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  • ASP.NET MVC static-asset aides/practices

    - by shannon
    I want to keep assets that are only used by one view in a view-specific folder, so my Search.aspx properly finds images/*.jpg, and helps me maintain my convention: ~/Areas/Candidate/Views/Job/Search.aspx -> ~/Assets/Candidate/Job/Search/images/*.jpg Perhaps with the ability to easily reference controller- or area-common assets manually or automatically: ~/Assets/Candidate/Job/images/*.jpg ~/Assets/Candidate/images/*.jpg If you wonder why I'm doing this, then speak up; I'm probably missing something. But here's why: I don't want stale static assets sitting in my ASP.NET MVC projects, which I expect to be an automatic outcome of the ~/Assets/Images folder: i.e. As a shared asset loses its last reference-count, who knows to delete it, especially with it being so difficult to trace content link validity in MVC projects? How do you, personally, do this? I can imagine, for example: Implement HtmlHelper extension methods for URL-generation. Extending ViewPage and ViewMasterPage with URL-generation methods. Implementing an inbound request filter to search related folders for static assets. and, are there good libraries out there for this? For example, something that also automatically appends timestamps for .JS and .CSS files, writes the / tags for me, and maybe even that allows me to inject includes in the head section from outside head code?

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  • Python many-to-one mapping (creating equivalence classes)

    - by Adam Matan
    Hi, I have a project of converting one database to another. One of the original database columns defines the row's category. This coulmn should be mapepd to a new category in the new databse. For example, let's assume the original categories are:parrot, spam, cheese_shop, Cleese, Gilliam, Palin Now that's a little verbose for me, And I want to have these rows categorized as sketch, actor - That is, define all the sketches and all the actors as two equivalence classes. >>> monty={'parrot':'sketch', 'spam':'sketch', 'cheese_shop':'sketch', 'Cleese':'actor', 'Gilliam':'actor', 'Palin':'actor'} >>> monty {'Gilliam': 'actor', 'Cleese': 'actor', 'parrot': 'sketch', 'spam': 'sketch', 'Palin': 'actor', 'cheese_shop': 'sketch'} That's quite awkward- I would prefer having something like: monty={ ('parrot','spam','cheese_shop'): 'sketch', ('Cleese', 'Gilliam', 'Palin') : 'actors'} But this, of course, sets the entire tuple as a key: >>> monty['parrot'] Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#29>", line 1, in <module> monty['parrot'] KeyError: 'parrot' Any ideas how to create an elegant many-to-one dictionary in Python? Thanks, Adam

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  • Index out of bounds exception while iterating through a List<string>.

    - by Sergio Tapia
    I have a List of the location of images on a folder. I have five pictureBoxes that emulate a coverflow type area for users to skim through the images of a given folder. I know that the error is fired because the first image in the collection is set to the first picturebox, then if I click on cycleLeft(), there is a negative number. How can I account for this? For example, if the first image in the List is already set to the farthest left and someone clicks flip left, have that first image put on the last position of the list. Any guidance? private void leftArrow_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cycleImagesLeft(); } private void rightArrow_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cycleImagesRight(); } public void cycleImagesLeft() { //imageThree is the center image, that's why I use it as a frame of reference. int currentImage = pictures.IndexOf(imageThree.ImageLocation); imageOne.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 3]; imageTwo.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 2]; imageThree.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 1]; imageFour.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage]; imageFive.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 1]; } public void cycleImagesRight() { int currentImage = pictures.IndexOf(imageThree.ImageLocation); imageOne.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 1]; imageTwo.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage]; imageThree.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 1]; imageFour.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 2]; imageFive.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 3]; }

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  • Final classes in Python 3.x- something Guido isn't telling me?

    - by GlenCrawford
    This question is built on top of many assumptions. If one assumption is wrong, then the whole thing falls over. I'm still relatively new to Python and have just entered the curious/exploratory phase. It is my understanding that Python does not support the creating of classes that cannot be subclassed (final classes). However, it seems to me that the bool class in Python cannot be subclassed. This makes sense when the intent of the bool class is considered (because bool is only supposed to have two values: true and false), and I'm happy with that. What I want to know is how this class was marked as final. So my question is: how exactly did Guido manage to prevent subclassing of bool? >>> class TestClass(bool): pass Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#2>", line 1, in <module> class TestClass(bool): TypeError: type 'bool' is not an acceptable base type Related question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2172189/why-i-cant-extend-bool-in-python

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  • Quitting an application - is that frowned upon?

    - by Ted
    Moving on in my attempt to learn Android I just read the following: Question: Does the user have a choice to kill the application unless we put a menu option in to kill it? If no such option exists, how does the user terminate the application? Answert (Romain Guy): The user doesn't, the system handles this automatically. That's what the activity lifecycle (especially onPause/onStop/onDestroy) is for. No matter what you do, do not put a "quit" or "exit" application button. It is useless with Android's application model. This is also contrary to how core applications work. Hehe, for every step I take in the Android world I run into some sort of problem =( Apparently, you cannot quit an application in Android (but Android can very well totally destroy your app whenever it feels like it). Whats up with that? I am starting to think that its impossible to write an app that functions as a "normal app" - that the user can quit the app when he/she decides to do so. That is not something that should be relied upon the OS to do. The application I am trying to create is not an application for the Android Market. It is not an application for "wide use" by the general public, it is a business app that is going to be used in a very narrow business field. I was actually really looking forward to developing for the Android-platform, since it addresses a lot of issues that exist in Windows Mobile and .NET. However, the last week has been somewhat of a turnoff for me... I hope I dont have to abandon Android, but it doesnt look very good right now =( Is there a way for me to really quit the application?

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  • Windows Server 2008 R2 network adapter stops working, requires hard reboot

    - by Geoff Dalgas
    TL;DR version: Turns out this was a Windows Server 2008 R2 kernel networking bug. After siccing Microsoft support on it, we (eventually) got an unpublished kernel hotfix from Microsoft to address it. If you, too, are experiencing mysterious low-level network driver failures requiring a reboot/bluescreen cycle, you might want that hotfix (or maybe Service Pack 1 whenever it is released, too.) We have been using HAProxy along with heartbeat from the Linux-HA project. We are using two linux instances to provide a failover. Each server has with their own public IP and a single IP which is shared between the two using a virtual interface (eth1:1) at IP: 69.59.196.211 The virtual interface (eth1:1) IP 69.59.196.211 is configured as the gateway for the windows servers behind them and we use ip_forwarding to route traffic. We are experiencing an occasional network outage on one of our windows servers behind our linux gateways. HAProxy will detect the server is offline which we can verify by remoting to the failed server and attempting to ping the gateway: Pinging 69.59.196.211 with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 69.59.196.220: Destination host unreachable. Running arp -a on this failed server shows that there is no entry for the gateway address (69.59.196.211): Interface: 69.59.196.220 --- 0xa Internet Address Physical Address Type 69.59.196.161 00-26-88-63-c7-80 dynamic 69.59.196.210 00-15-5d-0a-3e-0e dynamic 69.59.196.212 00-21-5e-4d-45-c9 dynamic 69.59.196.213 00-15-5d-00-b2-0d dynamic 69.59.196.215 00-21-5e-4d-61-1a dynamic 69.59.196.217 00-21-5e-4d-2c-e8 dynamic 69.59.196.219 00-21-5e-4d-38-e5 dynamic 69.59.196.221 00-15-5d-00-b2-0d dynamic 69.59.196.222 00-15-5d-0a-3e-09 dynamic 69.59.196.223 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff static 224.0.0.22 01-00-5e-00-00-16 static 224.0.0.252 01-00-5e-00-00-fc static 225.0.0.1 01-00-5e-00-00-01 static On our linux gateway instances arp -a shows: peak-colo-196-220.peak.org (69.59.196.220) at <incomplete> on eth1 stackoverflow.com (69.59.196.212) at 00:21:5e:4d:45:c9 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-215.peak.org (69.59.196.215) at 00:21:5e:4d:61:1a [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-219.peak.org (69.59.196.219) at 00:21:5e:4d:38:e5 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-222.peak.org (69.59.196.222) at 00:15:5d:0a:3e:09 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-209.peak.org (69.59.196.209) at 00:26:88:63:c7:80 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-217.peak.org (69.59.196.217) at 00:21:5e:4d:2c:e8 [ether] on eth1 Why would arp occasionally set the entry for this failed server as <incomplete>? Should we be defining our arp entries statically? I've always left arp alone since it works 99% of the time, but in this one instance it appears to be failing. Are there any additional troubleshooting steps we can take help resolve this issue? THINGS WE HAVE TRIED I added a static arp entry for testing on one of the linux gateways which still didn't help. root@haproxy2:~# arp -a peak-colo-196-215.peak.org (69.59.196.215) at 00:21:5e:4d:61:1a [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-221.peak.org (69.59.196.221) at 00:15:5d:00:b2:0d [ether] on eth1 stackoverflow.com (69.59.196.212) at 00:21:5e:4d:45:c9 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-219.peak.org (69.59.196.219) at 00:21:5e:4d:38:e5 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-209.peak.org (69.59.196.209) at 00:26:88:63:c7:80 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-217.peak.org (69.59.196.217) at 00:21:5e:4d:2c:e8 [ether] on eth1 peak-colo-196-220.peak.org (69.59.196.220) at 00:21:5e:4d:30:8d [ether] PERM on eth1 root@haproxy2:~# arp -i eth1 -s 69.59.196.220 00:21:5e:4d:30:8d root@haproxy2:~# ping 69.59.196.220 PING 69.59.196.220 (69.59.196.220) 56(84) bytes of data. --- 69.59.196.220 ping statistics --- 7 packets transmitted, 0 received, 100% packet loss, time 6006ms Rebooting the windows web server solves this issue temporarily with no other changes to the network but our experience shows this issue will come back. Swapping network cards and switches I noticed the link light on the port of the switch for the failed windows server was running at 100Mb instead of 1Gb on the failed interface. I moved the cable to several other open ports and the link indicated 100Mb for each port that I tried. I also swapped the cable with the same result. I tried changing the properties of the network card in windows and the server locked up and required a hard reset after clicking apply. This windows server has two physical network interfaces so I have swapped the cables and network settings on the two interfaces to see if the problem follows the interface. If the public interface goes down again we will know that it is not an issue with the network card. (We also tried another switch we have on hand, no change) Changing network hardware driver versions We've had the same problem with the latest Broadcom driver, as well as the built-in driver that ships in Windows Server 2008 R2. Replacing network cables As a last ditch effort we remembered another change that occurred was the replacement of all of the patch cords between our servers / switch. We had purchased two sets, one green of lengths 1ft - 3ft for the private interfaces and another set of red cables for the public interfaces. We swapped out all of the public interface patch cables with a different brand and ran our servers without issue for a full week ... aaaaaand then the problem recurred. Disable checksum offload, remove TProxy We also tried disabling TCP/IP checksum offload in the driver, no change. We're now pulling out TProxy and moving to a more traditional x-forwarded-for network arrangement without any fancy IP address rewriting. We'll see if that helps. Switch Virtualization providers On the off chance this was related to Hyper-V in some way (we do host Linux VMs on it), we switched to VMWare Server. No change. Switch host model We've reached the end of our troubleshooting rope and are now formally involving Microsoft support. They recommended changing the host model: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Host_model http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/2007.09.cableguy.aspx We did that, and.. we'll see.

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  • ploting 3d graph in matlab?

    - by lytheone
    Hello, I am currently a begineer, and i am using matlab to do a data analysis. I have a a text file with data at the first row is formatted as follow: time;wave height 1;wave height 2;....... I have column until wave height 19 and rows total 4000 rows. Data in the first column is time in second. From 2nd column onwards, it is wave height elevation which is in meter. At the moment I like to ask matlab to plot a 3d graph with time on the x axis, wave elevation on the y axis, and wave elevation that correspond to wave height number from 1 to 19, i.e. data in column 2 row 10 has a let say 8m which is correspond to wave height 1 and time at the column 1 row 10. I have try the following: clear; filename='abc.daf'; path='C:\D'; a=dlmread([path '\' filename],' ', 2, 1); [nrows,ncols]=size(a); t=a(1:nrows,1);%define t from text file for i=(1:20), j=(2:21); end wi=a(:,j); for k=(2:4000), l=k; end r=a(l,:); But everytime i use try to plot them, the for loop wi works fine, but for r=a(l,:);, the plot only either give me the last time data only but i want all data in the file to be plot. Is there a way i can do that. I am sorry as it is a bit confusing but i will be very thankful if anyone can help me out. Thank you!!!!!!!!!!

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  • AS3 URLRequest in for Loop problem

    - by Adrian
    Hi guys, I read some data from a xml file, everything works great besides urls. I can't figure what's the problem with the "navigateURL" function or with the eventListener... on which square I click it opens the last url from the xml file for(var i:Number = 0; i <= gamesInput.game.length() -1; i++) { var square:square_mc = new square_mc(); //xml values var tGame_name:String = gamesInput.game.name.text()[i];//game name var tGame_id:Number = gamesInput.children()[i].attributes()[2].toXMLString();//game id var tGame_thumbnail:String = thumbPath + gamesInput.game.thumbnail.text()[i];//thumb path var tGame_url:String = gamesInput.game.url.text()[i];//game url addChild(square); square.tgname_txt.text = tGame_name; square.tgurl_txt.text = tGame_url; //load & attach game thumb var getThumb:URLRequest = new URLRequest(tGame_thumbnail); var loadThumb:Loader = new Loader(); loadThumb.load(getThumb); square.addChild(loadThumb); // square.y = squareY; square.x = squareX; squareX += square.width + 10; square.buttonMode = true; this.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, navigateURL); } function navigateURL(event:MouseEvent):void { var url:URLRequest = new URLRequest(tGame_url); navigateToURL(url, "_blank"); trace(tGame_url); } Many thanks!

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  • Auto-(un)boxing fail for compound assignment

    - by polygenelubricants
    Thanks to the implicit casting in compound assignments and increment/decrement operators, the following compiles: byte b = 0; ++b; b++; --b; b--; b += b -= b *= b /= b %= b; b <<= b >>= b >>>= b; b |= b &= b ^= b; And thanks to auto-boxing and auto-unboxing, the following also compiles: Integer ii = 0; ++ii; ii++; --ii; ii--; ii += ii -= ii *= ii /= ii %= ii; ii <<= ii >>= ii >>>= ii; ii |= ii &= ii ^= ii; And yet, the last line in the following snippet gives compile-time error: Byte bb = 0; ++bb; bb++; --bb; bb--; // ... okay so far! bb += bb; // DOESN'T COMPILE!!! // "The operator += is undefined for the argument type(s) Byte, byte" Can anyone help me figure out what's going on here? The byte b version compiles just fine, so shouldn't Byte bb just follow suit and do the appropriate boxing and unboxing as necessary to accommodate?

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  • How to restrict access to a class's data based on state?

    - by Marcus Swope
    In an ETL application I am working on, we have three basic processes: Validate and parse an XML file of customer information from a third party Match values received in the file to values in our system Load customer data in our system The issue here is that we may need to display the customer information from any or all of the above states to an internal user and there is data in our customer class that will never be populated before the values have been matched in our system (step 2). For this reason, I would like to have the values not even be available to be accessed when the customer is in this state, and I would like to have to avoid some repeated logic everywhere like: if (customer.IsMatched) DisplayTextOnWeb(customer.SomeMatchedValue); My first thought for this was to add a couple interfaces on top of Customer that would only expose the properties and behaviors of the current state, and then only deal with those interfaces. The problem with this approach is that there seems to be no good way to move from an ICustomerWithNoMatchedValues to an ICustomerWithMatchedValues without doing direct casts, etc... (or at least I can't find one). I can't be the first to have come across this, how do you normally approach this? As a last caveat, I would like for this solution to play nice with FluentNHibernate :) Thanks in advance...

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  • Zend_Validate_Abstract custom validator not displaying correct error messages.

    - by Jeremy Dowell
    I have two text fields in a form that I need to make sure neither have empty values nor contain the same string. The custom validator that I wrote extends Zend_Validate_Abstract and works correctly in that it passes back the correct error messages. In this case either: isEmpty or isMatch. However, the documentation says to use addErrorMessages to define the correct error messages to be displayed. in this case, i have attached ->addErrorMessages(array("isEmpty"=>"foo", "isMatch"=>"bar")); to the form field. According to everything I've read, if I return "isEmpty" from isValid(), my error message should read "foo" and if i return "isMatch" then it should read "bar". This is not the case I'm running into though. If I return false from is valid, no matter what i set $this-_error() to be, my error message displays "foo", or whatever I have at index[0] of the error messages array. If I don't define errorMessages, then I just get the error code I passed back for the display and I get the proper one, depending on what I passed back. How do I catch the error code and display the correct error message in my form? The fix I have implemented, until I figure it out properly, is to pass back the full message as the errorcode from the custom validator. This will work in this instance, but the error message is specific to this page and doesn't really allow for re-use of code. Things I have already tried: I have already tried validator chaining so that my custom validator only checks for matches: ->setRequired("true") ->addValidator("NotEmpty") ->addErrorMessage("URL May Not Be Empty") ->addValidator([*customValidator]*) ->addErrorMessage("X and Y urls may not be the same") But again, if either throws an error, the last error message to be set displays, regardless of what the error truly is. I'm not entirely sure where to go from here. Any suggestions?

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  • JavaScript: Achieving precise animation end values?

    - by bobthabuilda
    I'm currently trying to write my own JavaScript library. I'm in the middle of writing an animation callback, but I'm having trouble getting precise end values, especially when animation duration times are smaller. Right now, I'm only targeting positional animation (left, top, right, bottom). When my animations complete, they end up having an error margin of 5px~ on faster animations, and 0.5px~ on animations 1000+ ms or greater. Here's the bulk of the callback, with notes following. var current = parseFloat( this[0].style[prop] || 0 ) // If our target value is greater than the current , gt = !!( value > current ) , delta = ( Math.abs(current - value) / (duration / 13) ) * (gt ? 1 : -1) , elem = this[0] , anim = setInterval( function(){ elem.style[prop] = ( current + delta ) + 'px'; current = parseFloat( elem.style[prop] ); if ( gt && current >= value || !gt && current <= value ) clearInterval( anim ); }, 13 ); this[0] and elem both reference the target DOM element. prop references the property to animate, left, top, bottom, right, etc. current is the current value of the DOM element's property. value is the desired value to animate to. duration is the specified duration (in ms) that the animation should last. 13 is the setInterval delay (which should roughly be the absolute minimal for all browsers). gt is a var that is true if value exceeds the initial current, else it is false. How can I resolve the error margin?

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  • How can I do rapid application development with ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Erik Forbes
    I've been given a short amount of time (~80 hours to start with) to replace an existing Access database with a full-blown SQL + Web system, and I'm enumerating my options. I would like to use ASP.NET MVC, but I'm unsure of how to use it effectively with my short timetable. For the database backend I'll be using Linq to SQL as it's a product I already know and can get something working with it quickly. Does anyone have any experience with using ASP.NET MVC in this way and can share some insight? Edit: The reason I've been interested in ASP.NET MVC is because I know (100% confirmed) that there will be more work to do after this first round, and I'd like my maintenance work to be as easy as possible. In my experience Webforms applications tend to break down over repeated maintenance, despite discipline. Maybe there's a middle ground? How difficult would it to be for me to, say, build the app with Webforms, then migrate it to MVC later when I have more time budgeted to the project? Edit 2: Further background: the Access application I'm replacing is used in some capacity by everyone in the building, and since it was upgraded from Access 98 to 2003 it's been crashing daily, causing hours of lost productivity as people have to re-enter data since the last backup. This is the reason for the short amount of time - this is a critical business function, and they can't afford to keep re-entering data on a daily basis.

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  • Xcode 5 - remove storyboard and start app with a .xib

    - by Lucy
    I've tried to follow the instructions on this Question. But I must not be doing something correctly because I am still getting a SIGABRT before I even get into the ViewController methods. Here are the steps: Copied all items on the view in the story board and pasted into the new xib view. Copied all contents of .h and .m view controller files into the new ones for the xib. Changed the Main nib file base name to the new xib name in the info.plist file. Tried to change the owner but I don't know if I'm doing that correctly. Edited the appdelegate didFinishLaunchingWithOptions file as follows: - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { self.window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] ; // Override point for customization after application launch. TestViewController *test = [[TestViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"TestViewController" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *nav = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:test]; self.window.rootViewController = nav; [self.window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } I even tried to start with an empty project like one of the last posts suggested and still get a SIGABRT when I try to run. Has Apple made it impossible to remove the storyboard? I'm creating an SDK. I don't want a storyboard. But I do need one xib that is rotatable. Help?

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  • How save selected switch option

    - by Rkm
    System UIviewcontroller has button , Tap on button i need to fire Info Tableviewcontroller. Tableviewcontroller itself UISwitch. My question is I need to save last selected switch option ON/OFF in UISwitch how to set my control. @implementation Info // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } if (indexPath.section) { cell.textLabel.text = @"Sounds"; cell.selectionStyle = UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone; UISwitch *switchView = [[UISwitch alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; cell.accessoryView = switchView; [switchView setOn:NO animated:NO]; [switchView addTarget:self action:@selector(switchChanged_Sounds:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; [switchView release]; return cell ; } } - (void) switchChanged_Sounds:(id)sender { UISwitch* switchControl = sender; NSLog( @"The switchChanged_Sounds is %@", switchControl.on ? @"ON" : @"OFF" ); }

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  • oracle sequence init

    - by gospodin
    I wanted to export 3 tables from db1 into db2. Before the export starts, I will create the sequences for those 3 tables. CREATE SEQUENCE TEST_SEQ START WITH 1 INCREMENT BY 1; After the export, I will reinitialize sequnce values to match the max(id) + 1 from the table. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE "TEST_SEQUENCE" AUTHID CURRENT_USER is v_num number; begin select max(ID) into v_num from TABLE_1; EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'ALTER SEQUENCE TEST_SEQ INCREMENT BY ' || v_num; EXECUTE IMMEDIATE 'ALTER SEQUENCE 1TEST_SEQ INCREMENT BY 1'; end; / show errors; execute TEST_SEQ; This procedure compiles and executes without problems. But when I want to check t he last value of the sequence, like select TEST_SEQ.nextval from dual; I still get the "1". Can someone tell me why my procedure did not impact my sequence? ps. I am using oracle sql developper to pass sql. Thanks

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  • Password Cracking in 2010 and Beyond

    - by mttr
    I have looked a bit into cryptography and related matters during the last couple of days and am pretty confused by now. I have a question about password strength and am hoping that someone can clear up my confusion by sharing how they think through the following questions. I am becoming obsessed about these things, but need to spend my time otherwise :-) Let's assume we have an eight-digit password that consists of upper and lower-case alphabetic characters, numbers and common symbols. This means we have 8^96 ~= 7.2 quadrillion different possible passwords. As I understand there are at least two approaches to breaking this password. One is to try a brute-force attack where we try to guess each possible combination of characters. How many passwords can modern processors (in 2010, Core i7 Extreme for eg) guess per second (how many instructions does a single password guess take and why)? My guess would be that it takes a modern processor in the order of years to break such a password. Another approach would consist of obtaining a hash of my password as stored by operating systems and then search for collisions. Depending on the type of hash used, we might get the password a lot quicker than by the bruteforce attack. A number of questions about this: Is the assertion in the above sentence correct? How do I think about the time it takes to find collisions for MD4, MD5, etc. hashes? Where does my Snow Leopard store my password hash and what hashing algorithm does it use? And finally, regardless of the strength of file encryption using AES-128/256, the weak link is still my en/decryption password used. Even if breaking the ciphered text would take longer than the lifetime of the universe, a brute-force attack on my de/encryption password (guess password, then try to decrypt file, try next password...), might succeed a lot earlier than the end of the universe. Is that correct? I would be very grateful, if people could have mercy on me and help me think through these probably simple questions, so that I can get back to work.

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  • What is the best anti-crack scheme for your trial or subscription software?

    - by gmatt
    Writing code takes time and effort and just like any other human being we need to live by making an income (save for the few that are actually self sustainable.) Here are 3 general schemes to make a living: Independent developers can offer a trial then purchase scheme. An alternative is an open source base application with pay extensions. A last (probably least popular with customers) scheme is to enforce some kind of subscription. Then the price of the software pales in comparison to the long term subscription fees. So, my question would be a hypothetical one. Suppose that you invest thousands of hours into developing an application. Now suppose you can choose any one of the three options to make a living off this application--or any other option you want--and suppose you have a very real fear of loosing 80% of your revenue to a cracked version if one can be made. To be clear this application does not require the internet to perform all its useful functions, that is, your application is a prime candidate to be a cracked release on some website. Which option would you feel most comfortable with defending yourself against this possible situation and briefly describe why this option would be the best.

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  • When I try to run vim in command line I get Python errors

    - by Eduan
    When I try running vim in the Terminal (so as to follow @romainl's suggestion in my other question) I get lots of Python errors, which all boil down to: IOError: invalid Python installation: unable to open /usr/include/python2.7/pyconfig.h (No such file or directory) Why is this? I can use Python or Sublime Text even, without any problems. The full list of errors is the following: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 565, in <module> File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 547, in main File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 278, in addusersitepackages File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 253, in getusersitepackages File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/site.py", line 243, in getuserbase File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/sysconfig.py", line 523, in get_config_var File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/sysconfig.py", line 419, in get_config_vars File "/System/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.7/lib/python2.7/sysconfig.py", line 298, in _init_posix IOError: invalid Python installation: unable to open /usr/include/python2.7/pyconfig.h (No such file or directory) Extra info: I am on Mac OS X Mountain Lion (OS 10.8) EDIT: I tried @BobDunakey idea with no success, the idea was to use sudo. I still get the same errors. EDIT 2: I was able to solve the problem thanks to Zirak's solution, which is the following: http://clearfix.be/2012/08/05/fix-mountain-lion-10-8-python-ioerror-pyconfig-h-error/

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  • [Cocoa] Binding CoreData Managed Object to NSTextFieldCell subclass

    - by ndg
    I have an NSTableView which has its first column set to contain a custom NSTextFieldCell. My custom NSTextFieldCell needs to allow the user to edit a "desc" property within my Managed Object but to also display an "info" string that it contains (which is not editable). To achieve this, I followed this tutorial. In a nutshell, the tutorial suggests editing your Managed Objects generated subclass to create and pass a dictionary of its contents to your NSTableColumn via bindings. This works well for read-only NSCell implementations, but I'm looking to subclass NSTextFieldCell to allow the user to edit the "desc" property of my Managed Object. To do this, I followed one of the articles comments, which suggests subclassing NSFormatter to explicitly state which Managed Object property you would like the NSTextFieldCell to edit. Here's the suggested implementation: @implementation TRTableDescFormatter - (BOOL)getObjectValue:(id *)anObject forString:(NSString *)string errorDescription:(NSString **)error { if (anObject != nil){ *anObject = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:string forKey:@"desc"]; return YES; } return NO; } - (NSString *)stringForObjectValue:(id)anObject { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; return [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]; } - (NSAttributedString*)attributedStringForObjectValue:(id)anObject withDefaultAttributes:(NSDictionary *)attrs { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; NSAttributedString *anAttributedString = [[NSAttributedString alloc] initWithString: [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]]; return anAttributedString; } @end I assign the NSFormatter subclass to my cell in my NSTextFieldCell subclass, like so: - (void)awakeFromNib { TRTableDescFormatter *formatter = [[[TRTableDescFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [self setFormatter:formatter]; } This seems to work, but is extremely patch. On occasion, clicking to edit a row will cause its value to nullify. On other occasions, the value you enter on one row will populate other rows within the table. I've been doing a lot of reading on this subject and would really like to get to the bottom of this. What's more frustrating is that my NSTextFieldCell is rendering exactly how I would like it to. This editing issue is my last obstacle! If anyone can help, that would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Is this OleDbDataAdapter bug

    - by ????
    It doesn't look to me OleDbDataAdapter should throw an exception on trying to fill DataSet for a db table column of type decimal(28,3). The message is "The numerical value is too large to fit into a 96 bit decimal". Could you just check this, I have no significant experience with ADO.NET and OLE DB components? The VB.NET code we have in the application is this: Dim dbDataSet As New DataSet Dim dbDataAdapter As OleDbDataAdapter Dim dbCommand As OleDbCommand Dim conn As OleDbConnection Dim connectionString As String 'parts where connectionString is set conn = New OleDbConnection(connectionString) 'part where sqlQuery is set but it ends up being "SELECT Price As 'Price' From PricebookView" - Price is of type decimal(28,3) dbCommand = New OleDbCommand(sqlQuery, conn) dbCommand.CommandTimeout = cmdTimeout dbDataAdapter = New OleDbDataAdapter(dbCommand) dbDataAdapter.Fill(dbDataSet) The last line is where the exception is thrown and the top of the stack trace is: at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbBuffer.ReadNumeric(Int32 offset) at System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value_NUMERIC() at System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value() at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DataReaderContainer.CommonLanguageSubsetDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.SchemaMapping.LoadDataRow() at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillLoadDataRow(SchemaMapping mapping) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillFromReader(DataSet dataset, DataTable datatable, String srcTable, DataReaderContainer dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet) ... I am not sure why does it try to set the value to Int32. Thank you for the time !

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  • SSRS2005 timeout error

    - by jaspernygaard
    Hi I've been running around circles the last 2 days, trying to figure a problem in our customers live environment. I figured I might as well post it here, since google gave me very limited information on the error message (5 results to be exact). The error boils down to a timeout when requesting a certain report in SSRS2005, when a certain parameter is used. The deployment scenario is: Machine #1 Running reporting services (SQL2005, W2K3, IIS6) Machine #2 Running datawarehouse database (SQL2005, W2K3) which is the data source for #1 Both machines are running on the same vm cluster and LAN. The report requests a fairly simple SP - lets called it sp(param $a, param $b). When requested with param $a filled, it executes correctly. When using param $b, it times out after the global timeout periode has passed. If I run the stored procedure with param $b directly from sql management studio on #2, it returns the results perfectly fine (within 3-4s). I've profiled the datawarehouse database on #2 and when param $b is used, the query from the reporting service to the database, never reaches #2. The error message that I get upon timeout, when using param $b, when invoking the report directly from SSRS web interface is: "An error has occurred during report processing. Cannot read the next data row for the data set DataSet. A severe error occurred on the current command. The results, if any, should be discarded. Operation cancelled by user." The ExecutionLog for the SSRS does give me much information besides the error message rsProcessingAborted I'm running out of ideas of how to nail this problem. So I would greatly appreciate any comments, suggestions or ideas. Thanks in advance!

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  • Adding a date every few days

    - by Luke
    I have some code that generates fixtures, I am looking to add a fixture date to the code. $totalRounds = $teams - 1; $matchesPerRound = $teams / 2; $rounds = array(); for ($i = 0; $i < $totalRounds; $i++) { $rounds[$i] = array(); } for ($round = 0; $round < $totalRounds; $round++) { for ($match = 0; $match < $matchesPerRound; $match++) { $home = ($round + $match) % ($teams - 1); $away = ($teams - 1 - $match + $round) % ($teams - 1); // Last team stays in the same place while the others // rotate around it. if ($match == 0) { $away = $teams - 1; } $rounds[$round][$match] = "$user[$home]~$team[$home]@$user[$away]~$team[$away]"; } } $team is the amount of teams in the league. I want to add a variable for every 4 days, and for every round of fixtures generated, I want to add 4 days onto the previous round. For example, if today is 3rd may, i want 3rd may for first fixture, 7th may for second fixture, 11th may for third fixture. By fixture i mean round which includes a set of fixtures!

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  • Jquery add table row after the row which calling the jquery.

    - by marharépa
    Hello! I've got a table. <table id="servers" ...> ... {section name=i loop=$ownsites} <tr id="site_id_{$ownsites[i].id}"> ... <td>{$ownsites[i].phone}</td> <td class="icon"><a id="{$ownsites[i].id}" onClick="return makedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'));" ...></a></td> </tr> {/section} <tbody> </table> And this java script. <script type="text/javascript"> function makedeleterow(id) { $('#delete').remove(); $('#servers').append($(document.createElement("tr")).attr({id: "delete"})); $('#delete').append($(document.createElement("td")).attr({colspan: "9", id: "deleter"})); $('#deleter').text('Biztosan törölni szeretnéd ezt a weblapod?'); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "submit", id: id, onClick: "return truedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'))"})); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "hidden", name: "website_del", value: id})); } </script> It's workin fine, it makes a tr after the table's last tr and put the info to it, and the delete function also works fine. But i'd like to make this append AFTER the tr (with td class="icon") which calling the script. How can i do this?

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  • With Go, how to append unknown number of byte into a vector and get a slice of bytes?

    - by Stephen Hsu
    I'm trying to encode a large number to a list of bytes(uint8 in Go). The number of bytes is unknown, so I'd like to use vector. But Go doesn't provide vector of byte, what can I do? And is it possible to get a slice of such a byte vector? I intends to implement data compression. Instead of store small and large number with the same number of bytes, I'm implements a variable bytes that uses less bytes with small number and more bytes with large number. My code can not compile, invalid type assertion: 1 package main 2 3 import ( 4 //"fmt" 5 "container/vector" 6 ) 7 8 func vbEncodeNumber(n uint) []byte{ 9 bytes := new(vector.Vector) 10 for { 11 bytes.Push(n % 128) 12 if n < 128 { 13 break 14 } 15 n /= 128 16 } 17 bytes.Set(bytes.Len()-1, bytes.Last().(byte)+byte(128)) 18 return bytes.Data().([]byte) // <- 19 } 20 21 func main() { vbEncodeNumber(10000) } I wish to writes a lot of such code into binary file, so I wish the func can return byte array. I haven't find a code example on vector.

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