Search Results

Search found 10634 results on 426 pages for 'pass it on'.

Page 62/426 | < Previous Page | 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69  | Next Page >

  • Can I pass a string variable into an <a href> tag for a website link?

    - by Joseph
    I am somewhat new to web developing, so I am trying to learn along the way. I have a div that is 500 x 500. Inside of that div I have two divs that are each 250x500. So my outer div is filled up with the two inner divs. I have it setup so that when I click on the first div (the left one) a java script is called, and a prompt pop up box asks for a website URL which is then stored inside of a string variable. How can I make it so that the second div (the right one) takes the string variable from the alert box from the left div and puts it into an a href tag so that I can link to the website from the right div? Can a a href tag accept a value from a variable for its link? Maybe I am going about this all wrong, is there a better way I should be approaching this? Any help is appreciated!!

    Read the article

  • How to pass a linc to class function and call it?

    - by Kabumbus
    So I have a class like class mySafeData { public: void Set( int i ) { myMutex.lock(); myData = i; myMutex.unlock(); } void Get( int& i) { myMutex.lock(); i = myData; myMutex.unlock(); } private: int myData; boost::mutex myMutex; }; its instance is running. Lets call instance A. I want to create a new class that would take as a start up argument some kind of link to Getter from A and would be capable to somehow save link to thet getter for calling it inside its private methods vhen needed. how to do such thing?

    Read the article

  • When I try to pass large amounts of information using jquery $.ajax(post) method. it throws potenti

    - by dotnetrocks
    I am trying to create a preview window for my texteditor in my blog page. I need to send the content to the server to clean up the text entered before I can preview it on the preview window. I was trying to use $.ajax({ type: method, url: url, data: values, success: LoadPageCallback(targetID), error: function(msg) { $('#' + targetID).attr('innerHTML', 'An error has occurred. Please try again.'); } }); Whenever I tried to click on the preview button it returns an XMLHTTPRequest error. The error description - Description: Request Validation has detected a potentially dangerous client input value, and processing of the request has been aborted. This value may indicate an attempt to compromise the security of your application, such as a cross-site scripting attack. You can disable request validation by setting validateRequest=false in the Page directive or in the configuration section. However, it is strongly recommended that your application explicitly check all inputs in this case. The ValidateRequest for the page is set to false. Is there a way I can set validaterequest to false for the ajax call.Please advise Thank you for reading my post.

    Read the article

  • What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

    - by nopopem
    I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

    Read the article

  • How does Symfony pass members set in an action to a template?

    - by Martin Chatterton
    How does a member set inside an action... $this->foo = 'bar'; ...become a variable accessible from a template... echo $foo; // bar I would like to know how it is achieved at a framework level. There is a lot of documentation on how to use Symfony, but I've not managed to find much about how it all fits together behind the scenes (class structure/inheritance etc). Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Pass object from JSON into MVC Controller - its always null ?

    - by SteveCl
    Hi I have seen a few questions on here related to the a similar issue, I have read them, followed them, but still i have the same problem. I am basically creating an object in javascript and trying to call a method on the controller that will return a string of html. Not JSON. I've been playing around with dataType and contentType but still no joy. So apologies if the code snippets are a bit messy. Build the object in JS. function GetCardModel() { var card = {}; card.CardTitle = $("#CardTitle").val(); card.TopicTitle = $("#TopicTitle").val(); card.TopicBody = $("#TopicBody").data("tEditor").value(); card.CardClose = $("#CardClose").val(); card.CardFromName = $("#CardFromName").val(); return card; } Take a look at the object - all looks good and as it should in JSON. var model = GetCardModel(); alert(JSON.stringify(GetCardModel())); Make the call... $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Postcard/Create/Preview/", dataType: "json", //contentType: "application/json", date: GetCardModel(), processData: true, success: function (data) { alert("im back"); alert(data); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, error) { alert(xhr.status); alert("Error: " + xhr.responseText); //alert(error); } }); Always when I step into the controller, the object is ALWAYS there, but with null values for all the properties.

    Read the article

  • How do I pass Url Parameters on a POST?

    - by Robert Harvey
    I have a controller method with the following signature: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult UpdateValues(int id, MyViewModel[] array) { } The id is normally picked up as part of the Url on other GET controller methods (I have a working route that does this) I am successfully passing the array1 from the form in my view to the controller method, but how do I also put the id onto my Url so that when the user clicks the Submit button, the controller method will pick up the ID?

    Read the article

  • How to pass a value between Silverlight pages for WP7?

    - by Sebastian Gray
    I've got a MainPage.xaml page a Detail.xaml page. I've passed variables to the Detail.xaml from MainPage.xaml by using a static variable and referencing it in Detail.xaml (the detail page is acting like a dialog). However once I've updated the content of another object, I want to call a method in MainPage.xaml to refresh the content of that page using the updated object from the Detail.xaml page. I assume I am not using the correct paradigm for this and should probably be using MVVM or something but I'm not familiar with the implementation and was hoping there was a simple way to do this?

    Read the article

  • How can pass parameters to a flash Movie in Delphi 2010?

    - by m-abdi
    I have imported the ShockWave flash Activex Control in my Delphi project. I can manipulate All the properties of a Flash movie file. But I need to define my own Parameters in the my own Flash file and Manipulate those parameters in the Delphi project. I know that passing parameters to a flash file is possible in the HTML script. But my project is a desktop application and i can't use it. Is it possible to get a handle to the defined parameter of a flash file in the Delphi project? in fact All i need is passing parameter to flash file in the Delphi project.

    Read the article

  • How could I pass the float number by value in obj-c?

    - by user313439
    - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application{ // Override point for customization after application launch [window makeKeyAndVisible]; [self printFloat:1.3f]; } - (void)printFloat:(float)f { NSLog(@"%f",f); } I passed the "1.3f" to printFloat, but it was the wrong value (in this case, -2.000000) after "f" received. And there is a warning that "AppDelegate may not respond to -printFloat:" Where did I get it wrong? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can you pass GET values to another url in php? GET value forwarding

    - by gobackpacking
    Ok, so I'm using Jquery's AJAX function and it's having trouble passing a URL with a http address. So I'm hoping to "get" the GET values and send them to another URL — so: a local php file begin passed GET values, which in turn forwards the GET values to another url. Maybe curl is the answer? I don't know. It's got to be a very short answer I know. pseudo code: //retrieve the GET values $var retrieve [GET] //passing it to another url send get values to url ($var, url_address)

    Read the article

  • [PHP] How to pass array as multiple parameters to function?

    - by vbklv
    I have a parameters array: $params[1] = 'param1'; $params[2] = 'param2'; $params[3] = 'param3'; ... $params[N] = 'paramN'; I have a caller to various functions: $method->$function( $params ); How can I parse the $params array, so multiple (and unlimited) parameters can be passed to any function: $method->$function( $param[1], $param[2], ..., $param[N] );

    Read the article

  • Couldn't I just pass an copied string to an Core Data property?

    - by dontWatchMyProfile
    The docs say: The default implementation does not copy attribute values. If the attribute value may be mutable and implements the NSCopying protocol (as is the case with NSString, for example), you can copy the value in a custom accessor to help preserve encapsulation (for example, in the case where an instance of NSMutableString is passed as a value). So instead of getting into trouble and inconvenience with overwriting accessors in my NSManagedObject subclass, couldn't I simply do something like this? myManagedObject.firstName = [[firstNameMutableStr copy] autorelease]; This would have the exact same effect, or not? The dynamic implementation would retain that anyways ... so.... why not the easy way?

    Read the article

  • How do I pass dependency to object with Castle Windsor and MS Test?

    - by Nick
    I am trying to use Castle Windsor with MS Test. The test class only seems to use the default constructor. How do I configure Castle to resolve the service in the constructor? Here is the Test Class' constructors: private readonly IWebBrowser _browser; public DepressionSummaryTests() { } public DepressionSummaryTests(IWebBrowser browser) { _browser = browser; } My component in the app config looks like so: <castle> <components> <component id="browser" service="ConversationSummary.IWebBrowser, ConversationSummary" type="ConversationSummary.Browser" /> </components> </castle> Here is my application container: public class ApplicationContainer : WindsorContainer { private static IWindsorContainer container; static ApplicationContainer() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); } private static IWindsorContainer Container { get { return container; } } public static IWebBrowser Browser { get { return (IWebBrowser) Container.Resolve("browser"); } } } MS test requires the default constructor. What am I missing? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Cannot pass a input from text box to a query string and then keep the string in this box.

    - by Nikita Barsukov
    I have a simple ASP.net page: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <p><asp:TextBox id="input_box" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button Text="OK" runat="server" OnClick="run" /></p> </form> I want to send input from input_box to a query string, and then keep this input in the input_box when the page reloads. That's the code behind page: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { input_box.Text = Request.QueryString["input"]; } protected void run(object sender, EventArgs e) { string url = string.Format("?input={0}", input_box.Text); Response.Redirect(Request.Url.AbsolutePath + url); } Problem is that when query string is not empty, string from input_box cannot be passed to query string. How to correct it?

    Read the article

  • how to pass session_id() throught out the php pages?

    - by Piyush
    when user clicks on login button(index.php) I am calling chechlogin.php where I am checking loginId an password as- if($count==1) { // Register $myusername, $mypassword and redirect to file "login_success.php" session_register("myusername"); session_register("mypassword"); $_SESSION['UserId'] = $myusername; $_session['SessionId'] = session_id(); header("location:LoggedUser.php"); } in LiggedUser.php <?php session_start(); //starting session if (!isset($_SESSION['SessionId']) || $_SESSION['SessionId'] == '') { header("location:index.php"); } ? Problem: It is always going back to index.php page although I am entering right userid and password.I think session_id() is not working properly or ??

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to pass an anonymous array as an argument in C++?

    - by Jeremy Friesner
    Hi all, I'd like to be able to declare an array as a function argument in C++, as shown in the example code below (which doesn't compile). Is there any way to do this (other than declaring the array separately beforehand)? #include <stdio.h> static void PrintArray(int arrayLen, const int * array) { for (int i=0; i<arrayLen; i++) printf("%i -> %i\n", i, array[i]); } int main(int, char **) { PrintArray(5, {5,6,7,8,9} ); // doesn't compile return 0; }

    Read the article

  • How to pass variables to slot methods in QT?

    - by Neko
    Hi. I'm making a little chat messenger program, which needs a list of chat channels the user has joined. To represent this list graphically, I have made a list of QPushButtons, which all represent a different channel. These buttons are made with the following method, and that's where my problem kicks in: void Messenger::addToActivePanels(std::string& channel) { activePanelsContents = this->findChild<QWidget *>(QString("activePanelsContents")); pushButton = new QPushButton(activePanelsContents); pushButton->setObjectName("pushButton"); pushButton->setGeometry(QRect(0, 0, 60, 60)); pushButton->setText(""); pushButton->setToolTip(QString(channel.c_str())); pushButton->setCheckable(true); pushButton->setChecked(false); connect(pushButton, SIGNAL(clicked()), this, SLOT(switchTab(channel))); } (activePanelContents is a QWidget that holds the list.) The point is that each button should call the switchTab(string& tabname) method when clicked, including the specific channel's name as variable. This implementation doesn't work though, and I haven't been able to find out how to properly do this, even after reading several pages on it on the internet. Can anybody please tell me how to do this? It'd be greatly appreciated, as always. :)

    Read the article

  • How to pass PHP array parameter to Javascript Function???

    - by Son of Man
    index.php <script type="text/javascript" src="javascript.js"> </script> <?php $movies = array("Bloodsport", "Kickboxer", "Cyborg", "Timecop", "Universal Soldier", "In Hell", "The Quest"); ?> <input type="submit" value="Test Javascript" onclick="showMovies(<?php echo $movies; ?>);" /> javascript.js function showMovies(movies) { alert(movies.length); return false; } I am new to programming so Im having hard time fixing this one which is obviously simple for you guys. When I hit the submit button it says the that the array size is 1 which I think should be 7. How could this be??? Pls tell me what to do... Thanks in Advance...

    Read the article

  • Can I pass a non-generic type where a generic type is expected?

    - by Water Cooler v2
    I want to define a set of classes that collect and persist data. I want to call them either on-demand basis, or in a chain-of-responsibility fashion, as the caller pleases. To support the chaining, I have declared my interface like so: interface IDataManager<T, K> { T GetData(K args); void WriteData(Stream stream); void WriteData(T data, Stream stream); IDataCollectionPolicy Policy; IDataManager<T, K> NextDataManager; } But the T's and K's for each concrete types will be different. If I give it like this: IDataManager<T, K> NextDataManager; I assume that the calling code will only be able to chain types that have the same T's and K's. Is there a way I can have it chain any type of IDataManager? One thing that occurs to me is to have IDataManager inherit from a non-generic IDataManager like so: interface IDataManager { } interface IDataManager<T, K>: IDataManager { T GetData(K args); void WriteData(Stream stream); void WriteData(T data, Stream stream); IDataCollectionPolicy Policy; IDataManager NextDataManager; } Is this going to work?

    Read the article

  • how to pass an integeter array from a asp.net mvc controller action back to javascript using jquery

    - by oo
    Here is my jQuery code: $.get('/Home/GetList', function(data) { debugger; $('#myMultiSelect').val(data); }); Here is my controller code: public ActionResult GetList(int id) { int[] bodyParts = _repository.GetList(id); //how do i return this as an array back to javascript ?? } if I have the GetList function return an array of integers, how do I return this to the jQuery function?

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to get direct_to_template to pass RequestContext in django?

    - by BigJason
    I have found myself writing the same view over and over. It is basically this: def home_index(request): return render_to_response('home/index.html', RequestContext(request)) To keep with the dry principal, I would like to utilize a generic view. I have seen direct_to_template, but it passes an empty context. So how can I use a generic view and still get the power of RequestContext?

    Read the article

  • How can I pass a hash to a Perl subroutine?

    - by Vishalrix
    In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69  | Next Page >