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  • CSS precedence order? My lecture slides are correct or not?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I've noticed that there are a couple of similar questions and answers at SO already, but let me clarify my specific question here first: I've got lecture slides which states like this: To be frank, I haven't heard of this rule of css precedence myself, and I googled to find something with similar topic but not quite like that : here To have a test myself, I've made a test page on my own server here After running it on FireFox 3.6.3, I am sure it does not show the way as it should be, according to the statement in lecture slides: imported stylesheet ? am I doing it wrong? I cannot see its effect using FireBug it says that embedded stylesheet has a higher precedence over linked/imported stylesheets, however, it doesn't work, if I put the linked/imported tag AFTER that. inline style vs html attributes ? I've got an image where I firstly set its inline style to control the width and height, then use direct html attributes width/height to try modifying that, but failed... Below is the source code : <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> #target { border : 2px solid green; color : green; } </style> <link rel="stylesheet" href="./linked.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> </head> <body> <div id="target">A targeted div tag on page.</div> <img src="cat.jpg" alt="" style="width : 102px; height : 110px;" width="204px" height="220px" /> </body> </html> Can any experienced CSS guys help me figure out if the slide is correct or not? Frankly speaking, I am puzzled myself, as I can clearly see some other "incorrect" statements here and there amongst the slides, such as JavaScript is on client-side (how about server-side JavaScript?) and "Embedded styles are in the head section of a web page "(what the heck? I am not allowed to put it inside the body tag?) Sorry about this silly question, the exam is on TOMORROW, and I now see a lot of things to think about :)

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  • Methods in super that will be subclassed anyway (Cocoa)

    - by Michael Matheus
    Sorry if this is a repost but I couldn't quite search for it because I can't explain it in a few words. I have a super class with lots of methods but they will always (not all of them) be subclassed. From the super I need to access (read only) those methods. I could either leave the methods in super empty or I could just not type them in super but call them anyway like so [self myMethod] and it will call my subclassed method even if it doesn't exist in super. This works but Xcode gives me an error though. 'superclass' may not respond to '-subclassmethod' What should I do?

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  • Redefining PHP function?

    - by Michael
    If I have a function: function this($a){ return $a; } If I wanted to redefine the function, would it be as simple as rewriting it? function this($a, $b){ //New this function return $a * $b; }

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  • Compressing three individual jpeg pics containing temporal redundancy?

    - by michael
    I am interfacing and embedded device with a camera module that returns a single jpeg compressed frame each time I trigger it. I would like to take three successive shots (approx 1 frame per 1/4 second) and further compress the images into a single file. The assumption here is that there is a lot of temporal redundancy, therefore lots of room for more compression across the three frames (compared to sending three separate jpeg images). I will be implementing the solution on an embedded device in C without any libraries and no OS. The camera will be taking pics in an area with very little movement (no visitors or screens in the background, maybe a tree with swaying branches), so I think my assumption about redundancy is pretty solid. When the file is finally viewed on a pc/mac, I don't mind having to write something to extract the three frames (so it can be a nonstandard cluge) So I guess the actual question is: What is the best way to compress these three images together given the fact that they are already in JPEG format (it is a possibly to convert back to a raw image, but if i dont have too...)

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  • navigateToURL with GET parameters in local SWF

    - by Michael Brewer-Davis
    I'm running a Flex application locally (local-with-filesystem or local-trusted), and I'm trying to call navigateToURL to a local page using GET parameters. Flash Player seems to be ignoring the parameters when opening the local page, though. I've been scouring the Flash security pages to find a documented prohibition for this, but haven't found anything. Pointers? How would you work around this issue? My Flex app: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function onClick(event:MouseEvent):void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest("target.html"); request.data = new URLVariables(); request.data.text = "stackoverflow.com"; navigateToURL(request); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Button label="Go" click="onClick(event)" /> </mx:Application> And my target.html: <html> <head> <script language="JavaScript"> <!-- function showURL() { alert(window.location.href); } //--> </script> </head> <body onload="showURL()" /> </html>

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  • How to use the correct Google OpenID url to login to my site?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hello everyone: I am trying to implement OpenID as one preferred option to my next web app here The code is taken from this tutorial and works if I use my openID from myopenid.com However, I believe most people would just love to use their everyday email address as their openID, as far as I know, Google, Yahoo, and some other big players have already done this in their systems. My question is: how could I find the correct "url" to enter in the form to login? I used my Google OpenID account for StackOverflow and it works just fine. I try to copy my openID like this: www.google.com/accounts/o8/id?id=aitoawllano10bzdzp3ht0diffry0qt6_j2ls-m And paste it directly into my form, but it doesn't work. I also tried to remove the url parameter, but that won't do, either. Thanks a lot in advance for any tips and suggestions.

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  • Opinion on "loop invariants", and are these frequently used in the industry?

    - by Michael Aaron Safyan
    I was thinking back to my freshman year at college (five years ago) when I took an exam to place-out of intro-level computer science. There was a question about loop invariants, and I was wondering if loop invariants are really necessary in this case or if the question was simply a bad example... the question was to write an iterative definition for a factorial function, and then to prove that the function was correct. The code that I provided for the factorial function was as follows: public static int factorial(int x) { if ( x < 0 ){ throw new IllegalArgumentException("Parameter must be = 0"); }else if ( x == 0 ){ return 1; }else{ int result = 1; for ( int i = 1; i <= x; i++ ){ result*=i; } return result; } } My own proof of correctness was a proof by cases, and in each I asserted that it was correct by definition (x! is undefined for negative values, 0! is 1, and x! is 1*2*3...*x for a positive value of x). The professor wanted me to prove the loop using a loop invariant; however, my argument was that it was correct "by definition", because the definition of "x!" for a positive integer x is "the product of the integers from 1... x", and the for-loop in the else clause is simply a literal translation of this definition. Is a loop invariant really needed as a proof of correctness in this case? How complicated must a loop be before a loop invariant (and proper initialization and termination conditions) become necessary for a proof of correctness? Additionally, I was wondering... how often are such formal proofs used in the industry? I have found that about half of my courses are very theoretical and proof-heavy and about half are very implementation and coding-heavy, without any formal or theoretical material. How much do these overlap in practice? If you do use proofs in the industry, when do you apply them (always, only if it's complicated, rarely, never)?

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  • Shortcut for rake db:migrate:down for ruby-on-rails

    - by Michaël
    Hi, I want to know if there is a short way to do the migrations down equivalent to rake db:migrate (for the migrations up). Instead of doing : rake db:migrate:up VERSION=1, rake db:migrate:up VERSION=2, ... we can do : rake db:migrate! But for : rake db:migrate:down VERSION=10, rake db:migrate:down VERSION=..., rake db:migrate:down VERSION=1, is there a shortcut? Tank you for your help!

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  • Display of colorblind images

    - by Michael
    Quick question: At this website here http://www.vischeck.com/examples/ there are a few pictures of numbers hidden within another color to test for color blindness. Is there any way that these images can be generated algorithmically?

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  • How do I get Ctrl-Backspace to delete a word in vim within gnome-terminal?

    - by Michael Gundlach
    I'd like Ctrl-Backspace to delete the current word in vim insert mode. From within xterm I can pull this off via :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> but in gnome-terminal I cannot figure out a way to make it happen. When in vim insert mode, if I type control-v and then press backspace, I get ^H in xterm, and ^? in gnome-terminal. Unfortunately, :inoremap <C-?> <C-W> doesn't do the trick in gnome-terminal; control-backspace just erases a single character no matter what. Regarding ASCII codes: Gnome-terminal lets you change the backspace character under Edit - Profile Preferences - Compatibility. Unfortunately, no option works, as far as I can tell: whatever character I apply to Backspace via the settings, if I try mapping the character itself, like :inoremap <C-H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace both erase an entire word; and if I try mapping control plus that character, like :inoremap <C-^H> <C-W> then regular backspace and control-backspace just erase a single character.

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  • razor websites not working and all dlls are present

    - by Michael Tot Korsgaard
    I've uploaded a .cshtml website to a surftown server, and I got some problems running the code. But I have a problem with it running the Razor code. This is how the page renders:(Default.cshtml) I've already checked for internal communication problems. And this is my result: But then why isn't it working, and how can I fix it? I've heard that it can be a problem with views but how whould I fix this if that's the case? My websites folder tree: (And some files too) App_Code App_Data packages Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.Administration.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.Data.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.WebData.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Web.Infrastructure.1.0.0.0 NuGet.Core.1.6.2 bin packages jQuery.2.0.3 Content Scripts Tools Microsoft.AspNet.Mvc.4.0.30506.0 lib net40 Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.2.0.30506.0 lib net40 Microsoft.AspNet.WebPages.2.0.30506.0 lib net40 Pages Chapters Read.cshtml Edit Move Chapter.cshtml Entry.cshtml Entries EnterEntry.cshtml EnterNote.cshtml Login Login.cshtml Search Result.cshtml Scripts Addons TinyMCE Styles CSS Views _Layout.cshtml Default.cshtml My web.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0"> <buildProviders> <add extension=".cshtml" type="System.Web.WebPages.Razor.RazorBuildProvider, System.Web.WebPages.Razor"/> </buildProviders> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </assemblies> </compilation> </system.web> <connectionStrings> <add connectionString="database connection" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration> EDIT: Is it a problem that all my files are .cshtml?

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  • Using JQuery to insert new cells in a table row?

    - by Michael Smith
    I know that JQuery is a very powerful library and was just wondering if it had the following capability that I really need. Lets say I need to insert new cells into a table row, I know how to do this basic task, but I need to insert my cells in a highly unusual way due to some of the requirements that are needed for the new cells. I need to be able to insert cells a certain distance into the row, For example, if a row was 1000pixels wide, is there a feature in JQuery that would allow me to insert the cell 250pixels into the row and have a cell width of 50pixels and insert another cell 500pixels into the row with a cell width of 100pixels. I know how to set a cells width using JQuery, just not distance into a row. The values wont ever be the exact same as above though because they are actually read from a database, so for example, one cell would have the following values: CELL_01 $start=100; $finish=150; the above would mean a new cell is needed that needs to be inserted 100pixels into the row and has a width of 50pixels, I just cant seem to find a way to implement this feature into my application. How could I accomplish this task? Sorry for such a strange question, but i just cant seem to get this working. Thanks!

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  • Simulating a button press without performClick: (cocoa osx/cocotron)

    - by Michael Minerva
    I need to be able to display popup menu when I press an openGL object. I was able to accomplish this by triggering the performClick: of an inviible NSPopupButton and also by triggering the performClickWithFrame:inView: of an NSPopupButtonCell. Both of these methods were successful on OSX but I also need to target the PC and unfortunately performClickWithFrame:inView: is unimplemented in cocotron and performClick does not cause the menu to be displayed when executed on an NSPopupButton (on cocotron). Now there must be someway for this to work because the NSPopupButton does sucesfully display the NSPopupButtonCell when it is clicked but I know it does not accomplish by calling performClick:. Can I access these lower levels methods used by the NSPopupButton to display my menu or force the invisible NSPopupButton to display its menu? If so can anyone link me to some info about this?

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  • How to associate static entity instances in a Session without database retrieval

    - by Michael Hedgpeth
    I have a simple Result class that used to be an Enum but has evolved into being its own class with its own table. public class Result { public static readonly Result Passed = new Result(StatusType.Passed) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result NotRun = new Result(StatusType.NotRun) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result Running = new Result(StatusType.Running) { Id = [Predefined] }; } Each of these predefined values has a row in the database at their predefined Guid Id. There is then a failed result that has an instance per failure: public class FailedResult : Result { public FailedResult(string description) : base(StatusType.Failed) { . . . } } I then have an entity that has a Result: public class Task { public Result Result { get; set; } } When I save a Task, if the Result is a predefined one, I want NHibernate to know that it doesn't need to save that to the database, nor does it need to fetch it from the database; I just want it to save by Id. The way I get around this is when I am setting up the session, I call a method to load the static entities: protected override void OnSessionOpened(ISession session) { LockStaticResults(session, Result.Passed, Result.NotRun, Result.Running); } private static void LockStaticResults(ISession session, params Result[] results) { foreach (var result in results) { session.Load(result, result.Id); } } The problem with the session.Load method call is it appears to be fetching to the database (something I don't want to do). How could I make this so it does not fetch the database, but trusts that my static (immutable) Result instances are both up to date and a part of the session?

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  • JDO difficulties in retrieving persistent vector

    - by Michael Omer
    I know there are already some posts regarding this subject, but although I tried using them as a reference, I am still stuck. I have a persistent class as follows: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObject implements IMySerializable{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) protected Key m_databaseKey; @NotPersistent private final static int END_GAME_VAR = -1000; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") protected GameObjectSet m_set; @Persistent protected int m_databaseType = IDatabaseAccess.TYPE_NONE; where GameObjectSet is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) @FetchGroup(name = "mySet", members = {@Persistent(name = "m_set")}) public class GameObjectSet { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private Vector<GameObjectSetPair> m_set; and GameObjectSetPair is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObjectSetPair { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private String key; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") private GameObjectVar value; When I try to fetch the entire structure by fetching the GameObject, the set doesn't have any elements (they are all null) I tried adding the fetching group to the PM, but to no avail. This is my fetching code Vector<GameObject> ret = new Vector<GameObject>(); PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); pm.getFetchPlan().setMaxFetchDepth(-1); pm.getFetchPlan().addGroup("mySet"); Query myQuery = pm.newQuery(GameObject.class); myQuery.setFilter("m_databaseType == objectType"); myQuery.declareParameters("int objectType"); try { List<GameObject> res = (List<GameObject>)myQuery.execute(objectType); ret = new Vector<GameObject>(res); for (int i = 0; i < ret.size(); i++) { ret.elementAt(i).getSet(); ret.elementAt(i).getSet().touchSet(); } } catch (Exception e) { } finally { pm.close(); } Does anyone have any idea? Thanks Mike

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  • Access: Reading deleted record buffer

    - by Michael Itzoe
    According to the Access (2003) documentation, when you delete a record, it's placed in a buffer, then the BeforeDeleteConfirm event is raised, then the AfterConfirmDelete ad Delete events. In my table if a record is deleted, I need to add one of its field values (a quantity value) to a field in another table. I tried setting the quantity to a private variable in the Current event, but as soon as I delete click delete, it looks like the Current event fires again and resets my variable. How can I access the value of a field in a deleted record?

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  • How can I set the TextColor of a TextAppearanceSpan?

    - by michael
    Hi, I currently able to create a Medium size TextAppearanceSpan, But how can I set the text color to a specified RBG color (say #c71585)? new TextAppearanceSpan(context, android.R.style.TextAppearance_Medium); I see there is a constructor for public TextAppearanceSpan(Context context, int appearance, int colorList) { But what is the int for colorList? Is there any example for this? Thank you.

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  • Writing a Compiler for .net - IL or Bytecode?

    - by Michael Stum
    I'm currently diving into the inner workings of .net, which means IL. As an exercise, I want to build a brainf..k compiler for .net (yes, they already exist, but as said it's for learning purposes). For the moment I'm just writing some text files that contain .il and compile them with ilasm, which works. But I wonder if I could/should go one level deeper and write bytecode directly? My "concern" is the Windows PE Stuff when compiling an EXE - instead of ilasm I would need some sort of Bytecode linker that would take my MSIL/CIL bytecode and generate the PE Stuff for it? Or do compilers "only" compile their language to IL and execute ilasm? Is there a managed version of it that I can call/embed from my compiler?

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  • Payment Processors - What do I need to know if I want to accept credit cards on my website?

    - by Michael Pryor
    This question talks about different payment processors and what they cost, but I'm looking for the answer to what do I need to do if I want to accept credit card payments? Assume I need to store credit card numbers for customers, so that the obvious solution of relying on the credit card processor to do the heavy lifting is not available. PCI Data Security, which is apparently the standard for storing credit card info, has a bunch of general requirements, but how does one implement them? And what about the vendors, like Visa, who have their own best practices? Do I need to have keyfob access to the machine? What about physically protecting it from hackers in the building? Or even what if someone got their hands on the backup files with the sql server data files on it? What about backups? Are there other physical copies of that data around? Tip: If you get a merchant account, you should negotiate that they charge you "interchange-plus" instead of tiered pricing. With tiered pricing, they will charge you different rates based on what type of Visa/MC is used -- ie. they charge you more for cards with big rewards attached to them. Interchange plus billing means you only pay the processor what Visa/MC charges them, plus a flat fee. (Amex and Discover charge their own rates directly to merchants, so this doesn't apply to those cards. You'll find Amex rates to be in the 3% range and Discover could be as low as 1%. Visa/MC is in the 2% range). This service is supposed to do the negotiation for you (I haven't used it, this is not an ad, and I'm not affiliated with the website, but this service is greatly needed.) This blog post gives a complete rundown of handling credit cards (specifically for the UK).

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