Search Results

Search found 52968 results on 2119 pages for 'lucene net'.

Page 616/2119 | < Previous Page | 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623  | Next Page >

  • Caching and accessing configuration data in ASP.NET MVC app.

    - by Sosh
    I'm about to take a look at how to implement internationalisation for an ASP.NET MVC project. I'm looking at how to allow the user to change languages. My initial though is a dropdownlist containing each of the supported langauages. Whoever a few questions have come to mind: How to store the list of supported languages? (e.g. just "en", "English"; "fr", "French" etc.) An xml file? .config files? If I store this in a file I'll have to cache this (at startup I guess). So, what would be best, load the xml data into a list (somehow) and store this list in the System.Web.Cache? Application State? How then to load this data into the view (for display in a dropdown)? Give the view direct access to the cache? Just want to make sure I'm going in the right direction here... Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Triple Quotes? How do I delimit a databound Javascript string parameter in ASP.NET?

    - by David HAust
    How do I delimit a Javascript databound string parameter in an anchor OnClick event? I have an anchor tag in an ASP.NET Repeater control. The OnClick event of the anchor contains a call to a Javascript function. The Javascript funciton takes a string for it's input parameter. The string parameter is populated with a databound value from the Repeater. I need the 'double quotes' for the Container.DataItem. I need the 'single quotes' for the OnClick. And I still need one more delimiter (triple quotes?) for the input string parameter of the Javascript function call. Since I can't use 'single quotes' again, how do I ensure the Javascript function knows the input parameter is a string and not an integer? Without the extra quotes around the input string parameter, the Javascript function thinks I'm passing in an integer. Cheers in advance for any knowledge you can drop. The anchor: <a id="aShowHide" onclick='ToggleDisplay(<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "JobCode") %>);' >Show/Hide</a> and here is the Javascript: <script language="JavaScript" type="text/javascript">/* Shows/Hides the Jobs Div */ function ToggleDisplay(jobCode) { /* Each div has it's ID set dynamically ('d' plus the JobCode) */ var elem = document.getElementById('d' + jobCode); if (elem) { if (elem.style.display != 'block') { elem.style.display = 'block'; elem.style.visibility = 'visible'; } else { elem.style.display = 'none'; elem.style.visibility = 'hidden'; } } }</script>

    Read the article

  • Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

    Read the article

  • Pros/cons of reading connection string from physical file vs Application object (ASP.NET)?

    - by HaterTot
    my ASP.NET application reads an xml file to determine which environment it's currently in (e.g. local, development, production). It checks this file every single time it opens a connection to the database, in order to know which connection string to grab from the Application Settings. I'm entering a phase of development where efficiency is becoming a concern. I don't think it's a good idea to have to read a file on a physical disk ever single time I wish to access the database (very often). I was considering storing the connection string in Application["ConnectionString"]. So the code would be public static string GetConnectionString { if (Application["ConnectionString"] == null) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(HttpContext.Current.Request.PhysicalApplicationPath + "bin/ServerEnvironment.xml"); XmlElement xe = (XmlElement) xnl[0]; switch (xe.InnerText.ToString().ToLower()) { case "local": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringLocal; break; case "development": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringDevelopment; break; case "production": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringProduction; break; default: throw new Exception("no connection string defined"); } Application["ConnectionString"] = connString; } return Application["ConnectionString"].ToString(); } I didn't design the application so I figure there must have been a reason for reading the xml file every time (to change settings while the application runs?) I have very little concept of the inner workings here. What are the pros and cons? Do you think I'd see a small performance gain by implementing the function above? THANKS

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Memory Usage in IIS is FAR greater than in DevEnv. Is this normal?

    - by Tom
    Greetings! I have an ASP.NET app that scrapes data from a handful of external pages, parses the relevant bits and displays them in a table. Total data retrieved is 3-4MB and the resulting page is about 1MB. I am using synchronous WebRequest GetResponse for the retrieval, but the same problem existed using an asynchronous BeginGetResponse/EndGetResponse process. There is no database access, no session storage, no caching, but an in-memory list of about 100 objects (total 1MB of data), plus a good amount of AJAX (AjaxControlToolkit). This issue appears on the very first run of the app, even if I have restarted IIS. The issue: When I run the app on my dev computer, the maximum commit charge is about 1.5GB. The biggest user, measured by Task Manager's VM Size, is WebDev.WebServer.exe (600MB). The app runs perfectly. When I run it on my rent-a-server (IIS 7.5, 1GB RAM), the maximum commit charge is over 3.8GB. The biggest user is w3wp.exe at 2.7GB. IIS grinds to a halt and spits out a timed-out error page. Given my limited server budget and the hope of having multiple simultaneous users, I'm kind of in a panic. Is this normal? If I bump the server RAM up to 4GB, will that be enough? Will multiple users require even more memory? Could the culprit be AJAX or the list of objects? Thanks for any insight you can provide.

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc: What is the correct way to return html from controller to refresh select list?

    - by Mark Redman
    Hi, I am new to ASP.NET MVC, particularly ajax operations. I have a form with a jquery dialog for adding items to a drop-down list. This posts to the controller action. If nothing (ie void method) is returned from the Controller Action the page returns having updated the database, but obviously there no chnage to the form. What would be the best practice in updating the drop down list with the added id/value and selecting the item. I think my options are: 1) Construct and return the html manually that makes up the new <select> tag [this would be easy enough and work, but seems like I am missing something] 2) Use some kind of "helper" to construct the new html [This seems to make sense] 3) Only return the id/value and add this to the list and select the item [This seems like an overkill considering the item needs to be placed in the correct order etc] 4) Use some kind of Partial View [Does this mean creating additional forms within ascx controls? not sure how this would effect submitting the main form its on? Also unless this is reusable by passing in parameters(not sure how thats done) maybe 2 is the option?] UPDATE: Having looked around a bit, it seems that generating html withing the controller is not a good idea. I have seen other posts that render partialviews to strings which I guess is what I need and separates concerns (since the html bits are in the ascx). Any comments on whether that is good practice.

    Read the article

  • How do I get ASP.NET login status controls to display a Log In option?

    - by Greg McNulty
    I have the following log in status controls on the top of my master page. It displays the logged in as, manager log in, and Log out options. However, when a user is not logged in, there is nothing displayed there. When the user is NOT logged in, is there a way to display a "Login" text link that takes you to the log in page and then "disappears" once the user is logged in? Any help is appreciated. Thanks! <asp:LoginName ID="LoginName1" runat="server" FormatString="Logged in as {0}" ForeColor="Aqua" /> <asp:LoginView ID="LoginView1" runat="server"> <RoleGroups> <asp:RoleGroup Roles="Managers"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:HyperLink ID="HyperLink1" runat="server" NavigateUrl="~/Management/management.aspx">Manage Site</asp:HyperLink> or <asp:LoginStatus id="LoginStatus1" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:RoleGroup> </RoleGroups> <LoggedInTemplate> (<asp:LoginStatus id="LoginStatus1" runat="server" />) </LoggedInTemplate> </asp:LoginView> ASP.NET 3.5 VWD 2008 C#

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET auto-generate aspx.designer.cs turn off?

    - by Joris
    Hey all, As I'm working on a asp.net/c# project, I'm confronted with the foobar.aspx.designer.cs that auto generates it's content. eg, when I'm changing the code/designer, the designer.cs automatically updates it's content. As I'm bit of a control-dude, I'd like to maintain the code myself. I'm not happy with the overkill of comments I don't need. Like: /// <summary> /// Form1 control. /// </summary> /// <remarks> /// Auto-generated field. /// To modify move field declaration from designer file to code-behind file. /// </remarks> protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; While I'd like to see the following: protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; protected global::System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button Button3; etc, etc (don't mind the naming, ofcourse I'd give it some distinguishing nameing) How to fix this? I checked google on this one, but couldn't find an answer so quickly...

    Read the article

  • What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

    - by melaos
    hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

    Read the article

  • How to take advantage of an auto-property when refactoring this .Net 1.1 sample?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I see a lot of legacy .Net 1.1-style code at work like in example below, which I would like to shrink with the help of an auto-property. This will help many classes shrink by 30-40%, which I think would be good. public int MyIntThingy { get { return _myIntThingy; } set { _myIntThingy = value; } } private int _myIntThingy = -1; This would become: public int MyIntThingy { get; set; } And the only question is - where do I set MyIntThingy = -1;? If I wrote the class from the start, then I would have a better idea, but I did not. An obvious answer would be: put it in the constructor. Trouble is: there are many constructors in this class. Watching the initialization to -1 in the debugger, I see it happen (I believe) before the constructor gets called. It is almost as if I need to use a static constructor as described here: http://www.c-sharpcorner.com/uploadfile/cupadhyay/staticconstructors11092005061428am/staticconstructors.aspx except that my variables are not static. Java's static initializer comes to mind, but again - my variables are not static. http://www.glenmccl.com/tip_003.htm I want to make stylistic but not functional changes to this class. As crappy as it is, it has been tested and working for a few years now. breaking the functionality would be bad. So ... I am looking for shorter, sweeter, cuter, and yet EQUIVALENT code. Let me know if you have questions.

    Read the article

  • Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible ?

    - by fyasar
    Hi All I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

    Read the article

  • spring.net proxy factory with target type needs property virtual ?

    - by Vince
    Hi all, I'm creating spring.net proxy in code by using ProxyFactory object with ProxyTargetType to true to have a proxy on a non interfaced complex object. Proxying seems ok till i call a method on that object. The method references a public property and if this property is not virtual it's value is null. This doesn't happen if i use Spring.Aop.Framework.AutoProxy.InheritanceBasedAopConfigurer in spring config file but in this case i can't use this because spring context doesn't own this object. Is this normal to have such behavior or is there a tweak to perform what i want (proxying object virtual method without having to change properties virtual)? Note that i tried factory.AutoDetectInterfaces and factory.ProxyTargetAttributes values but doesn't help. My proxy creation code: public static T CreateMethodCallStatProxy<T>() { // Proxy factory ProxyFactory factory = new ProxyFactory(); factory.AddAdvice(new CallMonitorTrackerAdvice()); factory.ProxyTargetType = true; // Create instance factory.Target = Activator.CreateInstance<T>(); // Get proxy T proxiedClass = (T)factory.GetProxy(); return proxiedClass; } Thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • How to handle update events on a ASP.NET GridView?

    - by Bogdan M
    Hello, This may sound silly, but I need to find out how to handle an Update event from a GridView. First of all, I have a DataSet, where there is a typed DataTable with a typed TableAdapter, based on a "select all query", with auto-generated Insert, Update, and Delete methods. Then, in my aspx page, I have an ObjectDataSource related to my typed TableAdapter on Select, Insert, Update and Delete methods. Finnally, I have a GridView bound to this ObjectDataSource, with default Edit, Update and Cancel links. How should I implement the edit functionality? Should I have something like this? protected void GridView_RowEditing(object sender, GridViewEditEventArgs e) { using(MyTableAdapter ta = new MyTableAdapter()) { ta.Update(...); TypedDataTable dt = ta.GetRecords(); this.GridView.DataSource = dt; this.GridView.DataBind(); } } In this scenario, I have the feeling that I update some changes to the DB, then I retrive and bind all the data, and not only the modified parts. Is there any way to update only the DataSet, and this to update on his turn the DataBase and the GridView? I do not want to retrive all the data after a CRUD operations is performed, I just want to retrive the changes made. Thanks. PS: I'm using .NET 3.5 and VS 2008 with SP1.

    Read the article

  • Please take a stab at this VB.Net Oracle-related sample and help me with String.Format.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    If the database is not Oracle, it is MS SQl 2008. My task: if Oracle, add two more parameters when calling a stored proc. Oracle and MSFT stored procs are generated; Oracle ones have 3 extra parameters: Vret_val out number, Vparam2 in out number, Vparam3 in out number, ... the rest (The are not actually named Vparam2 and Vparam3, but this should not matter). So, the code for a helper VB.Net class that calls a stored proc: Imports System.Data.Odbc Imports System.Configuration Dim objCon As OdbcConnection = Nothing Dim objAdapter As OdbcDataAdapter Dim cmdCommand As New OdbcCommand Dim objDataTable As DataTable Dim sconnection As String Try sconnection = mConnectionString objAdapter = New OdbcDataAdapter objCon = New OdbcConnection(sconnection) objCon.Open() objAdapter.SelectCommand = cmdCommand objAdapter.SelectCommand.Connection = objCon objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandTimeout = Globals.mReportTimeOut If Not mIsOracle Then objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}}}", spName) Else Dim returnValue As New OdbcParameter returnValue.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output returnValue.ParameterName = "@Vret_val" returnValue.OdbcType = OdbcType.Numeric objAdapter.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(returnValue) objAdapter.SelectCommand.CommandText = String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) End If Try objDataTable = New DataTable(spName) objAdapter.Fill(objDataTable) Catch ex As Exception ... Question: I am puzzled as to what String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) does, in particular the (?) part. My understanding of the String.Format is that it will simply replace {0} with spName. The {{, }}, and (?) do throw me off because { reminds me of formatting, (?) hints at some advanced regex use. Unfortunately I am getting little help from a key person who is on vacation without a leash [smart]phone. I am guessing that I simply add 5 more lines for each additional parameter, and change String.Format("{{call {0}(?)}}", spName) to String.Format("{{call {0}(?,?,?)}}", spName). I forgot to mention that I am coding this "blindly" - I have a compiler to help me, but no environment set up to test this. This will be over in a few days, but I need to do my best to try finishing it on time :) Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Newbie: why isn't my model available when creating a strongly-typed view?

    - by Rax Olgud
    I'm starting with ASP.NET MVC, and working with NerdDinner as reference. I did the following: Created a new project Added a couple of tables Created LINQ to SQL for them Created a new controller My Models directory now contains MyModel.dbml, under which I have MyModel.designer.cs, that contains classes for models relating to both of my tables (let's call them Categories and Products). Now, under my new controller, I would like to create a strongly typed view. So for example I have the following code in my controller (for my application I must work by name, and the "Name" field is unique): public ActionResult Details(string name) { MyModelDataContext db = new MyModelDataContext(); Product user = db.Products.Single(t => t.Name == name); return View(user); } I would like to create a strongly-typed view. So I right-click the line "return View(user)", and choose "Add View...". I click "Create a strongly-typed view". When I click the dropdown of "View data class", I don't see my models, but only: MyProject.Controllers.AccountMembershipService MyProject.Controllers.FormsAuthenticationService What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • How can I properly handle 404s in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Brian
    I am just getting started on ASP.NET MVC so bear with me. I've searched around this site and various others and have seen a few implementations of this. EDIT: I forgot to mention I am using RC2 Using URL Routing: routes.MapRoute( "Error", "{*url}", new { controller = "Errors", action = "NotFound" } //404s ); The above seems to take care of requests like this (assuming default route tables setup by initial MVC project): "/blah/blah/blah/blah" Overriding HandleUnknownAction() in the controller itself: //404s - handle here (bad action requested protected override void HandleUnknownAction(string actionName) { ViewData["actionName"] = actionName; View("NotFound").ExecuteResult(this.ControllerContext); } However the previous strategies do not handle a request to a Bad/Unknown controller. For example, I do not have a "/IDoNotExist", if I request this I get the generic 404 page from the web server and not my 404 if I use routing + override. So finally, my question is: Is there any way to catch this type of request using a route or something else in the MVC framework itself? OR should I just default to using Web.Config customErrors as my 404 handler and forget all this? I assume if I go with customErrors I'll have to store the generic 404 page outside of /Views due to the Web.Config restrictions on direct access. Anyway any best practices or guidance is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • what are all the Optimize tricks that you know for asp.net code ?

    - by Aristos
    After some time of many code programming on asp.net, I discover the very big speed different between string and StringBuilder. I know that is very common and known but I just mention it for start. The second think that I have found to speed up the code, is to use the const, and not the static, for declare my configuration constants value (especial the strings). With the const, the compiler not create new object, but just place the value, on the point that you have ask it, but with the static declaration, is create a new memory object and keep its on the memory. My third trick, is when I search for string, I use hash values, and not the string itself. For example, if I need a List<string SomeValues, and place inside strings that I need to search them, I prefer to use List<int SomeHashValue, and I use the hash value to locate the strings. My forth thought that I was wandering, is if is better to place big strings in one line, or separate them in different lines with the + symbol to be more easy to read out. I make some tests and see that the compiler make a good job is some split the string, in many lines, using the + symbol. What other tricks/tips do you know and use on your programming to make it run faster, and maybe use less memory. Well I know, that some times, to make something run faster, you need more memory, more cache. My priority is on speed. Because Speed Counts.

    Read the article

  • Intermittent asp.net mvc exception: “A public action method ABC could not be found on controller XYZ

    - by Chris Schoon
    Hi, I'm getting an intermittent exception saying that asp.net mvc can’t find the action method. Here’s the exception: A public action method 'Fill' could not be found on controller 'Schoon.Form.Web.Controllers.ChrisController'. I think I have the routing set up correctly because this application works most of the time. Here is the controller’s action method. [ActionName("Fill")] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get | HttpVerbs.Post), UserIdFilter, DTOFilter] public ActionResult Fill(int userId, int subscriberId, DisplayMode? mode) { //… } The route: routes.MapRoute( "SchoonForm", "Form/Fill/{subscriberId}", new { controller = "ChrisController", action = "Fill" }, new { subscriberId = @"\d+" } ); And here is the stack: System.Web.HttpException: A public action method 'Fill' could not be found on controller 'Schoon.Form.Web.Controllers.ChrisController'. at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.HandleUnknownAction(String actionName) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\Controller.cs:line 197 at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.ExecuteCore() in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\Controller.cs:line 164 at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\ControllerBase.cs:line 76 at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerBase.System.Web.Mvc.IController.Execute(RequestContext requestContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\ControllerBase.cs:line 87 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 80 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 68 at System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext) in C:\dev\ThirdParty\MvcDev\src\SystemWebMvc\Mvc\MvcHandler.cs:line 104 at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) Here is an example of my filters they all work the same way: public class UserIdFilter : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string Key = "userId"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(Key)) { filterContext.ActionParameters[Key] = // get the user id from session or cookie } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } Thanks, Chris

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to set two C#.Net projects to trust one another?

    - by Eric
    I have two C#.NET projects in a single solution ModelProject and PluginProject. PlugInProject is a plug-in for another application, and consequently references its API. PlugInProject is used to extract data from the application it plugs into. ModelProject contains the data model of classes that are extracted by PlugInProject. The extracted data can be used independent of the application or the plug-in, which is why I am keeping PlugInProject separate from ModelProject. I want ModelProject to remain independent of PlugInProject, and the Applications API. Or in other words I want someone to be able to access the extracted data without needing access to PlugInProject, the application, or the application's API. The problem I'm running into though is PlugInProject needs to be able to create and modify classes in ModelProject. However, I'd prefer to not make these actions public to anyone using ModelProject. The extracted data should effectively be read-only, unless later modified by PlugInProject. How can I keep these projects separate but give PlugInProject exclusive access to ModelProject? Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET/C#: How to use a Subclassed Control on a Page?

    - by Bob Kaufman
    I've subclassed DropDownList to add functionality specific to my application: public class MyDropDownList : DropDownList { ... } ... then referenced it in Web.Config, which is where I figure things start to go wrong: <pages theme="Main"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="bob" tagName="MyDropDownList" src="~/Components/MyDropDownList.cs" /> </controls> </pages> my reference to it does not work: <tr><td>Category</td> <td><bob:MyDropDownList runat="server" ID="Category"... /> and my best clue is the complier error message: "The file 'src' is not a valid [sic] here because it doesn't expose a type." I figure I'm misapplying knowledge of how to create a Web User Control here. What I want to be able to do is refer to this control on an ASP.NET page just like I would the parent DropDownList. Refactoring back into a Web User Control that contains a DropDownList is not desirable, because I want to apply a RequiredFieldValidator to it.

    Read the article

  • In .NET, how do I prevent, or handle, tampering with form data of disabled fields before submission?

    - by David
    Hi, If a disabled drop-down list is dynamically rendered to the page, it is still possible to use Firebug, or another tool, to tamper with the submitted value, and to remove the "disabled" HTML attribute. This code: protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { var ddlTest = new DropDownList() {ID="ddlTest", Enabled = false}; ddlTest.Items.AddRange(new [] { new ListItem("Please select", ""), new ListItem("test 1", "1"), new ListItem("test 2", "2") }); Controls.Add(ddlTest); } results in this HTML being rendered: <select disabled="disabled" id="Properties_ddlTest" name="Properties$ddlTest"> <option value="" selected="selected">Please select</option> <option value="1">test 1</option> <option value="2">test 2</option> </select> The problem occurs when I use Firebug to remove the "disabled" attribute, and to change the selected option. On submission of the form, and re-creation of the field, the newly generated control has the correct value by the end of OnLoad, but by OnPreRender, it has assumed the identity of the submitted control and has been given the submitted form value. .NET seems to have no way of detecting the fact that the field was originally created in a disabled state and that the submitted value was faked. This is understandable, as there could be legitimate, client-side functionality that would allow the disabled attribute to be removed. Is there some way, other than a brute force approach, of detecting that this field's value should not have been changed? I see the brute force approach as being something crap, like saving the correct value somewhere while still in OnLoad, and restoring the value in the OnPreRender. As some fields have dependencies on others, that would be unacceptable to me.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to restrict instantiation of an object to only one other (parent) object in VB.NET?

    - by Casey
    VB 2008 .NET 3.5 Suppose we have two classes, Order and OrderItem, that represent some type of online ordering system. OrderItem represents a single line item in an Order. One Order can contain multiple OrderItems, in the form of a List(of OrderItem). Public Class Order Public Property MyOrderItems() as List(of OrderItem) End Property End Class It makes sense that an OrderItem should not exist without an Order. In other words, an OrderItem class should not be able to be instantiated on its own, it should be dependent on an Order class to contain it and instantiate it. However, the OrderItem should be public in scope so that it's properties are accessible to other objects. So, the requirements for OrderItem are: Can not be instantiated as a stand alone object; requires Order to exist. Must be public so that any other object can access it's properties/methods through the Order object. e.g. Order.OrderItem(0).ProductID. OrderItem should be able to be passed to other subs/functions that will operate on it. How can I achieve these goals? Is there a better approach?

    Read the article

  • How do I get jQuery's Uploadify plugin to work with ASP.NET MVC?

    - by KingNestor
    I'm in the process of trying to get the jQuery plugin, Uploadify, to work with ASP.NET MVC. I've got the plugin showing up fine: With the following javascript snippet: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileUpload').fileUpload({ 'uploader': '/Content/Flash/uploader.swf', 'script': '/Placement/Upload', 'folder': '/uploads', 'multi': 'true', 'buttonText': 'Browse', 'displayData': 'speed', 'simUploadLimit': 2, 'cancelImg': '/Content/Images/cancel.png' }); }); </script> Which seems like all is well in good. If you notice, the "script" attribute is set to my /Placement/Upload, which is my Placement Controller and my Upload Action. The main problem is, I'm having difficulty getting this action to fire to receive the file. I've set a breakpoint on that action and when I select a file to upload, it isn't getting executed. I've tried changing the method signature based off this article: public string Upload(HttpPostedFileBase FileData) { /* * * Do something with the FileData * */ return "Upload OK!"; } But this still doesn't fire. Can anyone help me write and get the Upload controller action's signature correctly so it will actually fire? I can then handle dealing with the file data myself. I just need some help getting the method action to fire.

    Read the article

  • Removing HttpModule for specific path in ASP.NET / IIS 7 application?

    - by soccerdad
    Most succinctly, my question is whether an ASP.NET 4.0 app running under IIS 7 integrated mode should be able to honor this portion of my Web.config file: <location path="auth/windows"> <system.webServer> <modules> <remove name="FormsAuthentication"/> </modules> </system.webServer> </location> I'm experimenting with mixed mode authentication (Windows and Forms - I know there are other questions on S.O. about the topic). Using IIS Manager, I've disabled Anonymous authentication to auth/windows/winauth.aspx, which is within the location path above. I have Failed Request Tracing set up to trace various HTTP status codes, including 302s. When I request the winauth.aspx page, a 302 HTTP status code is returned. If I look at the request trace, I can see that a 401 (unauthorized) was originally generated by the AnonymousAuthenticationModule. However, the FormsAuthenticationModule converts that to a 302, which is what the browser sees. So it seems as though my attempt to remove that module from the pipeline for pages in that path isn't working. But I'm not seeing any complaints anywhere (event viewer, yellow pages of death, etc.) that would indicate it's an invalid configuration. I want the 401 returned to the browser, which presumably would include an appropriate WWW-Authenticate header. A couple of other points: a) I do have <authentication mode="Forms"> in my Web.config, and that is what the 302 redirects to; b) I got the "name" of the module I'm trying to remove from the inetserv\config\applicationHost.config file. Anyone had any luck removing modules in this fashion? Thanks much, Donnie

    Read the article

  • What function does .NET NPV() use? Doesn't match manual calculations

    - by Matthew PK
    I am using the NPV() function in VB.NET to get NPV for a set of cash flows. However, the result of NPV() is not consistent with my results performing the calculation manually (nor the Investopedia NPV calc... which matches my manual results) My correct manual results and the NPV() results are close, within 5%.. but not the same... Manually, using the NPV formula: NPV = C0 + C1/(1+r)^1 + C2/(1+r)^2 + C3/(1+r)^3 + .... + Cn/(1+r)^n The manual result is stored in RunningTotal With rate r = 0.04 and period n = 10 Here is my relevant code: EDIT: Do I have OBOB somewhere? YearCashOutFlow = CDbl(TxtAnnualCashOut.Text) YearCashInFlow = CDbl(TxtTotalCostSave.Text) YearCount = 1 PAmount = -1 * (CDbl(TxtPartsCost.Text) + CDbl(TxtInstallCost.Text)) RunningTotal = PAmount YearNPValue = PAmount AnnualRateIncrease = CDbl(TxtUtilRateInc.Text) While AnnualRateIncrease > 1 AnnualRateIncrease = AnnualRateIncrease / 100 End While AnnualRateIncrease = 1 + AnnualRateIncrease ' ZERO YEAR ENTRIES ListBoxNPV.Items.Add(Format(PAmount, "currency")) ListBoxCostSave.Items.Add("$0.00") ListBoxIRR.Items.Add("-100") ListBoxNPVCum.Items.Add(Format(PAmount, "currency")) CashFlows(0) = PAmount '''' Do While YearCount <= CInt(TxtLifeOfProject.Text) ReDim Preserve CashFlows(YearCount) CashFlows(YearCount) = Math.Round(YearCashInFlow - YearCashOutFlow, 2) If CashFlows(YearCount) > 0 Then OnePos = True YearNPValue = CashFlows(YearCount) / (1 + DiscountRate) ^ YearCount RunningTotal = RunningTotal + YearNPValue ListBoxNPVCum.Items.Add(Format(Math.Round(RunningTotal, 2), "currency")) ListBoxCostSave.Items.Add(Format(YearCashInFlow, "currency")) If OnePos Then ListBoxIRR.Items.Add((IRR(CashFlows, 0.1)).ToString) ListBoxNPV.Items.Add(Format(NPV(DiscountRate, CashFlows), "currency")) Else ListBoxIRR.Items.Add("-100") ListBoxNPV.Items.Add(Format(RunningTotal, "currency")) End If YearCount = YearCount + 1 YearCashInFlow = AnnualRateIncrease * YearCashInFlow Loop

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 612 613 614 615 616 617 618 619 620 621 622 623  | Next Page >