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• [Apache Camel] Generating multiple files based on DB query in a nice way

  - by chantingwolf

  Dear all, I have a following question. I have to generate many files based on sql query. Let's say for example, I have get from database a list of orders made today and genarate file for each order and later store each file on ftp. Ideally I would like to get follewing. Not quite sure how to get it. from(MyBean).to(Ftp) The problem and main question is how to generate multiple messages by custom bean (for example). I am not sure if splitter EIP is ok in this case because in my case I have not just one message to split, but I just have to generate and send many messages. http://camel.apache.org/splitter.html I hope, someone meet this problem before. If the task will be to generate just one file - everything is quite simple - you need just fill Exchange.OutMessage (or something like this). But what about multiple files - I really can't get, how to manage this situation. P.S. Sorry if this question is stupid. I am novice in Camel (working with it just for coupe weeks). It's a great tool. Actually, that's why I want to use in in the best way. Thanks a lot.

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• Java Performance measurement

  - by portoalet

  Hi, I am doing some Java performance comparison between my classes, and wondering if there is some sort of Java Performance Framework to make writing performance measurement code easier? I.e, what I am doing now is trying to measure what effect does it have having a method as "synchronized" as in PseudoRandomUsingSynch.nextInt() compared to using an AtomicInteger as my "synchronizer". So I am trying to measure how long it takes to generate random integers using 3 threads accessing a synchronized method looping for say 10000 times. I am sure there is a much better way doing this. Can you please enlighten me? :) public static void main( String [] args ) throws InterruptedException, ExecutionException { PseudoRandomUsingSynch rand1 = new PseudoRandomUsingSynch((int)System.currentTimeMillis()); int n = 3; ExecutorService execService = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(n); long timeBefore = System.currentTimeMillis(); for(int idx=0; idx<100000; ++idx) { Future<Integer> future = execService.submit(rand1); Future<Integer> future1 = execService.submit(rand1); Future<Integer> future2 = execService.submit(rand1); int random1 = future.get(); int random2 = future1.get(); int random3 = future2.get(); } long timeAfter = System.currentTimeMillis(); long elapsed = timeAfter - timeBefore; out.println("elapsed:" + elapsed); } the class public class PseudoRandomUsingSynch implements Callable<Integer> { private int seed; public PseudoRandomUsingSynch(int s) { seed = s; } public synchronized int nextInt(int n) { byte [] s = DonsUtil.intToByteArray(seed); SecureRandom secureRandom = new SecureRandom(s); return ( secureRandom.nextInt() % n ); } @Override public Integer call() throws Exception { return nextInt((int)System.currentTimeMillis()); } } Regards

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• How to run some code only once in view

  - by Freewind

  I have a partial view called '_comment.erb', and it may be called by parent many times(e.g. in a loop). The '_comment.erb' looks like: <script> function aaa() {} </script> <%= comment.content %> <%=link_to_function 'Do', 'aaa()' %> You can see if the '_comment.erb' be called many times, that the javascript function 'aaa' will be re-defined many times. I hope it can be define only once, but I don't want to move it to parent view. I hope there is a method, say 'run_once', and I can use it like this: <%= run_once do %> <script> function aaa() {} </script> <% end %> <%= comment.content %> <%=link_to_function 'Do', 'aaa()' %> No matter how many time I call the '_comment.erb', the code inside 'run_once' will be run only once. What shall I do?

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• Alternatives to using web.config to store settings (for complex solutions)

  - by Brian MacKay

  In our web applications, we seperate our Data Access Layers out into their own projects. This creates some problems related to settings. Because the DAL will eventually need to be consumed from perhaps more than one application, web.config does not seem like a good place to keep the connection strings and some of the other DAL-related settings. To solve this, on some of our recent projects we introduced a third project just for settings. We put the setting in a system of .Setting files... With a simple wrapper, the ability to have different settings for various enviroments (Dev, QA, Staging, Production, etc) was easy to achieve. The only problem there is that the settings project (including the .Settings class) compiles into an assembly, so you can't change it without doing a build/deployment, and some of our customers want to be able to configure their projects without Visual Studio. So, is there a best practice for this? I have that sense that I'm reinventing the wheel. Some solutions such as storing settings in a fixed directory on the server in, say, our own XML format occurred to us. But again, I would rather avoid having to re-create encryption for sensitive values and so on. And I would rather keep the solution self-contained if possible. EDIT: The original question did not contain the really penetrating reason that we can't (I think) use web.config ... That puts a few (very good) answers out of context, my bad.

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• How do I locate a particular word in a text file using .NET

  - by cmrhema

  I am sending mails (in asp.net ,c#), having a template in text file (.txt) like below User Name :<User Name> Address : <Address>. I used to replace the words within the angle brackets in the text file using the below code StreamReader sr; sr = File.OpenText(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); copy = sr.ReadToEnd(); sr.Close(); //close the reader copy = copy.Replace(word.ToUpper(),"#" + word.ToUpper()); //remove the word specified UC //save new copy into existing text file FileInfo newText = new FileInfo(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(txt)); StreamWriter newCopy = newText.CreateText(); newCopy.WriteLine(copy); newCopy.Write(newCopy.NewLine); newCopy.Close(); Now I have a new problem, the user will be adding new words within an angle, say for eg, they will be adding <Salary>. In that case i have to read out and find the word <Salary>. In other words, I have to find all the words, that are located with the angle brackets (<). How do I do that?

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• How to compile Open Flash Chart v.1?

  - by geehertush01

  Let me just say, that I'm a total beginner in anything related to flash. I would like to compile latest version of OFC1 (v.1.9.7). It can be downloaded here: link. Unfortunately no tutorial of how to do it can be found anywhere. I succeeded in compiling OFC2 (v.Lug-Wyrm-Charmer). I installed FlashDevelop, then I found .proj file in the OFC2 package, opened it in FlashDevelop and built the project. It worked fine (although I had to fix some code errors, but it was simple). Unfortunately there is no project file in OFC1 package. I tried to create a new project (Project-New Project-AS3 Project). It created .proj file and few folders (src,bin...). I deleted 'Main.as' from 'src' folder. Then I copied all files from 'actionscript' folder from OFC1 to 'src' project folder. I opened the project and set 'open-flash-char.as' as Document Class (right click on the file in the project tree and 'Set Document Class'). Then I tried to build the project, but got an syntax error with (in 'open-flash-char.as'): #include "prototype.drawCircle.as" #include "prototype.fillCircle.as" #include "String.prototype.replace.as" So I removed "#" signs. But then I got an error ...\ofc1\projtest4\src\open-flash-chart.as: Error: A file found in a source-path must have an externally visible definition. If a definition in the file is meant to be externally visible, please put the definition in a package. I have no idea of how to continue. Maybe I'm doing everything wrong, because OFC1 is written in AS2 (probably), not AS3. I don't know. So my question is: How to compile OFC v.1.9.7?

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• php & mySQL: Storing doc, xls, zip, etc. with limited access and archiving

  - by Devner

  Hi all, In my application, I have a provision for users to upload files like doc, xls, zip, etc. I would like to know how to store these files on my website and have only restricted people access it. I may have a group of people and let only these group access those uploaded files. I know that some may try to just copy the link to the document or the file and pass it to another (non-permitted) user and they can download it. So how can I prevent it? How can I check if the request to download the file was made by a legitimate user who has access to the file? The usernames of the group members are stored in the database along with the document name and location in the database so they can access it. But how do I prevent non-permitted users from being able to access that confidential data in all ways? With the above in mind, how do I store these documents? Do I store the documents in a blob column in the Database or just just let user upload to a folder and merely store the path to the file in the database? The security of the documents is of utmost importance. So any procedure that could facilitate this feature would definitely help. I am not into Object Oriented programming so if you have a simpler code that you would like to share with me, I would greatly appreciate it. Also how do I archive documents that are old? Like say there are documents that are 1 year old and I want to conserve my website space by archiving them but still make them available to the user when they need it. How do I go about this? Thank you.

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• What should a developer know before building a public web site?

  - by Joel Coehoorn

  What things should a programmer implementing the technical details of a web site address before making the site public? If Jeff Atwood can forget about HttpOnly cookies, sitemaps, and cross-site request forgeries all in the same site, what important thing could I be forgetting as well? I'm thinking about this from a web developer's perspective, such that someone else is creating the actual design and content for the site. So while usability and content may be more important than the platform, you the programmer have little say in that. What you do need to worry about is that your implementation of the platform is stable, performs well, is secure, and meets any other business goals (like not cost too much, take too long to build, and rank as well with Google as the content supports). Think of this from the perspective of a developer who's done some work for intranet-type applications in a fairly trusted environment, and is about to have his first shot and putting out a potentially popular site for the entire big bad world wide web. Also: I'm looking for something more specific than just a vague "web standards" response. I mean, HTML, JavaScript, and CSS over HTTP are pretty much a given, especially when I've already specified that you're a professional web developer. So going beyond that, Which standards? In what circumstances, and why? Provide a link to the standard's specification. This question is community wiki, so please feel free to edit that answer to add links to good articles that will help explain or teach each particular point.

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• Can a class inherit from LambdaExpression in .NET? Or is this not recommended?

  - by d.

  Consider the following code (C# 4.0): public class Foo : LambdaExpression { } This throws the following design-time error: Foo does not implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) There's absolutely no problem with public class Foo : Expression { } but, out of curiosity and for the sake of learning, I've searched in Google System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) and guess what: zero results returned (when was the last time you saw that?). Needless to say, I haven't found any documentation on this method anywhere else. As I said, one can easily inherit from Expression; on the other hand LambdaExpression, while not marked as sealed (Expression<TDelegate> inherits from it), seems to be designed to prevent inheriting from it. Is this actually the case? Does anyone out there know what this method is about? EDIT (1): More info based on the first answers - If you try to implement Accept, the editor (C# 2010 Express) automatically gives you the following stub: protected override Expression Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor visitor) { return base.Accept(visitor); } But you still get the same error. If you try to use a parameter of type StackSpiller directly, the compiler throws a different error: System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller is inaccessible due to its protection level. EDIT (2): Based on other answers, inheriting from LambdaExpression is not possible so the question as to whether or not it is recommended becomes irrelevant. I wonder if, in cases like this, the error message should be Foo cannot implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) because [reasons go here]; the current error message (as some answers prove) seems to tell me that all I need to do is implement Accept (which I can't do).

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• UIView animation only animating some of the things I ask it to

  - by Ben

  I have a series of (say) boxes on the screen in a row, all subviews of my main view. Each is a UIView. I want to shift them all left and have a new view also enter the screen from the right in lockstep. Here's what I'm doing: // First add a dummy view offscreen UIView * stagingView = /* make this view, which sets up its width/height */ CGRect frame = [stagingView frame]; frame.origin.x = /* just off the right side of the screen */; [stagingView setFrame:frame]; [self stagingView]; And then I set up animations in one block for all of my subviews (which includes the one I just added): [UIView beginAnimations:@"shiftLeft" context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(_animationDidStop:context:)]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; for (UIView * view in [self subviews]) { CGRect frame = [view frame]; frame.origin.x -= (frame.size.width + viewPadding); [view setFrame:frame]; } [UIView commitAnimations]; Here's what I expect: The (three) views already on screen get shifted left and the newly staged view marches in from the right at the same time. Here's what happens: The newly staged view animates in exactly as expected, and the views already on the screen do not appear to move at all! (Or possibly they jump without animation to their end locations). And! If I comment out the whole business of creating the new subview offscreen... the ones onscreen do animate correctly! Huh? (Thanks!)

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• Jquery CheckBox Selection/Deselection optimally given X checkboxes

  - by Amitd

  Hi guys, I have suppose say 'X' check-boxes(any input elements) in a Form and "M" option selection indexes ("M" less than equal to "X"). then how do i select the "M" option indexes/values and deselect the rest of check-boxes optimally? i.e.Suppose I have 10 Checkboxes and 5 Option Indices(eg: 1,2,4,5,8) then i have to select checkboxes with given index . I could come up with the following code: HTML: <div id="Options"> <input id="choice_1" type="checkbox" name="choice_1" value="Option1"><label for="choice_1">Option1</label> <input id="choice_2" type="checkbox" name="choice_2" value="Option2"><label for="choice_2">Option2</label> <input id="choice_3" type="checkbox" name="choice_3" value="Option3"><label for="choice_3">Option3</label> .. ..till choice_10 </div> IN JS: //Have to select checkboxes with "Value" in choicesToSelect and give a selection //effect to its label var choicesToSelect={"Option1","Option9","Option3","Option4","Option2"}; selectHighlightCheckBoxes(choicesToSelect); function selectHighlightCheckBoxes(choices){ $.each( choices, function(intIndex, objValue) { //select based on id or value or some criteria var option = $("#Options :input[value=" + objValue + "]") ; if ($(option).is("input[type='radio']") || $(option).is("input[type='checkbox']")) { $(option).attr('checked', true); $(option).next('label:first').css({ 'border': '1px solid #FF0000', 'background-color': '#BEF781', 'font-weight': 'bolder' }); } else if ($(option).is("input[type='text']")) { $(option).css({ 'border': '1px solid #FF0000', 'background-color': '#BEF781', 'font-weight': 'bolder' }); } else { } } ); } But i want to also add effect to the rest (not in choicesToSelect array) also. (may be red color to those not in choiceToSelect) Can this be done in the one traversal/loop? Optimally? or Better way?

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• SQL 2005 Express Edition - Install new instance

  - by Douglas Anderson

  Looking for a way to programatically, or otherwise, add a new instance of SQL 2005 Express Edition to a system that already has an instance installed. Traditionally, you run Micrsoft's installer like I am in the command line below and it does the trick. Executing the command in my installer is not the issue, it's more a matter of dragging around the 40 MBs of MS-SQL installer that I don't need if they have SQL Express already installed. This is what my installer currently executes: SQLEXPR32.EXE /qb ADDLOCAL=ALL INSTANCENAME=<instancename> SECURITYMODE=SQL SAPWD=<password> SQLAUTOSTART=1 DISABLENETWORKPROTOCOLS=0 I don't need assistance with launching this command, rather the appropriate way to add a new instance of SQL 2005 Express without actually running the full installer again. I'd go into great detail about why I want to do this but I'd simply bore everyone. Suffice to say, having this ability to create a new instance without the time it takes to reinstall SQL Express etc. would greatly assist me for the deployment of my application and it's installer. If makes any difference to anyone, I'm using a combination of NSIS and Advanced Installer for this installation project.

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• Algorithm to see if keywords exist inside a string

  - by rksprst

  Let's say I have a set of keywords in an array {"olympics", "sports tennis best", "tennis", "tennis rules"} I then have a large list (up to 50 at a time) of strings (or actually tweets), so they are a max of 140 characters. I want to look at each string and see what keywords are present there. In the case where a keyword is composed of multiple words like "sports tennis best", the words don't have to be together in the string, but all of them have to show up. I've having trouble figuring out an algorithm that does this efficiently. Do you guys have suggestions on a way to do this? Thanks! Edit: To explain a bit better each keyword has an id associated with it, so {1:"olympics", 2:"sports tennis best", 3:"tennis", 4:"tennis rules"} I want to go through the list of strings/tweets and see which group of keywords match. The output should be, this tweet belongs with keyword #4. (multiple matches may be made, so anything that matches keyword 2, would also match 3 -since they both contain tennis). When there are multiple words in the keyword, e.g. "sports tennis best" they don't have to appear together but have to all appear. e.g. this will correctly match: "i just played tennis, i love sports, its the best"... since this string contains "sports tennis best" it will match and be associated with the keywordID (which is 2 for this example).

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• Java JSP/Servlet: controller servlet throwing the famous stack overflow

  - by NoozNooz42

  I've read several docs and I don't get it: I know I'm doing something wrong but I don't understand what. I've got a website that is entirely dynamically generated: there's hardly any static content at all. So, trying to understand JSP/Servlet, I've written my own "front controller" intercepting every single query, it looks like this: <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>defaultservlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Basically I want any user request, like: example.org example.org/bar example.org/foo.html to all go through a default servlet which I've written. The servlet then examines the URI and find to which .jsp the request must be dispatched, and then does, after having set all the attributes correctly, a: RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp"); dispatcher.forward(req, resp); When I'm using a url-pattern (in web.xml) like, say, *.html, everything works fine. But when I change it to /* (to really intercept everything), I enter an endless loop and it ends up with a... StackOverflow :) When the request is dispatched, is the URI ".../WEB-INF/jsp/index.jsp" itself matched by the web.xml filter /* that I set? How should I do if I want to intercept everything using a /* url-pattern and yet be able to dispatch/forward/? I'm not asking about specs/Javadocs here: I'm really confused about the bigger picture and I'd need some explanation as to what could be going on. Am I not supposed to intercept really everything? If I can intercept everything, what should I be aware of regarding forwarding/dispatching?

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• Is there an algorithm to securely split a message into x parts requiring at least y parts to reassem

  - by Aaron

  Is there an algorithm to securely split a message into x parts requiring at least y parts to reassemble? Obviously, y <= x. An example: Say that I have a secret message that I only want to be read in the event of my death. As a way to ensure this, I give a fraction of the message to ten friends. Now, I can't guaranty that all my friends will be able to put their messages together to recover the original. So, I construct each message fraction in such a way so as to only require any 5 friends to put their parts together to reconstruct the whole. However, owning less than 5 parts will not give anything away about the message, except possibly the length. My question is, is this possible? What algorithms might I look at to accomplish this? Clarification edit: The important part of this is the cryptographic strength. An attacker should not be able to recover the message, either in whole or in part with less than y parts.

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• jQuery aspx error function always called, even with apparently valid return data

  - by M Katz

  I am making an ajax call using jQuery (jquery-1.5.2.min.js). The server receives the call. fiddler shows the response text coming back apparently correct. But back in javascript my error: function is called instead of my success: function, and the data of the parameters to the error function don't give much clue as to the problem. Here's the function where I make the initial call: function SelectCBGAtClickedPoint() { $.ajax( { type: "GET", dataType: "text", url: "http://localhost/ajax/SelectCBGAtPoint/1/2", success: function( msg ) { alert( "success: " + msg ); }, error: function( jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown ) { alert( "error: " + jqXHR + textStatus + errorThrown ); } } ); } Here's the function where I handle the call in my cherrypy server code: def ajax( ajax, *args ): with lock: print "ajax request received: " + str( args ) cherrypy.response.headers[ "Content-Type" ] = "application/text" return "{ x: 0 }" Cherrypy is an odd beast, and I was thinking the problem must lie there. But as I say, I see both the query go out and the response come back in Fiddler. Here is what Fiddler shows as the raw view of the response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 17:49:25 GMT Content-Length: 8 Content-Type: application/text Server: CherryPy/3.2.0 { x: 0 } Looks good, but then back in javascript, I get into the error: function, with the following values for the parameters (as shown in firebug): errorThrown = "" jqXHR = Object { readyState=0, status=0, statusText="error"} statusText = "error" I don't know where that word "error" is coming from. That string does not appear anywhere in my cherrypy server code. Note that even though I'm returning a JSON string I've set the send and receive types to "text" for now, just to simplify in order to isolate the problem. Any ideas why I'm getting this "error" reply, even when errorThrown is empty? Could it be that I haven't properly "initialized" either jQuery or jQuery.ajax?

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• Why a "private static" is not seen in a method?

  - by Roman

  I have a class with the following declaration of the fields: public class Game { private static String outputFileName; .... } I set the value of the outputFileName in the main method of the class. I also have a write method in the class which use the outputFileName. I always call write after main sets value for outputFileName. But write still does not see the value of the outputFileName. It say that it's equal to null. Could anybody, pleas, tell me what I am doing wrong? ADDED As it is requested I post more code: In the main: String outputFileName = userName + "_" + year + "_" + month + "_" + day + "_" + hour + "_" + minute + "_" + second + "_" + millis + ".txt"; f=new File(outputFileName); if(!f.exists()){ try { f.createNewFile(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } System.out.println("IN THE MAIN!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!"); System.out.println("------>" + outputFileName + "<------"); This line outputs me the name of the file. Than in the write I have: public static void write(String output) { // Open a file for appending. System.out.println("==========>" + outputFileName + "<============"); ...... } And it outputs null.

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• What's the false operator in C# good for?

  - by Jakub Šturc

  There are two weird operators in C#: the true operator the false operator If I understand this right these operators can be used in types which I want to use instead of a boolean expression and where I don't want to provide an implicit conversion to bool. Let's say I have a following class: public class MyType { public readonly int Value; public MyType(int value) { Value = value; } public static bool operator true (MyType mt) { return mt.Value > 0; } public static bool operator false (MyType mt) { return mt.Value < 0; } } So I can write the following code: MyType mTrue = new MyType(100); MyType mFalse = new MyType(-100); MyType mDontKnow = new MyType(0); if (mTrue) { // Do something. } while (mFalse) { // Do something else. } do { // Another code comes here. } while (mDontKnow) However for all the examples above only the true operator is executed. So what's the false operator in C# good for? Note: More examples can be found here, here and here.

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• Setting objects (not users) inactive after period of time in asp.net mvc

  - by bastijn

  This question is mainly to verify my current idea. I have a series of objects which I want to be active for a specified amount of time. For instance objects like ads which are shown in the ad space only for the amount of time bought, objects in search results which should only pop up when active, and frontpage posts which should be set to inactive after a prespecified time. My current idea is to just give those type of objects a StartDate and EndDate and filter the search routines to only show results which fall in the range StartDate < currentDate < EndDate. Is this the normal structure or should there be some sort of auto-routine which routinely checks for objects which are "over-time" and set a property "inactive" to true or something. Seems like this approach is such a hassle since I need a checker which runs say, every 5 minutes, to scan all DB objects. Seems like a bad idea to me. So is the first structure the most commonly used or are there any other options? When searching on google or SO the search queries only return results setting users inactive.

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• NSOutlineView/NSTreeController - calculate sum of column

  - by matei

  I have a NSOutlineView bound to a NSTreeController. My data items are a custom class , let's call them "Row", and suppose a Row contains a "name" and a numeric field called "number" . All these "Rows" are found in let's say a "RowContainer" which has a "rows" mutable array holding the parent (level 0) rows. Each row also has a "children" NSMutableArray member which holds it's children. I have this working, and I want to display under the outlineview a textfield with the sum of all the "number" values of the rows. I bound this textfield to a "total" property of the "RowContainer". Now the problem is how or from where to trigger the recalculation of the "total" property, since this involves a recursive walk on the tree of rows, and I always get a "Collection was mutated while being enumerated" error. I've tried making a method "recalculateTotal", and calling it from the "setNumber" method of the "Row" class , but same error occurs. If I put the recalculation logic in the "total" getter, I can't trigger it to do the math. I'm sure the solution is simple but I can't see it

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• Is 1/0 a legal Java expression?

  - by polygenelubricants

  The following compiles fine in my Eclipse: final int j = 1/0; // compiles fine!!! // throws ArithmeticException: / by zero at run-time Java prevents many "dumb code" from even compiling in the first place (e.g. "Five" instanceof Number doesn't compile!), so the fact this didn't even generate as much as a warning was very surprising to me. The intrigue deepens when you consider the fact that constant expressions are allowed to be optimized at compile time: public class Div0 { public static void main(String[] args) { final int i = 2+3; final int j = 1/0; final int k = 9/2; } } Compiled in Eclipse, the above snippet generates the following bytecode (javap -c Div0) Compiled from "Div0.java" public class Div0 extends java.lang.Object{ public Div0(); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokespecial #8; //Method java/lang/Object."<init>":()V 4: return public static void main(java.lang.String[]); Code: 0: iconst_5 1: istore_1 // "i = 5;" 2: iconst_1 3: iconst_0 4: idiv 5: istore_2 // "j = 1/0;" 6: iconst_4 7: istore_3 // "k = 4;" 8: return } As you can see, the i and k assignments are optimized as compile-time constants, but the division by 0 (which must've been detectable at compile-time) is simply compiled as is. javac 1.6.0_17 behaves even more strangely, compiling silently but excising the assignments to i and k completely out of the bytecode (probably because it determined that they're not used anywhere) but leaving the 1/0 intact (since removing it would cause an entirely different program semantics). So the questions are: Is 1/0 actually a legal Java expression that should compile anytime anywhere? What does JLS say about it? If this is legal, is there a good reason for it? What good could this possibly serve?

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• Mostly PJAX site with some AngularJS

  - by jrhicks

  I have a site using PJAX all over the place and I have a few pages that are using AngularJS. For the AngularJS pages I would like to continue to use PJAX to get all the benefits associated with not reloading the entire HTML page, assets etc. Unfortunately, PJAX just loads some HTML into the page and doesn't fire any javascript. This is okay, because I can fire the javascript manually on pjax success, but I can't quite figure out what makes AngularJS initialize. For a simple scenario, lets say I AJAX the following HTML into a page. Also assume, the page already had Angular.js included. What could I call to have the following behave like an Angular App? <div> <label>Name:</label> <input type="text" ng-model="yourName" placeholder="Enter a name here"> <hr> <h1>Hello {{yourName}}!</h1> </div> Thanks

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• How to identify HTML elements (in javascript) in a browser agnostic fashion

  - by gatapia

  Hi All, I need to identify all html elements on a page in a browser agnostic fashion. What I am basically doing is using mouse events to record clicks on the page. I need to record which element was clicked. So I add a mouse down listener to the document.body element. And on mouse down I get the element under the mouse. Lets say its a div. I then use the index of that div inside the document.getElementsByTagName('*') nodelist and the nodeName ('div') to identify that div. A sample element id would be div45 which means its a div and its the 45th element in the '*' nodelist. This is all fine and good until I use IE which gives me different indexes. So div45 in FireFox may be div47 in IE. Anyone have any ideas? I just need the id of all elements on the page to be the same in any browser, perhaps indexing is not good enough but I really don't have any more ideas. Thanks Guido

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• GLFW - Not drawing square

  - by m00st

  I am using GLFW as GUI for OpenGL projects. I am using my red book and testing code and well the first bit of code doesn't work at all. I want to say this is a GLFW problem because I don't have this problem in JOGL. #include <iostream> #include "GL/glfw.h" #ifndef MAIN #define MAIN #include "GL/gl.h" #include "GL/glu.h" #endif using namespace std; int main() { int running = GL_TRUE; glfwInit(); if( !glfwOpenWindow( 300,300, 0,0,0,0,0,0, GLFW_WINDOW ) ) { glfwTerminate(); return 0; } while( running ) { //GL Code here glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glClearColor(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.0); glColor3f(1.0, 1.0, 1.0); glOrtho(0.0, 1.0, 0.0, 1.0, -1.0, 1.0); glBegin(GL_POLYGON); glVertex3f(0.25, 0.25, 0.0); glVertex3f(0.75, 0.25, 0.0); glVertex3f(0.75, 0.75, 0.0); glVertex3f(0.25, 0.75, 0.0); glEnd(); glFlush(); glfwSwapBuffers(); // Check if ESC key was pressed or window was closed running = !glfwGetKey( GLFW_KEY_ESC ) && glfwGetWindowParam( GLFW_OPENED ); } glfwTerminate(); return 0; }

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• How to make UIButton work like Launcher in SpringBoard, when pressed for long timeinterval

  - by KayKay

  In my ViewController I am using UIButton which triggers some action when touchedUpInside. Upto here no problem, but i also want to add another action for touchDown event. More precisely i dont have an idea how to add that action to which event, that will work the same as when App-Icon is pressed longer in springboard which causes springboard enter in editing mode.Actually what i want is : when this button is kept holding for ,say about 2 seconds it will pop-up an alertView without touch being heldUp (with finger is still on button). I have tried with 2 NSdate difference, one of which is allocated when touchedDown and other when touchUpInside. Its working and popping alert,but only after touchedUpInside. I want it to show alert without touch being removed. Here is the code. (IBAction)touchedDown:(id)sender { momentTouchedDown = [[NSDate alloc] init];//class variable NSLog(@"touched down"); } - (IBAction)touchUpInside:(id)sender { NSLog(@"touch lifted Up\n"); NSDate *momentLifted = [[NSDate alloc] init]; double timeInterval = [momentLifted timeIntervalSinceDate:momentTouchedDown]; NSLog(@"time lifted = %@, time down = %@, time diff = %@", momentLifted, momentTouchedDown, [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%g",timeInterval]); [momentLifted release]; if(timeInterval > 2.0) { NSLog(@"AlertBox has been fired"); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Yes" message:@""//msg delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" otherButtonTitles:@"OK" , nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; } } Please provide me an insight..thanks for help in advance.

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