that calling code can easily find out what caused the error? Is there a design pattern commonly used for this kind of situation?

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  • How to use interfaces in exception handling

    - by vikp
    Hi, I'm working on the exception handling layer for my application. I have read few articles on interfaces and generics. I have used inheritance before quite a lot and I'm comfortable with in that area. I have a very brief design that I'm going to implement: public interface IMyExceptionLogger { public void LogException(); // Helper methods for writing into files,db, xml } I'm slightly confused what I should be doing next. public class FooClass: IMyExceptionLogger { // Fields // Constructors } Should I implement LogException() method within FooClass? If yes, than I'm struggling to see how I'm better of using an interface instead of the concrete class... I have a variety of classes that will make a use of that interface, but I don't want to write an implementation of that interface within each class. In the same time If I implement an interface in one class, and then use that class in different layers of the application I will be still using concrete classes instead of interfaces, which is a bad OO design... I hope this makes sense. Any feedback and suggestions are welcome. Please notice that I'm not interested in using net4log or its competitors because I'm doing this to learn. Thank you Edit: Wrote some more code. So I will implement variety of loggers with this interface, i.e. DBExceptionLogger, CSVExceptionLogger, XMLExceptionLogger etc. Than I will still end up with concrete classes that I will have to use in different layers of my application.

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  • How to check at runtime if a class implements certain interface?

    - by mare
    Let's say I have some content classes like Page, TabGroup, Tab, etc. Certain of those will be implementing my IWidgetContainer interface - it means they will geet an additional field named ContainedItems from the interface and some methods for manipulating this field. Now I need to reflect the fact that some class implements this interface by rendering out some special custom controls in my ASP.NET MVC Views (like jQuery Add/Remove/Move/Reorder buttons). For instance, TabGroup will implement IWidgetContainer because it will contain tabs but a tab will not implement it because it won't have the ability to contain anything. So I have to somehow check in my view, when I render my content objects (The problem is, I use my base class as strong type in my view not concrete classes), whether it implements IWidgetContainer. How is that possible or have I completely missed something? To rephrase the question, how do you reflect some special properties of a class (like interface implementation) in the UI in general (not necessarily ASP.NET MVC)? Here's my code so far: [DataContract] public class ContentClass { [DataMember] public string Slug; [DataMember] public string Title; [DataMember] protected ContentType Type; } [DataContract] public class Group : ContentClass, IWidgetContainer { public Group() { Type = ContentType.TabGroup; } public ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } public void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } [DataContract] public class GroupElement : ContentClass { public GroupElement() { Type = ContentType.Tab; } } Interface: interface IWidgetContainer { [DataMember] ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd); void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove); }

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  • How do i integrate paypal in my website? Java

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, I want to integrate paypal in my java web application. I saw that they offer many methods to accomplish this. But i want my visitors to remain on my site only. My friend told me that Paypal offers webservice. But i can't seem to find any documentation on Paypal site. If anybody could help me with this, i would be really very grateful. Please offer me the relevant links on Paypal where i could read and get my things done. Secondly, my friend also told me that we need to give location to paypal where my visitors would be redirected once paypal payment is complete. But i am confused. I am working on localhost. How would Paypal know about my localhost? I have already created my sandbox testing account. What should be my next step. Please explain me in detail. I don't know anything about Paypal. Once i created a demo application of Express checkout where they give a simple button of Pay Now and on clicking on it shopping cart etc appears. But now i want my visitors to stay on same website. Thanks in advance :)

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  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

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  • C++ destructor problem with boost::scoped_ptr

    - by bb-generation
    I have a question about the following code: #include <iostream> #include <boost/scoped_ptr.hpp> class Interface { }; class A : public Interface { public: A() { std::cout << "A()" << std::endl; } virtual ~A() { std::cout << "~A()" << std::endl; } }; Interface* get_a() { A* a = new A; return a; } int main() { { std::cout << "1" << std::endl; boost::scoped_ptr<Interface> x(get_a()); std::cout << "2" << std::endl; } std::cout << "3" << std::endl; } It creates the following output: 1 A() 2 3 As you can see, it doesn't call the destructor of A. The only way I see to get the destructor of A being called, is to add a destructor for the Interface class like this: virtual ~Interface() { } But I really want to avoid any Implementation in my Interface class and virtual ~Interface() = 0; doesn't work (produces some linker errors complaining about a non existing implementation of ~Interface(). So my question is: What do I have to change in order to make the destructor being called, but (if possible) leave the Interface as an Interface (only abstract methods).

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  • How do I alias the scala setter method 'myvar_$(myval)' to something more pleasing when in java?

    - by feydr
    I've been converting some code from java to scala lately trying to tech myself the language. Suppose we have this scala class: class Person() { var name:String = "joebob" } Now I want to access it from java so I can't use dot-notation like I would if I was in scala. So I can get my var's contents by issuing: person = Person.new(); System.out.println(person.name()); and set it via: person = Person.new(); person.name_$eq("sallysue"); System.out.println(person.name()); This holds true cause our Person Class looks like this in javap: Compiled from "Person.scala" public class Person extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public Person(); public void name_$eq(java.lang.String); public java.lang.String name(); public int $tag() throws java.rmi.RemoteException; } Yes, I could write my own getters/setters but I hate filling classes up with that and it doesn't make a ton of sense considering I already have them -- I just want to alias the _$eq method better. (This actually gets worse when you are dealing with stuff like antlr because then you have to escape it and it ends up looking like person.name_\$eq("newname"); Note: I'd much rather have to put up with this rather than fill my classes with more setter methods. So what would you do in this situation?

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  • Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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  • Entity framework with Linq to Entities performance

    - by mare
    If I have a static method like this public static string GetTicClassificationTitle(string classI, string classII, string classIII) { using (TicDatabaseEntities ticdb = new TicDatabaseEntities()) { var result = from classes in ticdb.Classifications where classes.ClassI == classI where classes.ClassII == classII where classes.ClassIII == classIII select classes.Description; return result.FirstOrDefault(); } } and use this method in various places in foreach loops or just plain calling it numerous times, does it create and open new connection every time? If so, how can I tackle this? Should I cache the results somewhere, like in this case, I would cache the entire Classifications table in Memory Cache? And then do queries vs this cached object? Or should I make TicDatabaseEntities variable static and initialize it at class level? Should my class be static if it contains only static methods? Because right now it is not.. Also I've noticed that if I return result.First() instead of FirstOrDefault() and the query does not find a match, it will issue an exception (with FirstOrDefault() there is no exception, it returns null). Thank you for clarification.

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  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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  • GridView ObjectDataSource LINQ Paging and Sorting using multiple table query.

    - by user367426
    I am trying to create a pageing and sorting object data source that before execution returns all results, then sorts on these results before filtering and then using the take and skip methods with the aim of retrieving just a subset of results from the database (saving on database traffic). this is based on the following article: http://www.singingeels.com/Blogs/Nullable/2008/03/26/Dynamic_LINQ_OrderBy_using_String_Names.aspx Now I have managed to get this working even creating lambda expressions to reflect the sort expression returned from the grid even finding out the data type to sort for DateTime and Decimal. public static string GetReturnType<TInput>(string value) { var param = Expression.Parameter(typeof(TInput), "o"); Expression a = Expression.Property(param, "DisplayPriceType"); Expression b = Expression.Property(a, "Name"); Expression converted = Expression.Convert(Expression.Property(param, value), typeof(object)); Expression<Func<TInput, object>> mySortExpression = Expression.Lambda<Func<TInput, object>>(converted, param); UnaryExpression member = (UnaryExpression)mySortExpression.Body; return member.Operand.Type.FullName; } Now the problem I have is that many of the Queries return joined tables and I would like to sort on fields from the other tables. So when executing a query you can create a function that will assign the properties from other tables to properties created in the partial class. public static Account InitAccount(Account account) { account.CurrencyName = account.Currency.Name; account.PriceTypeName = account.DisplayPriceType.Name; return account; } So my question is, is there a way to assign the value from the joined table to the property of the current table partial class? i have tried using. from a in dc.Accounts where a.CompanyID == companyID && a.Archived == null select new { PriceTypeName = a.DisplayPriceType.Name}) but this seems to mess up my SortExpression. Any help on this would be much appreciated, I do understand that this is complex stuff.

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  • OOP/MVC advice on where to place a global helper function

    - by franko75
    Hi, I have a couple of controllers on my site which are handling form data. The forms use AJAX and I have quite a few methods across different controllers which are having to do some specific processing to return errors in a JSON encoded format - see code below. Obviously this isn't DRY and I need to move this code into a single helper function which I can use globally, but I'm wondering where this should actually go! Should I create a static helper class which contains this function (e.g Validation::build_ajax_errors()), or as this code is producing a format which is application specific and tied into the jQuery validation plugin I'm using, should it be a static method stored in, for example, my main Website controller which the form handling controllers extend from? //if ajax request, output errors if (request::is_ajax()) { //need to build errors into array form for javascript validation - move this into a helper method accessible globally $errors = $post->errors('form_data/form_error_messages'); $i = 0; $new_errors = array(); foreach ($errors as $key => $value) { $new_errors[$i][0] = '#' . $key; $new_errors[$i][1] = $value; $new_errors[$i][2] = "error"; $i++; } echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":' . json_encode($new_errors) . '}'; return; }

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  • asp.net, wcf authentication and caching

    - by andrew
    I need to place my app business logic into a WCF service. The service shouldn't be dependent on ASP.NET and there is a lot of data regarding the authenticated user which is frequently used in the business logic hence it's supposed to be cached (probably using a distributed cache). As for authentication - I'm going to use two level authentication: Front-End - forms authentication back-end (WCF Service) - message username authentication. For both authentications the same custom membership provider is supposed to be used. To cache the authenticated user data, I'm going to implement two service methods: 1) Authenticate - will retrieve the needed data and place it into the cache(where username will be used as a key) 2) SignOut - will remove the data from the cache Question 1. Is correct to perform authentication that way (in two places) ? Question 2. Is this caching strategy worth using or should I look at using aspnet compatible service and asp.net session ? Maybe, these questions are too general. But, anyway I'd like to get any suggestions or recommendations. Any Idea

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  • Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers

    - by Saurabh Bhandari
    I am trying to do a CORS call to a WCF service endpoint hosted on IIS7.5. I have configured custom headers in IIS. My configuration looks like below <customHeaders> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Methods" value="GET,PUT,POST,DELETE,OPTIONS" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Headers" value="x-user-session,origin, content-type, accept" /> <add name="Access-Control-Allow-Credentials" value="true" /> </customHeaders> When I do a POST request I get following error message "Request header field x-user-session is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Headers" If I remove my custom header from the call and run it, everything works fine. Also if I do a GET call with custom header then also API works correctly. $.ajax({ type:"POST", success: function(d) { console.log(d) }, timeout: 9000, url: "http://api.myserver.com/Services/v2/CreditCard.svc/update_cc_detail", data: JSON.stringify({"card_id": 1234,"expire_month":"11","expire_year":"2020","full_name":"Demo Account", "number":"4111111111111111","is_primary":true}), xhrFields: { withCredentials: true}, headers: { x-user-session': "B23680D0B8CB5AFED9F624271F1DFAE5052085755AEDDEFDA3834EF16115BCDDC6319BD79FDCCB1E199BB6CC4D0C6FBC9F30242A723BA9C0DFB8BCA3F31F4C7302B1A37EE0A20C42E8AFD45FAB85282FCB62C0B4EC62329BD8573FEBAEBC6E8269FFBF57C7D57E6EF880E396F266E7AD841797792619AD3F1C27A5AE" }, crossDomain: true, contentType: 'application/json' });

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  • Implicit conversion between Scala collection types

    - by ebruchez
    I would like to implicitly convert between the Scala XML Elem object and another representation of an XML element, in my case dom4j Element. I wrote the following implicit conversions: implicit def elemToElement(e: Elem): Element = ... do conversion here ... implicit def elementToElem(e: Element): Elem = ... do conversion here ... So far so good, this works. Now I also need collections of said elements to convert both ways. First, do I absolutely need to write additional conversion methods? Things didn't seem to work if I didn't. I tried to write the following: implicit def elemTToElementT(t: Traversable[Elem]) = t map (elemToElement(_)) implicit def elementTToElemT(t: Traversable[Element]) = t map (elementToElem(_)) This doesn't look too ideal because if the conversion method takes a Traversable, then it also returns a Traversable. If I pass a List, I also get a Traversable out. So I assume the conversion should be parametrized somehow. So what's the standard way of writing these conversions in order to be as generic as possible?

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  • How might a C# programmer approach writing a solution in javascript?

    - by Ben McCormack
    UPDATE: Perhaps this wasn't clear from my original post, but I'm mainly interested in knowing a best practice for how to structure javascript code while building a solution, not simply learning how to use APIs (though that is certainly important). I need to add functionality to a web site and our team has decided to approach the solution using a web service that receives a call from a JSON-formatted AJAX request from within the web site. The web service has been created and works great. Now I have been tasked with writing the javascript/html side of the solution. If I were solving this problem in C#, I would create separate classes for formatting the request, handling the AJAX request/response, parsing the response, and finally inserting the response somehow into the DOM. I would build properties and methods appropriately into each class, doing my best to separate functionality and structure where appropriate. However, I have to solve this problem in javascript. Firstly, how could I approach my solution in javascript in the way I would approach it from C# as described above? Or more importantly, what's a better way to approach structuring code in javascript? Any advice or links to helpful material on the web would be greatly appreciated. NOTE: Though perhaps not immediately relevant to this question, it may be worth noting that we will be using jQuery in our solution.

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  • Problem with ModelAndView and ModelMap in AnnotationController, Springframework

    - by saltfactory
    I have a question that is a point difference between ModelAndView and ModelMap. I want to maintain modelAndView when requestMethod is "GET" and requestMethod is "POST". My modelAndView saved others. So I made modelAndView return type to "GET", "POST" methods. But, Request lost commandObject, form:errors..., if request return showForm on "POST" because request validation failed. example) private ModelAndView modelAndView; public ControllerTest{ this.modelAndView = new ModelAndView(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView showForm(ModelMap model) { EntityObject entityObject = new EntityObject(); CommandObject commandObject = new CommandObject(); commandObject.setEntityObject(entityObject); model.addAttribute("commandObject", commandObject); this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "GET"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public ModelAndView submit(@ModelAttribute("commandObject") CommandObject commandObject, BindingResult result, SessionStatus status) { this.commandValidator.validate(commandObject, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } else { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "after POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("success"); } status.setComplete(); return this.modelAndView; }

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  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

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  • Contrary to Python 3.1 Docs, hash(obj) != id(obj). So which is correct?

    - by Don O'Donnell
    The following is from the Python v3.1.2 documentation: From The Python Language Reference Section 3.3.1 Basic Customization: object.__hash__(self) ... User-defined classes have __eq__() and __hash__() methods by default; with them, all objects compare unequal (except with themselves) and x.__hash__() returns id(x). From The Glossary: hashable ... Objects which are instances of user-defined classes are hashable by default; they all compare unequal, and their hash value is their id(). This is true up through version 2.6.5: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79096, Mar 19 2010 21:48:26) ... ... >>> class C(object): pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11335856 >>> hash(c) 11335856 But in version 3.1.2: Python 3.1.2 (r312:79149, Mar 21 2010, 00:41:52) ... ... >>> class C: pass ... >>> c = C() >>> id(c) 11893680 >>> hash(c) 743355 So which is it? Should I report a documentation bug or a program bug? And if it's a documentation bug, and the default hash() value for a user class instance is no longer the same as the id() value, then it would be interesting to know what it is or how it is calculated, and why it was changed in version 3.

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