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• Configure different set of keyboard shortcuts for copy/paste in Photoshop (WIN)

  - by Diodeus

  Being left-handed, I use the mouse in my left hand. In most applications I use Ctrl + Insert or Shift + Insert to copy and paste (with my right hand). For some bone-headed reason, this is not supported in Photoshop, so I have to use right-click Copy sub-menus, which is a lot slower. Is there a way to configure Photoshop to use Ctrl + Insert to copy and Shift + Insert to paste? EDIT: I tried editing keyboard shortcuts, but it will not accept CTRL + INSERT as a valid entry. Is there no valid option for left-handed users?

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• How to set a native object property

  - by theunilife

  ok so im creating a jquery plugin that will allow me to use the new html5 Audio interface and im trying to create an option that is an object that you will be able to set the various listeners but i dont seem to be able to set those options to the listener property of the Audio object.

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• "set shiftround" doesn't work in Vim?

  - by Ory Band

  Hi. I'm using MacVim, and when trying to set shiftround in my .vimrc I get the following error: E518: Unknown option:  shiftround EDIT: However, when I try to :set shiftround manually within Vim, it works and gives no errors. Anybody knows what is causing this? If somebody wants to view my whole .vimrc (perhaps something else I'm not of is the cause of this), please do: https://github.com/oryband/dotvim/blob/master/vimrc

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• Join two results sets to make one result set in T-SQL

  - by Michael Kniskern

  What would be the best approach to combine the two results sets in one result set in T-SQL? SQL statment #1: SELECT COUNT(t.col1) as 'Number of Responses', t.col2 as 'Department' FROM table t WHERE col3 IS NOT NULL GROUP BY t.col1 ORDER BY t.col1 SQL Statment #1: SELECT COUNT(t.col1) as 'Total number of participants', t.col2 as 'Department' FROM table t GROUP BY t.col1 ORDER by t.col1 Desired result set Number of Responses | Total Number of participants | Department

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• IO::Pipe - close(<handle>) does not set $?

  - by danboo

  My understanding is that closing the handle for an IO::Pipe object should be done with the method ($fh->close) and not the built-in (close($fh)). The other day I goofed and used the built-in out of habit on a IO::Pipe object that was opened to a command that I expected to fail. I was surprised when $? was zero, and my error checking wasn't triggered. I realized my mistake. If I use the built-in, IO:Pipe can't perform the waitpid() and can't set $?. But what I was surprised by was that perl seemed to still close the pipe without setting $? via the core. I worked up a little test script to show what I mean: use 5.012; use warnings; use IO::Pipe; say 'init pipes:'; pipes(); my $fh = IO::Pipe->reader(q(false)); say 'post open pipes:'; pipes(); say 'return: ' . $fh->close; #say 'return: ' . close($fh); say 'status: ' . $?; say q(); say 'post close pipes:'; pipes(); sub pipes { for my $fd ( glob("/proc/self/fd/*") ) { say readlink($fd) if -p $fd; } say q(); } When using the method it shows the pipe being gone after the close and $? is set as I expected: init pipes: post open pipes: pipe:[992006] return: 1 status: 256 post close pipes: And, when using the built-in it also appears to close the pipe, but does not set $?: init pipes: post open pipes: pipe:[952618] return: 1 status: 0 post close pipes: It seems odd to me that the built-in results in the pipe closure, but doesn't set $?. Can anyone help explain the discrepancy? Thanks!

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• Crystal Reports Reportviewer - Set Datasource Dynamically Not Working :argh:

  - by Albert

  I'm running CR XI, and accessing .RPT files through a ReportViewer in my ASP.NET pages. I've already got the following code, which is supposed to set the Report Datasource dynamically. rptSP = New ReportDocument Dim rptPath As String = Request.QueryString("report") rptSP.Load(rptPath.ToString, 0) Dim SConn As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionStringBuilder(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("MyConnectionString").ConnectionString) rptSP.DataSourceConnections(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog).SetConnection(SConn.DataSource, SConn.InitialCatalog, SConn.UserID, SConn.Password) Dim myConnectionInfo As ConnectionInfo = New ConnectionInfo myConnectionInfo.ServerName = SConn.DataSource myConnectionInfo.DatabaseName = SConn.InitialCatalog myConnectionInfo.UserID = SConn.UserID myConnectionInfo.Password = SConn.Password 'Two new methods to loop through all objects and tables contained in the requested report and set 'login credentials for each object and table. SetDBLogonForReport(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) SetDBLogonForSubreports(myConnectionInfo, rptSP) Me.CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = rptSP But when I go into each .RPT file, and open up the Database Expert section, there is obviously still servernames hardcoded in there, and the code listed above doesn't seem to be able to change the servernames that are hardcoded there. I say this because I have training and production environments. When the .RPT file is hardcoded with my production server, and I open it on my training server with the code above (and the web.config has the training server in the connection string), I get the ol: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. And then if I go into the .RPT file, and change over the datasource to the training server, and try to open it again, it works fine. Why doesn't the code above overwrite the .RPT files datasource? How can I avoid having to open up each .RPT and change the datasource when migrating reports from server to server? Is there a setting in the .RPT file I'm missing or something?

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• ajax redirect dillema, how to get redirect URL OR how to set properties for redirect request

  - by Anthony

  First, I'm working in Google Chrome, if that helps. Here is the behavior: I send an xhr request via jquery to a remote site (this is a chrome Extension, and I've set all of the cross-site settings...): $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType : "text/xml", url: some_url, data: some_xml, username: user, password: pass, success: function(data,status,xhr){ alert(data); }, error: function(xhr, status, error){ alert(xhr.status); } }); The URL that is being set returns a 302 (this is expected), and Chrome follows the redirect (also expected). The new URL returns a prompt for credentials, which are not being pulled from the original request, so Chrome shows a login dialog. If I put in the original credentials, I get back a response about invalid request sent (it's a valid HTTP request -- 200 -- the remote server just doesn't like one of the headers). When viewing the developer window in Chrome, there are two requests sent. The first is to the original URL with all settings set in the ajax request. The second is to the redirect URL, with a method of "GET", nothing from the "POST" field, and no credentials. I am at a loss as to what I can do. I either need to: Get the redirect URL so I can send a second request (xhr.getResponseHeader("Location") does NOT work), Have the new redirect request preserver the settings from the original request, or Get the final URL that the error came from so I can send another request. Ideally I don't want the user to have to put in their credentials a second time in this dialog box, but I'll take what I can get if I can just get the final URL.

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• Iframe src set dynamically through JavaScript is being executed twice on Internet Explorer

  - by Pierre

  Hello Everyone, I am encountering a very annoying problem with IE. Basically I need to set the source of an IFrame using JavaScript, however the source document is being executed twice not once during each call. The simplified HTML code is pasted below (I simplified it so that readers can understand it quickly. The source is being set through JavaScript since it will contain dynamic content): <html> <head> <title>Iframe test</title> </head> <body> <iframe id="testIframe" scrolling="no" frameborder="0" src="" width="800" height="600"></iframe> <script language="JavaScript"> document.getElementById("testIframe").src = "http://localhost/test.php"; </script> </body> </html> In this example, test.php inserts a record inside a local database once called. Whenever the page above is called using IE, two rows are being inserted on most occasions (sometimes only 1 row is inserted but this is not the norm). I tested the same script on Chrome and Opera and it works correctly on them so this must be an IE issue. If is set the src directly inside the iframe tag IE starts behaving correctly, however I need to be able to build the URL using javascript. Has anyone encountered this issue? and does anyone know of a solution/workaround? Thanks and Regards Pierre

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• JavaScript - Settting property on Object in Image load function, property not set once outside funct

  - by Sunday Ironfoot

  Sometimes JavaScript doesn't make sense to me, consider the following code that generates a photo mosaic based on x/y tiles. I'm trying to set a .Done property to true once each Mosaic image has been downloaded, but it's always false for some reason, what am I doing wrong? var tileData = []; function generate() { var image = new Image(); image.onload = function() { // Build up the 'tileData' array with tile objects from this Image for (var i = 0; i < tileData.length; i++) { var tile = tileData[i]; var tileImage = new Image(); tileImage.onload = function() { // Do something with this tile Image tile.Done = true; }; tileImage.src = tile.ImageUrl; } }; image.src = 'Penguins.jpg'; tryDisplayMosaic(); } function tryDisplayMosaic() { setTimeout(function() { for (var i = 0; i < tileData.length; i++) { var tile = tileData[i]; if (!tile.Done) { tryDisplayMosaic(); return; } } // If we get here then all the tiles have been downloaded alert('All images downloaded'); }, 2000); } Now for some reason the .Done property on the tile object is always false, even though it is explicitly being set to true inside tileImage.onload = function(). And I can ensure you that this function DOES get called because I've placed an alert() call inside it. Right now it's just stuck inside an infinite loop calling tryDisplayMosaic() constantly. Also if I place a loop just before tryDisplayMosaic() is called, and in that loop I set .Done = true, then .Done property is true and alert('All images downloaded'); will get called.

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• Set UIViewController background to transparent

  - by dbonneville

  I'm calling a UIViewController from a button on the main view. I have set the alpha of the view to 50%. When the view animates in, I can see that it's transparent. As soon as the animation stops, it becomes opaque. In the xib, when I set opacity, it's sets the opacity over white. So if I set the color to black and the opacity to 50%, this is what I see when I click the button on the main interface to show the view: view slides up from bottom at 50% opacity. I can see the underlaying view through the transparent black nicely. when view stops animating, it become gray. it appears that a white color pops in the background of the view somehow, making the 50% opacity black over white turn gray. I can no longer see the underlaying layer. What I'm trying to do: show 100% white text on a 50% transparent black layer which sits over the view that called this view. How on earth do I do this? I tried a code method that sets the background color when the view is called, but it does exactly the same thing (with another try in there commented out with the same effect): - (IBAction)gotoCreed { Creed *creed = [[Creed alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:creed animated:YES]; self.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithHue:0.0 saturation:0.0 brightness:1.0 alpha:0.2]; //self.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; }

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• Character set issues with Oracle Gateways, SQL Server, and Application Express

  - by Brian Deterling

  I am migrating data from a Oracle on VMS that accesses data on SQL Server using heterogeneous services (over ODBC) to Oracle on AIX accessing the SQL Server via Oracle Gateways (dg4msql). The Oracle VMS database used the WE8ISO8859P1 character set. The AIX database uses WE8MSWIN1252. The SQL Server database uses "Latin1-General, case-insensitive, accent-sensitive, kanatype-insensitive, width-insensitive for Unicode Data, SQL Server Sort Order 52 on Code Page 1252 for non-Unicode Data" according to sp_helpsort. The SQL Server databases uses nchar/nvarchar or all string columns. In Application Express, extra characters are appearing in some cases, for example 123 shows up as %001%002%003. In sqlplus, things look ok but if I use Oracle functions like initcap, I see what appear as spaces between each letter of a string when I query the sql server database (using a database link). This did not occur under the old configuration. I'm assuming the issue is that an nchar has extra bytes in it and the character set in Oracle can't convert it. It appears that the ODBC solution didn't support nchars so must have just cast them back to char and they showed up ok. I only need to view the sql server data so I'm open to any solution such as casting, but I haven't found anything that works. Any ideas on how to deal with this? Should I be using a different character set in Oracle and if so, does that apply to all schemas since I only care about one of them.

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• WPF Datagrid set the column values only when the row is left

  - by Noam

  Hello I have a simple class. When I use it in winforms binding, whenever I change a value of a cell and leave the cell, the property immediately get changed. Using WPF Datagrid, whenever i change a value of a cell, the property gets set only after I leave the row. That is problematic for me. What am I doing wrong? Here is my code: public class MyClass : IEditableObject, INotifyPropertyChanged { string _name, _lastName; public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; _lastName = value + " xxx"; OnPropertyChanged("LastName"); MessageBox.Show("Test"); } } private void OnPropertyChanged(string p) { var x = new PropertyChangedEventArgs(p); if (PropertyChanged != null) PropertyChanged(this, x); } public string LastName { get { return _lastName; } set { _lastName = value; } } public void BeginEdit() { } public void CancelEdit() { } public void EndEdit() { } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; } public class myBindingList : BindingList<MyClass> { public myBindingList() { AllowNew = true; Add(new MyClass { Name = "noam" }); Add(new MyClass { Name = "yael" }); } }

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• Excel Range Format: Number is automatically formatted when Range::Value2 is set

  - by A9S6

  I have an Excel addin written in C# that imports a text file into Excel worksheet. Some of the fields in the file are text and some oare numbers. Problem Steps: Change the System's Regional Settings to Dutch (Belgium) Open Excel and import the file into Excel. Records contain values such as 78,1118 which gets converted to 781.118. Note that in Dutch(Belgium), COMMA is the decimal character and DOT is the thousand character. I do not require the number to be formatted automatically but just want to display whatver I get from the file (78,1118). If I set the cell's NumberFormat to "@" i.e. Text, then it displays an error (SmartTag) saying "Number stored as Text". I know I can change the settings by going to the "Options" box but I dont want to change any user options in Excel for this. I have tried setting the cell's Value2 with an "'" (apostrophe) but the same error is displayed. If I set the cell's format to something else after the value is set then the actual value changes and I loose the decimal. Is there a way in Excel to just display the value and NOT display the "Number Stored as Text" error in cell?

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• jQuery set selected value in option box once the box has been loaded

  - by Maarten

  I want to preset the value of a selectbox based on a hidden field. I need this after an error has been detected in a form to avoid the user having to set the value themselves again. I do this by setting the value of a hidden field server side. The problem I have seems to be that the select box isn't done yet at the time I try to set the selected value. Anyone know how to solve this (possibly in a very different way?) <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(function(){ // this functions loads the state select box with states if a country with states is selected $("select#countries").change(function(){ $.getJSON("/ajax/exhibition/getstates.php?idCountry="+$("select#countries").val(), function(j){ var options = ''; $.each(j, function(key, value){ options += '<option value="' + key + '">' + value + '</option>'; }); $("select#state").html(options); }); }); }); $(document).ready(function(){ // preset the state select box on page ready $('select#countries').change(); // set the selected value of the state select box var foo = $('#statepreset').val(); $("select#state option[value="+foo+"]").attr('selected', 'selected'); }); </script>

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• PHP set timeout for script with system call, set_time_limit not working

  - by tehalive

  I have a command-line PHP script that runs a wget request using each member of an array with foreach. This wget request can sometimes take a long time so I want to be able to set a timeout for killing the script if it goes past 15 seconds for example. I have PHP safemode disabled and tried set_time_limit(15) early in the script, however it continues indefinitely. Update: Thanks to Dor for pointing out this is because set_time_limit() does not respect system() calls. So I was trying to find other ways to kill the script after 15 seconds of execution. However, I'm not sure if it's possible to check the time a script has been running while it's in the middle of a wget request at the same time (a do while loop did not work). Maybe fork a process with a timer and set it to kill the parent after a set amount of time? Thanks for any tips! Update: Below is my relevant code. $url is passed from the command-line and is an array of multiple URLs (sorry for not posting this initially): foreach( $url as $key => $value){ $wget = "wget -r -H -nd -l 999 $value"; system($wget); }

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• Set initial view with SkpWriter in Google Sketchup C++ SDK

  - by Peter Olsson

  How do you set the initial view for the model in an SKP file created with the SkpWriter in Google Sketchup C++ SDK? There has been an example in an older version of the SDK. Part of the source is posted here. I'm trying to use: m_pDoc->GetModel()->SetCamera(cameraDefn); The problem is that I'm not able to create a valid atlast::sketchup::CCameraDefinition. Non of the examples in the above post works: atlast::sketchup::CCameraDefinition cameraDefn; cameraDefn.Set(atlast::geometry::CPoint3d(793.838, -1262.6, 2603.16), atlast::geometry::CPoint3d(567.977, 338.199, 398.932), atlast::geometry::CUnitVector3d(-0.112657, 0.798459, 0.591415)); and: atlast::sketchup::CCameraDefinition cameraDefn; cameraDefn.Set(atlast::geometry::CPoint3d(793.838, -1262.6, 2603.16), atlast::geometry::CPoint3d(567.977, 338.199, 398.932), atlast::geometry::CUnitVector3d(-0.112657, 0.798459, 0.591415)); In the end I want the initial view to be the view you get from pressing the icon for Zoom extents followed by the Iso icon (the other way around is also ok). Right now I would settle for creating a valid atlast::sketchup::CCameraDefinition. Any better way to achieve this in the SKP-file?

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• Set up Gitosis, but can't clone

  - by Tim Rupe

  I've set up Gitosis on a remote Ubuntu box which I will refer to as linuxserver as my host in the following commands. I'm also connecting from a Windows box using Cygwin. I followed the instructions according to: http://scie.nti.st/2007/11/14/hosting-git-repositories-the-easy-and-secure-way I had no problems up until I needed to clone the gitosis-admin repository to my local machine git clone git@linuxserver:gitosis-admin.git When I do this, the command executes, but hangs there displaying nothing until I ctrl-c to get back to a command prompt. No messages are displayed at all. I'm pretty sure I have my ssh keys set up properly, because logging in using "ssh linuxserver" into my regular account works perfectly without asking for a password. Edit: Over the weekend I set up a near identical Ubuntu box at home, and had no problem setting up Gitosis. The only difference was that I was connecting from OSX instead of Cygwin. Edit: I've also discovered that when using the Bash Shell provided with "Git Extensions", I have no problems, so the issue definitely seems to be some kind of Cygwin conflict. Edit: Just an update, but about a month after posting this question, I switched to Mercurial, and found that I prefer it much more than git. Thanks for the suggestions, but I don't plan on going back to git to try any of them out.

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• Delete element from Set

  - by Blitzkr1eg

  Hi. I have 2 classes Tema(Homework) and Disciplina (course), where a Course has a Set of homeworks. In Hibernate i have mapped this to a one-to-many associations like this: <class name="model.Disciplina" table="devgar_scoala.discipline" > <id name="id" > <generator class="increment"/> </id> <set name="listaTeme" table="devgar_scoala.teme"> <key column="Discipline_id" not-null="true" ></key> <one-to-many class="model.Tema" ></one-to-many> </set> </class> <class name="model.Tema" table="devgar_scoala.teme" > <id name="id"> <generator class="increment" /> </id> <property name="titlu" type="string" /> <property name="cerinta" type="binary"> <column name="cerinta" sql-type="blob" /> </property> </class> The problem is that it will add (insert rows in the table 'Teme') but it won't delete any rows and i get no exceptions thrown. Im using the merge() method.

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• C# 4.0 'dynamic' doesn't set ref/out arguments

  - by Buu Nguyen

  I'm experimenting with DynamicObject. One of the things I try to do is setting the values of ref/out arguments, as shown in the code below. However, I am not able to have the values of i and j in Main() set properly (even though they are set correctly in TryInvokeMember()). Does anyone know how to call a DynamicObject object with ref/out arguments and be able to retrieve the values set inside the method? class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { dynamic proxy = new Proxy(new Target()); int i = 10; int j = 20; proxy.Wrap(ref i, ref j); Console.WriteLine(i + ":" + j); // Print "10:20" while expect "20:10" } } class Proxy : DynamicObject { private readonly Target target; public Proxy(Target target) { this.target = target; } public override bool TryInvokeMember(InvokeMemberBinder binder, object[] args, out object result) { int i = (int) args[0]; int j = (int) args[1]; target.Swap(ref i, ref j); args[0] = i; args[1] = j; result = null; return true; } } class Target { public void Swap(ref int i, ref int j) { int tmp = i; i = j; j = tmp; } }

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• Using Moq to set indexers in C#

  - by emddudley

  I'm having trouble figuring out how to set indexers in C# with Moq. The Moq documentation is weak, and I've done a lot of searching... what I'd like to do is similar in the solution to How to Moq Setting an Indexed property: var someClass = new Mock<ISomeClass>(); someClass.SetupSet(o => o.SomeIndexedProperty[3] = 25); I want to modify the above to work for any index and any value so I can just do something like this: someClass.Object.SomeIndexedProperty[1] = 5; Currently I have the following, which works great for the indexed property getter, but if I ever set the value Moq ignores it: var someValues = new int[] { 10, 20, 30, 40 }; var someClass = new Mock<ISomeClass>(); someClass.Setup(o => o.SomeIndexedProperty[It.IsAny<int>()]) .Returns<int>(index => someValues[index]); // Moq doesn't set the value below, so the Assert fails! someClass.Object.SomeIndexedProperty[3] = 25; Assert.AreEqual(25, someClass.Object.SomeIndexedProperty[3]);

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• Javascript Callback when variable is set to X

  - by Erik

  Hey everyone, Have an issue I can't seem to wrap my head around. I'm wanting to write a generic javascript function that will accept a variable and a callback, and continue to execute until that variable is something other than false. For example, the variable SpeedFeed.user.sid is false until something else happens in the code, but I don't want to execute a particular callback until it has been set. The call: SpeedFeed.helper_ready(SpeedFeed.user.sid, function(){ alert(SpeedFeed.user.sid); // Run function that requires sid to be set. }); The function: helper_ready: function(vtrue, callback){ if(vtrue != false){ callback(); } else { setTimeout(function(){ SpeedFeed.helper_ready(vtrue, callback); }, SpeedFeed.apiCheckTime); } } The issue I've narrowed it down to appears to be that because in the setTimeout I call vtrue instead of the actual SpeedFeed.user.sid, it's going to be set to false always. I realize I could write a specific function for each time that just evaluates the SpeedFeed.user.sid, but I'd like to have a generic method that I could use throughout the application. Thanks for any insight :)

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• How to set an empty value using XPath?

  - by Ricardo

  Using this xml example: <templateitem itemid="5"> <templateitemdata>%ARN%</templateitemdata> </templateitem> <templateitem itemid="6"> <templateitemdata></templateitemdata> </templateitem> I am using XPath to get and set Node values. The code I am using to get the nodes is: private static Node ***getNode***(Document doc, String XPathQuery) throws XPathExpressionException { XPath xpath = XPathFactory.newInstance().newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile(XPathQuery); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; if(nodes != null && nodes.getLength() >0) return nodes.item(0); throw new XPathExpressionException("No node list found for " + XPathQuery); } To get %ARN% value: "//templateitem[@itemid=5]/templateitemdata/text()" and with the getNode method I can get the node, and then call the getNodeValue(). Besides getting that value, I would like to set templateitemdata value for the "templateitem[@itemid=6]" since its empty. But the code I use can't get the node since its empty. The result is null. Do you know a way get the node so I can set the value?

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• Set Custom ASP.NET UserControl variables when its in a Repeater

  - by tnriverfish

  <%@ Register Src="~/Controls/PressFileDownload.ascx" TagName="pfd" TagPrefix="uc1" %> <asp:Repeater id="Repeater1" runat="Server" OnItemDataBound="RPTLayer_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="LBLHeader" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Label> <asp:Image ID="IMGThumb" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Image> <asp:Label ID="LBLBody" Runat="server" class="layerBody"></asp:Label> <uc1:pfd ID="pfd1" runat="server" ShowContainerName="false" ParentContentTypeId="55" /> <asp:Literal ID="litLayerLinks" runat="server"></asp:Literal> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label lbl; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal lit; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Image img; System.Web.UI.WebControls.HyperLink hl; System.Web.UI.UserControl uc; I need to set the ParentItemID variable for the uc1:pdf listed inside the repeater. I thought I should be able to find uc by looking in the e.Item and then setting it somehow. I think this is the part where I'm missing something. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes["ParentItemID"] = i.ItemID.ToString(); } Any thoughts would be appreciated. Also tried this with similar results... when I debug inside my usercontrol (pfd1) the parameters I am trying to set have not been set. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes.Add("ContainerID", _cid.ToString()); uc.Attributes.Add("ParentItemId", i.ItemID.ToString()); }

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• how to set values to combobox dynamically in javascript

  - by Learner

  this is how i set value to a combobox using dwr call, var reportID = '<%=reportid%>'; var reportName = '<%=reportname%>'; loadReportNames(reportUserID); function loadReportNames(reportUserID){ CustomiseReportAction.getReportNames(reportUserID, addReportNamesDropDown); } function addReportNamesDropDown(resultMap){ dwr.util.removeAllOptions("reportnames"); dwr.util.addOptions("reportnames",resultMap); } after loading the combo box i set values to loaded combo like this, document.getElementById("reportnames").value=reportID; but the reportID is not set, what could be the problem please help me to resolve this. UPDATE : function addCombo() { var reportID = '<%=reportid%'; var reportName = '<%=reportname%'; var textb = document.getElementById("reportnames"); var option = document.createElement("option"); option.text = reportName; option.value = reportID; option.selected="selected"; try { textb.add(option, null); //Standard }catch(error) { textb.add(option); // IE only } textb.value = ""; } used above method it gives me no exception but no results. Regards

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• New projects not built when target platform is set explicitly

  - by stiank81

  I create a new solution with one project, and then change the target platform from "Any CPU" to "x86". After this new projects added doesn't get built by default, and their target platform doesn't follow the global settings. Why?! Looking at the configuration manager new projects added are not checked to "Build", and they get target platform "Any CPU" instead of the globally set x86. Why is this happening? I expect new projects too to get the globally set and defined x86 target platform.. Some things I've tried: Toggle global platform back to Any CPU, and then to x86 again. No change.. Choosing platform explicitly for the new project. x86 is not available in the list, and when I say <New..> and try adding it I'm not allowed as ".. a solution platform with the same name already exists.". On the build properties for the new project I can't change the platform in the Configuration section, but I can set "Platform target" to x86 in the General section. It is however not clear whether this actually makes a difference, and it wouldn't respond if I change the target platform globally later. Initially I thought this was a problem from converting my solution from VS2008 to VS2010, but the problem applies both places. I.e. when I create a solution in VS2008 and just stay in VS2008 I still get the problem.

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