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• Designing for varying mobile device resolutions, i.e. iPhone 4 & iPhone 3G

  - by Josh

  As the design community moves to design applications & interfaces for mobile devices, a new problem has arisen: Varying Screen DPI's. Here's the situation: Touch: * iPhone 3G/S ~ 160 dpi * iPhone 4 ~ 300 dpi * iPad ~ 126 dpi * Android device @ 480p ~ 200 dpi Point / click: * Laptop @ 720p ~ 96 dpi * Desktop @ 720p ~ 72 dpi There is certainly a clear distinction between desktop and mobile so having two separate front-ends to the same app is logical, especially when considering one is "touch"-based and the other is "point/click"-based. The challenge lies in designing static graphical elements that will scale between, say, 160 dpi and 300+ dpi, and get consistent and clean design across zoom levels. Any thoughts on how to approach this? Here are some scenarios, but each has drawbacks as well: * Design a single set of assets (high resolution), then adjust zoom levels based on detected resolution / device o Drawbacks: Performance caused by code layering, varying device support of Zoom * Develop & optimize multiple variations of image and CSS assets, then hide / show each based on device o Drawbacks: Extra work in design & QA. Anyone have thoughts or experience on how to deal with this? We should certainly be looking at methods that use / support HTML5 and CSS3.

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• [Processing/Java]Visibility/Layering Issue

  - by nnash

  I'm working on a small sketch in processing where I am making a "clock" using the time functions and drawing ellipses across the canvas based on milliseconds, seconds and minutes. I'm using a for loop to draw all of the ellipses and each for loop is inside its own method. I'm calling each of these methods in the draw function. However for some reason only the first method that is called is being drawn, when ideally I would like to have them all being visibly rendered. //setup program void setup() { size(800, 600); frameRate(30); background(#eeeeee); smooth(); } void draw(){ milliParticles(); secParticles(); minParticles(); } //time based particles void milliParticles(){ for(int i = int(millis()); i >= 0; i++) { ellipse(random(800), random(600), 5, 5 ); fill(255); } } void secParticles() { for(int i = int(second()); i >= 0; i++) { fill(0); ellipse(random(800), random(600), 10, 10 ); background(#eeeeee); } } void minParticles(){ for(int i = int(minute()); i >= 0; i++) { fill(50); ellipse(random(800), random(600), 20, 20 ); } }

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• Additional information in ASP.Net MVC View

  - by Max Malmgren

  I am attempting to implement a custom locale service in an MVC 2 webpage. I have an interface IResourceDictionary that provides a couple of methods for accessing resources by culture. This is because I want to avoid the static classes of .Net resources. The problem is accessing the chosen IResourceDictionary from the views. I have contemplated using the ViewDataDictionary given, creating a base controller from which all my controllers inherits that adds my IResourceDictionary to the ViewData before each action executes. Then I could call my resource dictionary this way: (ViewData["Resources"] as IResourceDictionary).GetEntry(params); Admittedly, this is extremely verbose and ugly, especially in inline code as we are encouraged to use in MVC. Right now I am leaning towards static class access ResourceDictionary.GetEntry(params); because it is slightly more elegant. I also thought about adding it to my typed model for each page, which seems more robust than adding it to the ViewData.. What is the preferred way to access my ResourceDictionary from the views? All my views will be using this dictionary.

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• Kill process started with System.Diagnostic.Process.Start("FileName")

  - by PedroC88

  Hello; I am trying to create an app that will perform actions on specific times (much like the Windows Task Scheduler). I am currently using Process.Start() to lunch the file (or exe) required by the task. I am initiating a process by calling a file (an .mp3) and the process starts WMP (since it is the default application), so far so good. Now I wan't to kill that process. I know that it is normal behavior for the Process.Start(string, string) to return nothing (null in C#) in this case. So I am asking how can i close WMP when I called it through Process.Start(string, string)?? Edit: Please note that I am not opening WMP directly with Process.Start() and this is the line with which I run the process: VB: Me._procs.Add(Process.Start(Me._procInfo)) C#: this._procs.Add(Process.Start(this._procInfo)) _procInfo is a ProcessStartInfo instance. _procInfo.FileName is "C:\route\myFile.mp3". That is why WMP opens. In any case, all of the Start() methods, except for the instance-one which returns a boolean, return nothing (null in C#), because WMP is not the process that was directly created (please note that WMP is run and the song does play).

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• Inheritance concept java..help

  - by max

  Hi everyone. I'd be very grateful if someone could help me to understand the inheritance concept in Java. Is the following code an example of that? I mean the class WavPanel is actually a subclass of JPanel which acts as a superclass. Is that correct? If so it means that "what JPanel has, also WavPanel but it is more specific since through its methods you can do something else". Am I wrong? thank you. Max import javax.swing.JPanel; class WavPanel extends JPanel { List<Byte> audioBytes; List<Line2D.Double> lines; public WavPanel() { super(); setBackground(Color.black); resetWaveform(); } public void resetWaveform() { audioBytes = new ArrayList<Byte>(); lines = new ArrayList<Line2D.Double>(); repaint(); } }

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• ASP.NET MVC Search

  - by Cameron

  Hi I'm building a very simple search system using ASP.NET MVC. I had it originally work by doing all the logic inside the controller but I am now moving the code piece by piece into a repository. Can anyone help me do this. Thanks. Here is the original Action Result that was in the controller. public ActionResult Index(String query) { var ArticleQuery = from m in _db.ArticleSet select m; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { ArticleQuery = ArticleQuery.Where(m => m.headline.Contains(query) orderby m.posted descending); } return View(ArticleQuery.ToList()); } As you can see, the Index method is used for both the initial list of articles and also for the search results (they use the same view). In the new system the code in the controller is as follows: public ActionResult Index() { return View(_repository.ListAll()); } The Repository has the following code: public IList<Article> ListAll() { var ArticleQuery = (from m in _db.ArticleSet orderby m.posted descending select m); return ArticleQuery.ToList(); } and the Interface has the following code: public interface INewsRepository { IList<Article> ListAll(); } So what I need to do is now add in the search query stuff into the repository/controller methods using this new way. Can anyone help? Thanks.

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• Background loading javascript into iframe without using jQuery/Ajax?

  - by user210099

  I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

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• Apache mod_rewrite : How to REWRITE (or whatever) child directories to parent?

  - by ????

  Actually i am trying to make a PHP MVC like application. A basic one. The current milestone i am reaching already includes: Basic RESTful Routing Means, if i type: www.example.com/items/book/8888 .. it properly just stays there as it is and i can already slice out the URL by slashes / and loads the responsible Controllers .... etc from the top single index.php file. I mean, so it is OK for the backend PHP. But the only problem is, it still CAN NOT process the REWRITES properly. For example, the CSS & JS are BROKEN as if i VIEW PAGE SOURCE of the page www.example.com/items/book/8888, the asset files are being called as: www.example.com/items/book/8888/css/main.css www.example.com/items/book/8888/js/jquery.js .. which really are PROBLEMS because in the code is like: <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" media="all" href="css/main.css"> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.js"></script> So the question is: How can i use Apache REWRITE (or whatever approach) to make sure every ASSET FILES to be correctly being called from the DOCROOT. For example, if i am in the URL: www.example.com/items/book/8888 My ASSET FILES should still be called as: www.example.com/css/main.css www.example.com/js/jquery.js Or is there any other methods i need to follow? Please kindly help suggest. Thank you.

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• Problems Expanding an Array in C++

  - by dxq

  I'm writing a simulation for class, and part of it involves the reproduction of organisms. My organisms are kept in an array, and I need to increase the size of the array when they reproduce. Because I have multiple classes for multiple organisms, I used a template: template <class orgType> void expandarray(orgType* oldarray, int& numitems, int reproductioncount) { orgType *newarray = new orgType[numitems+reproductioncount]; for (int i=0; i<numitems; i++) { newarray[i] = oldarray[i]; } numitems += reproductioncount; delete[] oldarray; oldarray = newarray; newarray = NULL; } However, this template seems to be somehow corrupting my data. I can run the program fine without reproduction (commenting out the calls to expandarray), but calling this function causes my program to crash. The program does not crash DURING the expandarray function, but crashes on access violation later on. I've written functions to expand an array hundreds of times, and I have no idea what I screwed up this time. Is there something blatantly wrong in my function? Does it look right to you? EDIT: Thanks for everyone's help. I can't believe I missed something so obvious. In response to using std::vector: we haven't discussed it in class yet, and as silly as it seems, I need to write code using the methods we've been taught.

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• Inline horizontal spacer in HTML

  - by LeafStorm

  I am making a Web page with a slideshow, using the same technique used on http://zine.pocoo.org/. The person I'm making the site for wants the slideshow to be centered. However, some of the photos are portrait layout and some are landscape. (This was not my choice.) I need a position: absolute to get the li's containing the items in the right place, so centering them does not work. (At least, not by normal methods.) So, I thought that it might work to insert a 124-pixel "spacer" before the image on the portrait pictures. I tried it with a <span style="width: 124px;">&nbsp;</span>, but it only inserts a single space, not the full 124 pixels. The slideshow fades in and out OK, though, so I think that it would work if I could get the proper spacing. My question is this: does anyone know a way to have 124px of space inline in HTML (preferably without using images), or another way to center the pictures in the li items?

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• java packets byte

  - by user303289

  Guys, I am implementing a protocol in one of the wireless project. I am stucked at one point. In of the java file i am suppose to receive a packet and that packet is 12 byte packet and I have to write different functions for reading different parts of packets and convert it to diferent type. Like I want first four byte in one of the function and convert it to int, next two bytes in string. and again next two in string, last two hop in string and followed by last two int. I want follwing function to implement: // here is the interface /* FloodingData should use methods defined in this class. */ class FloodingPacket{ public static void main(String arg[]){ byte FloodingPack[]; // just for example to test in code FloodingPack=new byte[12]; interface IFloodingPacket { // Returns the unique sequence number for the packet int getSequenceNumber() ; // Returns the source address for the packet String getSourceAddress(); // Returns the destination address for the packet String getDestinationAddress(); // Returns the last hop address for the packet String getLastHopAddress(); // Sets the last hop address to the address of the node // which the packet was received from void updateLastHopAddress(); // Returns the entire packet in bytes (for sending) byte[] getBytes(); // Sets the bytes of the packet (for receiving) void setBytes(byte[] packet); }

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• License key pattern detection?

  - by Ricket

  This is not a real situation; please ignore legal issues that you might think apply, because they don't. Let's say I have a set of 200 known valid license keys for a hypothetical piece of software's licensing algorithm, and a license key consists of 5 sets of 5 alphanumeric case-insensitive (all uppercase) characters. Example: HXDY6-R3DD7-Y8FRT-UNPVT-JSKON Is it possible (or likely) to extrapolate other possible keys for the system? What if the set was known to be consecutive; how do the methods change for this situation, and what kind of advantage does this give? I have heard of "keygens" before, but I believe they are probably made by decompiling the licensing software rather than examining known valid keys. In this case, I am only given the set of keys and I must determine the algorithm. I'm also told it is an industry standard algorithm, so it's probably not something basic, though the chance is always there I suppose. If you think this doesn't belong in Stack Overflow, please at least suggest an alternate place for me to look or ask the question. I honestly don't know where to begin with a problem like this. I don't even know the terminology for this kind of problem.

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• F# why my recursion is faster than Seq.exists?

  - by user38397

  I am pretty new to F#. I'm trying to understand how I can get a fast code in F#. For this, I tried to write two methods (IsPrime1 and IsPrime2) for benchmarking. My code is: // Learn more about F# at http://fsharp.net open System open System.Diagnostics #light let isDivisible n d = n % d = 0 let IsPrime1 n = Array.init (n-2) ((+) 2) |> Array.exists (isDivisible n) |> not let rec hasDivisor n d = match d with | x when x < n -> (n % x = 0) || (hasDivisor n (d+1)) | _ -> false let IsPrime2 n = hasDivisor n 2 |> not let SumOfPrimes max = [|2..max|] |> Array.filter IsPrime1 |> Array.sum let maxVal = 20000 let s = new Stopwatch() s.Start() let valOfSum = SumOfPrimes maxVal s.Stop() Console.WriteLine valOfSum Console.WriteLine("IsPrime1: {0}", s.ElapsedMilliseconds) ////////////////////////////////// s.Reset() s.Start() let SumOfPrimes2 max = [|2..max|] |> Array.filter IsPrime2 |> Array.sum let valOfSum2 = SumOfPrimes2 maxVal s.Stop() Console.WriteLine valOfSum2 Console.WriteLine("IsPrime2: {0}", s.ElapsedMilliseconds) Console.ReadKey() IsPrime1 takes 760 ms while IsPrime2 takes 260ms for the same result. What's going on here and how I can make my code even faster?

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• Manipulate method functionality call

  - by danrichardson

  Hello, is it possibly in c# to have some sort of base class functionality which is manipulated slightly based on the class. For instance say i have the following code (which will quite obviously not compile it's meant to only be for demonstrative purposes) class BaseFunctionality { public virtual bool adminCall public static string MethodName(int id, string parameter) { if (adminCall) return dbcall.Execute(); else return dbcall.ExecuteMe(); } } class Admin : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = true; } class Front : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = false; } Now what i would like to be able to do is; string AdminCall = Admin.MethodName(1, "foo"); string FrontCall = Front.MethodName(2, "bar"); Is their any way to do something like this? I'm trying to do everything with static methods so i do not have to instantiate classes all the time, and have nice clean code which is only being manipulated in one place. The idea behind this is so that there is minimal code repeating and makes things easier to expand on, so for instance another class could implement the BaseFunctionality later on. Thanks Dan

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• Unit Tests Architecture Question

  - by Tom Tresansky

  So I've started to layout unit tests for the following bit of code: public interface MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1(); void MyInterfaceMethod2(); } public class MyImplementation1 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do something } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something else } void SubRoutineP() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } public class MyImplementation2 implements MyInterface { void MyInterfaceMethod1() { // do a 3rd thing } void MyInterfaceMethod2() { // do something completely different } void SubRoutineQ() { // other functionality specific to this implementation } } with several implementations and the expectation of more to come. My initial thought was to save myself time re-writing unit tests with something like this: public abstract class MyInterfaceTester { protected MyInterface m_object; @Setup public void setUp() { m_object = getTestedImplementation(); } public abstract MyInterface getTestedImplementation(); @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod1() { // use m_object to run tests } @Test public void testMyInterfaceMethod2() { // use m_object to run tests } } which I could then subclass easily to test the implementation specific additional methods like so: public class MyImplementation1Tester extends MyInterfaceTester { public MyInterface getTestedImplementation() { return new MyImplementation1(); } @Test public void testSubRoutineP() { // use m_object to run tests } } and likewise for implmentation 2 onwards. So my question really is: is there any reason not to do this? JUnit seems to like it just fine, and it serves my needs, but I haven't really seen anything like it in any of the unit testing books and examples I've been reading. Is there some best practice I'm unwittingly violating? Am I setting myself up for heartache down the road? Is there simply a much better way out there I haven't considered? Thanks for any help.

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• Abstract Design Pattern implementation

  - by Pathachiever11

  I started learning design patterns a while ago (only covered facade and abstract so far, but am enjoying it). I'm looking to apply the Abstract pattern to a problem I have. The problem is: Supporting various Database systems using one abstract class and a set of methods and properties, which then the underlying concrete classes (inheriting from abstract class) would be implementing. I have created a DatabaseWrapper abstract class and have create SqlClientData and MSAccessData concrete class that inherit from the DatabaseWrapper. However, I'm still a bit confused about how the pattern goes as far as implementing these classes on the Client. Would I do the following?: DatabaseWrapper sqlClient = new SqlClientData(connectionString); This is what I saw in an example, but that is not what I'm looking for because I want to encapsulate the concrete classes; I only want the Client to use the abstract class. This is so I can support for more database systems in the future with minimal changes to the Client, and creating a new concrete class for the implementations. I'm still learning, so there might be a lot of things wrong here. Please tell me how I can encapsulate all the concrete classes, and if there is anything wrong with my approach. Many Thanks! PS: I'm very excited to get into software architecture, but still am a beginner, so take it easy on me. :)

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• Help with java threads or executors: Executing several MySQL selects, inserts and updates simmultane

  - by Martin

  Hi. I'm writing an application to analyse a MySQL database, and I need to execute several DMLs simmultaneously; for example: // In ResultSet rsA: Select * from A; rsA.beforeFirst(); while (rsA.next()) { id = rsA.getInt("id"); // Retrieve data from table B: Select * from B where B.Id=" + id; // Crunch some numbers using the data from B // Close resultset B } I'm declaring an array of data objects, each with its own Connection to the database, which in turn calls several methods for the data analysis. The problem is all threads use the same connection, thus all tasks throw exceptios: "Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction" I believe there is a way to write the code in such a way that any given object has its own connection and executes the required tasks independent from any other object. For example: DataObject dataObject[0] = new DataObject(id[0]); DataObject dataObject[1] = new DataObject(id[1]); DataObject dataObject[2] = new DataObject(id[2]); ... DataObject dataObject[N] = new DataObject(id[N]); // The 'DataObject' class has its own connection to the database, // so each instance of the object should use its own connection. // It also has a "run" method, which contains all the tasks required. Executor ex = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(10); for(i=0;i<=N;i++) { ex.execute(dataObject[i]); } // Here where the problem is: Each instance creates a new connection, // but every DML from any of the objects is cluttered in just one connection // (in MySQL command line, "SHOW PROCESSLIST;" throws every connection, and all but // one are idle). Can you point me in the right direction? Thanks

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• Hibernate 1:M relationship ,row order, constant values table and concurrency

  - by EugeneP

  table A and B need to have 1:M relationship a and b are added during application runtime, so A created, then say 4 B's created. Each B instance has to come in order, so that I could later extract them in the same order as I added them. The app will be a web-app running on Tomcat, so 10 instances may work simultaneously. So my question are: 1) How to preserve inserting order, so that I could extract B instances that A references in the same order as I persisted them. That's tricky, because we add to a Collection and then it gets saved (am I right?). So, it depends on how Hibernate saves it, what if it changes the order in what we added instances? I've seen something like LIST instead of SET when describing relationships, is that what I need? 2) How to add a 3-rd column to B so that I could differentiate the instances, something like SEX(M,F,U) in B table. Do I need a special table, or there's and easy way to describe constants in Hibernate. What do you recommend? 3) Talking about concurrency, what methods do you recommend to use? There should be no collisions in the db and as you see, there might easily be some if rows are not inserted (PK added) right where it is invoked without delays ?

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• Obj-c method override/polymorphism problem

  - by Rod

  Ok, so I'm using Objective-C. Now, say I have: TopClass : NSObject - (int) getVal {return 1;} MidClass : TopClass - (int) getVal {return 2;} BotClass : MidClass - (int) getVal {return 3;} I then put objects of each type into an NSMutableArray and take one out. What I want to do is run the getVal func on the appropriate object type, but when I put id a = [allObjects objectAtIndex:0]; if ([a isKindOfClass:[TopClass class]]) { int i; i = [a getVal]; } I get firstly a warning about multiple methods called getVal (presumably because the compiler can't determine the actual object type until runtime). But more seriously I also get an error "void value not ignored as it should be" and it won't compile. If I don't try and use the return from [a getVal] then it compiles fine e.g. [a getval]; //obviously no good if I want to use the return value It will also work if I use isMemberOfClass statements to cast the object to a class before running the function e.g. if ([a isMemberOfClass:[BotClass]) i = [(BotClass*) a getVal]; But surely I shouldn't have to do this to get the functionality I require? Otherwise I'll have to put in a statement for every single subclass, and worse have to add a new line if I add a new sub class, which rather defeats the point of method overriding doesn't it? Surely there is a better way?

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• Watching variables in SSIS during debug

  - by Tom H.

  I have a project in SSIS and I've added an Execute SQL Task which sends its result out to a variable. I wanted to confirm the value because I was worried that it would try to write it out as a resultset object rather than an actual integer (in this case I'm returning a COUNT). My first thought was just to run it in debug mode and add the global variable to my Watch window. Unfortunately, when I right-click on the Watch window, the option to "Add Variable" is greyed out. What am I missing here? I've gotten around confirming that my variable is set correctly, so I'm not interested in methods like putting a script in to do a MsgBox with the value or anything like that. For future reference I'd like to be able to watch variables in debug mode. If there are some kind of constraints on that then I'd like to know the what and why of it all if anyone knows. The help is woefully inadequate on this one and every "tutorial" that I can find just says, "Add the variable to the Watch window and debug" as though there should never be a problem doing that. Thanks for any insight!

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• I can't find the homepage for my ASP.NET MVC site :(

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, really simple question here. when I remove the default route, I returns an empty page to the browser :- routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); Now before everyone starts shouting "that's because that's the default route to access all action methods, etc.." .. i know that. My question is - what code / routes does the default framework try and call .. which makes that Default Route get used/kick in? Why? I don't wish to make that my default route regex (don't ask why - this is some R&D) but I still need the main home page .. ie. Home/Index . If i try and just add that route, it doesn't get called and an empty page is returned. So -- what does the framework try and call when a user doesn't provide any urls? It's like there's some secret default document stuff set up? Cheers :)

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• Overload the behavior of count() when called on certain objects

  - by Tom

  In PHP 5, you can use magic methods, overload some classes, etc. In C++, you can implement functions that exist is STL as long as the argument types are different. Is there a way to do this in PHP? An example of what I'd like to do is this: class a { function a() { $this->list = array("1", "2"); } } $blah = new a(); count($blah); I would like blah to return 2. IE count the values of a specific array in the class. So in C++, the way I would do this might look like this: int count(a varName) { return count(varName->list); } Basically, I am trying to simplify data calls for a large application so I can call do this: count($object); rather than count($object->list); The list is going to be potentially a list of objects so depending on how it's used, it could be really nasty statement if someone has to do it the current way: count($object->list[0]->list[0]->list); So, can I make something similar to this: function count(a $object) { count($object->list); } I know PHP's count accepts a mixed var, so I don't know if I can override an individual type.

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• Just a small help about switch's use

  - by Laurent Fournier

  If an answer on this already exist, my apologies i've not found on this question... is this statement correct if i want presice actions on integers from -2 to 0, and for those between 1 and 6 apply the same methods with only my integer who'll change ? Like this: public void setCaseGUI(Point pt, int i, boolean b){ plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setSelected(b); plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setIcon(null); switch(i) { case -2: plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setText("F"); plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setForeground(Color.red); break; case -1: plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setText("B"); plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setForeground(Color.red); break; case 0: plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setText(""); plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setForeground(null); break; case 1: case 2: case 3: case 4: case 5: case 6: case 7: case 8: plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setText(String.valueOf(i)); plateau.cellule[(int)pt.getAbs()][(int)pt.getOrd()].setForeground(null); break; default: System.out.println("Erreur de changement d'état/case !"); } } Please don't be too harsh on me i've started to learn dev only a few month ago

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• What is Rails way to DRY up the controller pattern of verifying :id is for a valid object (else redirect to error page)

  - by jpwynn

  One of my controllers has close to 100 methods (eg routes) and nearly every one starts out the same code to redirect to an error page if the id param is invalid, followed by a similar check if the user that id doesn't belong in the user's account: def something @foo = Foo.find_by_guid(params[:id]) unless @foo @msg ||= { :title => 'No such page!', :desc => "There is no such page!" } render :action => "error" and return end unless @foo.owner_id == current_user.id @msg ||= { :title => 'Really?', :desc => "There is no such page." } render :action => "error" and return end What is the best way to DRY up that sort of page id and owner id validation, given the code is doing a render ... and return? What I don't want to do at this point is offload it to a blackbox roles and permissions library like CanCan... my goal is simply to have the in-app code to handle this be as clean as possible.

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• How to determine if a C++ usertype has been registered with tolua

  - by czuger

  We use tolua++ to generate Lua bindings for C++ classes. Assume I have a C++ class: class Foo { //Some methods in Foo, irrelevant to question. }; and a tolua .pkg file with the following contents class Foo { }; Consider the following function: void call_some_lua_function(lua_State* luaState) { Foo* myFoo = new Foo(); tolua_pushusertype(luaState, (void*)myFoo, "Foo"); //More code to actually call Lua, irrelevant to question. } Now, the actual question: tolua_pushusertype causes a segfault in Lua if the 3rd parameter does not correspond to a valid fully qualified string of a C++ class that was registered with a call to tolua_cclass. So, if parameter 3 where "Bar", we get a segfault. What I would like to do is the following: void call_some_lua_function(lua_State* luaState) { //determine if tolua is aware of my type, how to do this? //Something like: //if(!tolua_iscpptype_registered("Foo")) //{ // abort gracefully //} Foo* myFoo = new Foo(); tolua_pushusertype(luaState, (void*)myFoo, "Foo"); //More code to actually call Lua, irrelevant to question. } Is there a way to do this using tolua?

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