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  • Strange behaviour of DataTable with DataGridView

    - by Paul
    Please explain me what is happening. I have created a WinForms .NET application which has DataGridView on a form and should update database when DataGridView inline editing is used. Form has SqlDataAdapter _da with four SqlCommands bound to it. DataGridView is bound directly to DataTable _names. Such a CellValueChanged handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { _da.Update(_names); } does not update database state although _names DataTable is updated. All the rows of _names have RowState == DataRowState.Unchanged Ok, I modified the handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); _da.Update(_names); } this variant really writes modified cell to database, but when I attempt to insert new row into grid, I get an error about an absence of row with index e.RowIndex So, I decided to improve the handler further: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { if (_names.Rows.Count<e.RowIndex) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); } else { DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = dataGridView1["NameText", e.RowIndex].Value; _names.Rows.Add(row); } _da.Update(_names); } Now the really strange things happen when I insert new row to grid: the grid remains what it was until _names.Rows.Add(row); After this line THREE rows are inserted into table - two rows with the same value and one with Null value. The slightly modified code: DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = "--------------" _names.Rows.Add(row); inserts three rows with three different values: one as entered into the grid, the second with "--------------" value and third - with Null value. I really got stuck in guessing what is happening.

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  • Quantifying the Performance of Garbage Collection vs. Explicit Memory Management

    - by EmbeddedProg
    I found this article here: Quantifying the Performance of Garbage Collection vs. Explicit Memory Management http://www.cs.umass.edu/~emery/pubs/gcvsmalloc.pdf In the conclusion section, it reads: Comparing runtime, space consumption, and virtual memory footprints over a range of benchmarks, we show that the runtime performance of the best-performing garbage collector is competitive with explicit memory management when given enough memory. In particular, when garbage collection has five times as much memory as required, its runtime performance matches or slightly exceeds that of explicit memory management. However, garbage collection’s performance degrades substantially when it must use smaller heaps. With three times as much memory, it runs 17% slower on average, and with twice as much memory, it runs 70% slower. Garbage collection also is more susceptible to paging when physical memory is scarce. In such conditions, all of the garbage collectors we examine here suffer order-of-magnitude performance penalties relative to explicit memory management. So, if my understanding is correct: if I have an app written in native C++ requiring 100 MB of memory, to achieve the same performance with a "managed" (i.e. garbage collector based) language (e.g. Java, C#), the app should require 5*100 MB = 500 MB? (And with 2*100 MB = 200 MB, the managed app would run 70% slower than the native app?) Do you know if current (i.e. latest Java VM's and .NET 4.0's) garbage collectors suffer the same problems described in the aforementioned article? Has the performance of modern garbage collectors improved? Thanks.

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  • Generate Spring bean definition from a Java object

    - by joeslice
    Let's suggest that I have a bean defined in Spring: <bean id="neatBean" class="com..." abstract="true">...</bean> Then we have many clients, each of which have slightly different configuration for their 'neatBean'. The old way we would do it was to have a new file for each client (e.g., clientX_NeatFeature.xml) that contained a bunch of beans for this client (these are hand-edited and part of the code base): <bean id="clientXNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="something"/> </bean> Now, I want to have a UI where we can edit and redefine a client's neatBean on the fly. My question is: given a neatBean, and a UI that can 'override' properties of this bean, what would be a straightforward way to serialize this to an XML file as we do [manually] today? For example, if the user set property whatever to be "17" for client Y, I'd want to generate: <bean id="clientYNeatBean" parent="neatBean"> <property id="whatever" value="17"/> </bean> Note that moving this configuration to a different format (e.g., database, other-schema'd-xml) is an option, but not really an answer to the question at hand.

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  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

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  • Manipulate method functionality call

    - by danrichardson
    Hello, is it possibly in c# to have some sort of base class functionality which is manipulated slightly based on the class. For instance say i have the following code (which will quite obviously not compile it's meant to only be for demonstrative purposes) class BaseFunctionality { public virtual bool adminCall public static string MethodName(int id, string parameter) { if (adminCall) return dbcall.Execute(); else return dbcall.ExecuteMe(); } } class Admin : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = true; } class Front : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = false; } Now what i would like to be able to do is; string AdminCall = Admin.MethodName(1, "foo"); string FrontCall = Front.MethodName(2, "bar"); Is their any way to do something like this? I'm trying to do everything with static methods so i do not have to instantiate classes all the time, and have nice clean code which is only being manipulated in one place. The idea behind this is so that there is minimal code repeating and makes things easier to expand on, so for instance another class could implement the BaseFunctionality later on. Thanks Dan

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  • Additional information in ASP.Net MVC View

    - by Max Malmgren
    I am attempting to implement a custom locale service in an MVC 2 webpage. I have an interface IResourceDictionary that provides a couple of methods for accessing resources by culture. This is because I want to avoid the static classes of .Net resources. The problem is accessing the chosen IResourceDictionary from the views. I have contemplated using the ViewDataDictionary given, creating a base controller from which all my controllers inherits that adds my IResourceDictionary to the ViewData before each action executes. Then I could call my resource dictionary this way: (ViewData["Resources"] as IResourceDictionary).GetEntry(params); Admittedly, this is extremely verbose and ugly, especially in inline code as we are encouraged to use in MVC. Right now I am leaning towards static class access ResourceDictionary.GetEntry(params); because it is slightly more elegant. I also thought about adding it to my typed model for each page, which seems more robust than adding it to the ViewData.. What is the preferred way to access my ResourceDictionary from the views? All my views will be using this dictionary.

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  • PHP site scheduling Java execution?

    - by obfuscation
    I'm trying to get started on combining my (slightly limited) PHP experience with my (better) Java experience, in a project where I need to allow uploads of Java source files to the server, which the server then executes Javac on to compile it. Then, at a set time (e.g. specified on upload) I need to run that once on the server, which will generate some database info for the PHP site to display. To describe my current programming abilities- I have made many desktop Java programs, and am confident in 'pure' Java, but so far have only undertaken a couple of PHP projects (including using the CodeIgniter framework). My motivation for using PHP as the frontend is because I know it is very fast, lightweight and I will be able to display the results I need very easily with it (simple DB readout). Ideally, the technology used should be able to be developed on a localhost (e.g. WAMP, Tomcat etc..) Is there any advice which you could give on what technology I should consider to use to bridge this gap, and what resources could help in using that technology? I have looked at a few, but have struggled to find documentation helping in achieving what I need.

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  • multiple touches: touchend event fired only when a touchmove occurs

    - by dridri
    I would like to add some multitouch features to my javascript application when it is accessed from an ios device (and maybe android later). I want to provide a shiftkey-like functionality: the user may hold a button on the screen with one finger, and while this button is pressed, the behavior for a tap action on the rest of the screen is slightly different from the classic tap. The problem i'm running into is that i do not receive any touchend event for the tapping finger unless a touchmove is fired for the first finger holding the shiftkey button. Because the screen is very sensitive, touchmove events gets easily fired and in most cases everything works fine. But when the user's finger is a bit too still, the tapping is not detected until the user moves his finger a bit. This induces a variable 'delay' between the tapping and the action that occurs on the screen (the delay may vary and last a few seconds if the user is very calm). My guess is that this delay will cause the user to tap again and thus fire the action a second time, which is something that i don't want ! You can test it here with your ipad/iphone : http://jsfiddle.net/jdeXH/8/ Try to make the body remain green for a few seconds by holding your finger very still on the cyan div while tapping on the red div. Is this behavior to be expected ? Is there some known workaround for the problem ? I would have expected the touchend event to be fired right away when the finger is removed from the screen. i tested this with iOS 5.1.1 (ipad1 and iphone4s) edit: found a similar question Multitouch touchEvents not triggered as they should on Safari Mobile

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  • SQL Server 05, which is optimal, LIKE %<term>% or CONTAINS() for searching large column

    - by Spud1
    I've got a function written by another developer which I am trying to modify for a slightly different use. It is used by a SP to check if a certain phrase exists in a text document stored in the DB, and returns 1 if the value is found or 0 if its not. This is the query: SELECT @mres=1 from documents where id=@DocumentID and contains(text, @search_term) The document contains mostly XML, and the search_term is a GUID formatted as an nvarchar(40). This seems to run quite slowly to me (taking 5-6 seconds to execute this part of the process), but in the same script file there is also this version of the above, commented out. SELECT @mres=1 from documents where id=@DocumentID and textlike '%' + @search_term + '%' This version runs MUCH quicker, taking 4ms compared to 15ms for the first example. So, my question is why use the first over the second? I assume this developer (who is no longer working with me) had a good reason, but at the moment I am struggling to find it.. Is it possibly something to do with the full text indexing? (this is a dev DB I am working with, so the production version may have better indexing..) I am not that clued up on FTI really so not quite sure at the moment. Thoughts/ideas?

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  • CentOS 5.5 : Postfix, Dovecot & MySQL

    - by GruffTech
    I'm hoping someone has seen this issue before because I'm at quite a loss. We're building a new outbound smtp server for our clients that features anti-spam scanning and virus scanning for outbound emails, something we had not previously done. So with CentOS 5.5 x64, Installed and patched completely. Postfix & Dovecot both installed via base repo. [grufftech@outgoing postfix]# rpm -qa | grep postfix postfix-2.3.3-2.1.el5_2 [grufftech@outgoing postfix]# rpm -qa | grep dovecot dovecot-1.0.7-7.el5 [grufftech@outgoing ~]# dovecot --build-options Build options: ioloop=poll notify=inotify ipv6 openssl SQL drivers: mysql postgresql Passdb: checkpassword ldap pam passwd passwd-file shadow sql Userdb: checkpassword ldap passwd prefetch passwd-file sql static /etc/dovecot.conf auth default { mechanisms = plain login digest-md5 cram-md5 passdb sql { args = /etc/dovecot-mysql.conf } userdb sql { args = /etc/dovecot-mysql.conf } userdb prefetch { } user = nobody socket listen { master { path = /var/run/dovecot/auth-master mode = 0660 user = postfix group = postfix } client { path = /var/spool/postfix/private/auth mode = 0660 user = postfix group = postfix } } } All the server is doing is auth for postfix, so no reason to have imap / pop / dict. /etc/dovecot-mysql.conf driver = mysql connect = host=10.0.32.159 dbname=mail user=****** password=******** default_pass_scheme = plain user_query = select 1 password_query = select password from users where username = '%n' and domain = '%d' So drop in my configuration, (which is working on another server identical to this one.) [grufftech@outgoing ~]# /etc/init.d/dovecot start Starting Dovecot Imap: [ OK ] Sweet. Booted up nicely, thats good.... (incoming problem in 3....2....1....) May 21 08:09:01 outgoing dovecot: Dovecot v1.0.7 starting up May 21 08:09:02 outgoing dovecot: auth-worker(default): mysql: Connect failed to 10.0.32.159 (mail): Can't connect to MySQL server on '10.0.32.159' (13) - waiting for 1 seconds before retry well what the crap. went and checked permissions on my MySQL database, and its fine. [grufftech@outgoing ~]# mysql vpopmail -h 10.0.32.159 -u ****** -p Enter password: Welcome to the MySQL monitor. Commands end with ; or \g. Your MySQL connection id is 127828558 Server version: 4.1.22 Type 'help;' or '\h' for help. Type '\c' to clear the buffer. mysql>\q So! My server can talk to my database server. but dovecot, for whatever reason, isn't able to. I've fiddled with it for the last six hours, grabbed slightly-older copies of the RPM (ones that matched our production server exactly) to test those, copied configs, searched google, searched server fault, chatted in IRC, banged my head against the table, I've done it all. Surely I'm doing something wrong or forgetting something, can anyone tell me what the elephant in the room is? This stuff is supposed to work.

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  • BIOS upgrade lowers CPU temperature

    - by N.N.
    Setup I've got a system with an Asus P8Z68-V PRO motherboard and an Intel Core i7-2600K CPU running at stock speed (no overlocking) which I cool with a Noctua NH-U12P. On the heatsink I've got the two included fans connected via the included Low-Noise Adapters (L.N.A.) 1100 RPM, 16.9 dB(A). In the BIOS settings I've set the CPU and chassis fan profile to silent. Issue Yesterday I upgraded from BIOS version 0501 to 0606. After the upgrade I checked the temperatures in the BIOS monitor and was surprised to see that the CPU temperature was slightly ~30°C. Before the upgrade the CPU temperature was ~50°C with the same BIOS settings (see the following heading for details on temperatures). How can this be? It seems a bit odd that a BIOS upgrade can lower the CPU temperature by 20°C and it also seems odd that the CPU temperature is lower than the chassis temperature. Temperatures When I've checked temperatures the room temperature has been ~23°C. I haven't changed the placement of the computer nor the hardware or cooling setup between BIOS versions. BIOS version 0501 BIOS monitor: CPU: ~50°C Chassis: ~33°C I haven't got any temperature measures from lm-sensors or the like for version 0501 because I only discovered the issue after upgrading to version 0606 and the BIOS updater utility won't let me downgrade to version 0501 (it says "outdated image" when I try to load version 0501). BIOS version 0606 BIOS monitor: CPU: ~30°C Chassis: ~33°C lm-sensors in Ubuntu 11.04 Desktop 64-bit (sudo sensors after an uptime of 4 h 52 min and a load average of 0.22, 0.18, 0.15): coretemp-isa-0000 Adapter: ISA adapter Core 0: +32.0°C (high = +80.0°C, crit = +98.0°C) coretemp-isa-0001 Adapter: ISA adapter Core 1: +35.0°C (high = +80.0°C, crit = +98.0°C) coretemp-isa-0002 Adapter: ISA adapter Core 2: +29.0°C (high = +80.0°C, crit = +98.0°C) coretemp-isa-0003 Adapter: ISA adapter Core 3: +36.0°C (high = +80.0°C, crit = +98.0°C) The BIOS monitor temperatures was checked directly after the lm-sensors temperatures was checked. BIOS version 0706, 0801, 1101 and 3203 I get the same kind of temperatures both in the BIOS monitor and with lm-sensors in BIOS version 0706, 0801, 1101 and 3203 as in 0606. Information from Asus The 0606 changelog mentions nothing explicitly about CPU temperature (but item 3., as indicated by sidran32, might affect temperatures): P8Z68-V PRO 0606 BIOS with IRST 10.6.0.1002 Enable the support of Intel Rapid Storage Technology version 10.6.0.1002 Release Improve DRAM compatibility Improve System stability Improve compatibility with some Raid card model Increase IGD share memory size to 512MB However the following FAQ might give a hint: FAQs I find that the CPU temperature reading in BIOS is about 10~20 degrees centigrade hotter than the reading in OS. Is it normal? Page Tools Solution That is normal as BIOS does not send idle command to the CPU, making most of the power saving features useless. You should be getting similar reading if you disable EIST/C1E/CPU C3 Report/CPU C6 Report in BIOS.

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  • Will this RAID5 setup work (3TB Seagate Barracudas + Adaptec RAID 6405)?

    - by Slayer537
    As the title states, will this RAID combo work, and if not what needs to be changed? Overall opinions would be most helpful. I currently run a small file server of about 5TB or so. I keep outgrowing my needs and need to build a RAID setup that will allow me to expand as needed. I am new to RAID setups, especially one of the scale I have currently planned out, but I have being doing some research for the past couple of weeks and have come up with a build. Ideally, I'd have the setup completely built, but I'd like to keep the total cost around $1k and can't afford to go above $1.5k, so unfortunately that's not an option. 2 of my current drives are WD Caviar Blacks 2TB; however, I have recently learned that due to the lack of TLER those drives are awful for any RAID setup other than 0 or 1. That being said, my third drive is a Seagate Barracuda 3TB (ST300DM001) and I have found a RAID controller that states it supports it, so I'd like to use this same type of drive, if possible. Have any of you had any experience using this drive or a similar one in a RAID5 configuration? The manufacturer states that it supports it, but knowing that it is not an enterprise drive, I am slightly concerned that it could drop out of the array. I would just go with enterprise drives, but those are about double in cost... Parts list: Storage rack: http://www.ebay.com/itm/SGI-3U-Media-Storage-Server-16-Hard-Drive-Bay-SATA-SAS-Expander-Omnistor-SE3016-/140735776937?pt=LH_DefaultDomain_0&hash=item20c48188a9 3 more HDs (for now..): http://www.amazon.com/Seagate-Barracuda-3-5-Inch-Internal-ST3000DM001/dp/B005T3GRLY/ref=dp_return_2?ie=UTF8&n=172282&s=electronics Adaptec RAID 6405: http://www.newegg.com/Product/Product.aspx?Item=N82E16816103224 here's a link to the compatibility sheet if that helps: http://download.adaptec.com/pdfs/compatibility_report/arc-sas_cr_03-27-12_series6.pdf SAS expander cable: http://www.pc-pitstop.com/sas_cables_adapters/8887-2M.asp My plan is to install the RAID card in my computer and then route the SAS cable to the rack. Setup a RAID5 on 3 drives, transfer my data over from my other drive, and then add that drive to the array. Eventually, I'd like to get a 2U unit and run the file server on that and move the RAID card over to there, but that will have to happen later on. Side note: The computer the card would be going into will be running Windows 7 Pro with 24GB of DDR3-1600 and an i7-930.

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  • Real server, Multiple IP Addresses, HyperV Virtual Server, How to partition IPs across real and Virtual NICs

    - by Steven_W
    This is a slightly difficult problem to explain without same basic background information - I'll try and refine the question later as necessary Originally, I have a single hosted server (Win 2008R2) with the following range of 8 IP addresses. - Single NIC - IP: x.x.128.72 -> x.x.128.79 - Subnet: x.x.255.192 - GW: x.x.128.65 After installing Hyper-V and setting up a single virtual server on the same box, I then wanted to assign one of the IP addresses to the virtual server, leaving everything else running normally. -- Firstly, I tried using the "External" network, but (even after setting IPs on the "Virtual Adapter" similar to Here but struggled to get networking running at all. I needed to keep the server running (otherwise I would have spent more time pursuing this approach) Q1 ... Was this a sensible thing to do ? Should I have carried on down this route ? -- I then decided to try different approach - Set the HyperV network to "Internal" (visible to Management OS) - Physical NIC - IP: x.x.128.72 -> x.x.128.75 - Subnet: x.x.255.192 - GW: x.x.128.65 - Virtual NIC - IP: x.x.128.78 - Subnet: x.x.255.252 - GW: x.x.128.72 ... { The same as the IP of the physical NIC ) - Virtual OS-NIC - IP: x.x.128.77 - Subnet: x.x.255.252 - GW: x.x.128.78 ... { The same as the IP of the host virtual-NIC ) -- Surprisingly enough, this approach actually worked, and I was able to connect from all the following: - Internet to/from physical NIC (x.x.128.72) - physical NIC (x.x.128.72) to virtual-OS-NIC (x.x.128.77) e.g. testing via ping + FTP - Internet to/from virtual-OS-NIC (x.x.128.72) -- The problem I have is that this approach seems to only last for a short while (a few hours). After this time, it seems that I lose the ability to connect from Virtual-OS-NIC to/from the internet (but I can still connect from the host-OS to the virtual-OS and from the host-OS to the internet) I have re-tested this a couple of times with the same results ... I leave the server on for a few hours (e.g. overnight), and when I come back in the morning, the Virtual-OS loses the ability to route to the internet -- I'm not quite sure what to look at next (or whether I'm going about this completely the wrong way ) One "possible relevant item" is that the host-OS is also running RRAS (Routing and Remote Access), but this is only to run a simple VPN -- Q2 - Wheat should I be looking at next ? (Any good references / recommendations of what to try) Would appreciate any thoughts or comments (even if you tell me I'm going about this the wrong way)

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  • How can you know what is w3wp.exe doing? (or how to diagnose a performance problem)

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm having a performance problem in a site we've made, and I'm not exactly sure how to start diagnosing it. The short description is: We have a very small site (http://hearablog.com) with very little traffic, in a crappy dedicated server, CPU is always very high, sometimes it stays at 100% for minutes, and w3wp.exe is taking most of it. A typical scenario is w3wp.exe takes 60%, and SQL Server takes about 30%. Our DB is pretty small too. Long description and more details: The site is hosted in a very crappy server by Cari.Net. From the beginning we had the feeling that the server didn't quite behave correctly, like some things would take just too long, so this could be a configuration problem from the get go. It may also be that we are getting a virtual server while we're supposed to have a dedicated one, although we have no evidence that'd indicate this, except for the fact that the server tends to be quite slow. The server is Windows 2008 Standard 64-bit, with SQL 2008 Express Hardware is a Celeron 2.80 GHz, 1Gb RAM The website is developed in ASP.Net MVC, using Entity Framework for data access. Now, this is pretty crappy hardware, but i've had other servers with these guys, with equivalent (or worse) HW, and performance is much better than this one. That said, the other servers have W2003 and SQL2005, and I'm using ASP.Net "WebForms" 2.0, no MVC, no LINQ, no EF; so I'm not sure whether going to 2008 / the other stuff means a big performance penalty is expected. I'm serving MP3 files (5-20 Mb) regularly, which is a slightly unusual load, maybe that is causing some kind of problems? Would that cause w3wp to use a lot of CPU? Disk usage seems very low. Memory is usually around 90%, but disk usage seems to indicate it's not paging much. I get tons of e-mails every day about SQL timeouts, for queries taking over 30 seconds, although all our queries are pretty straightforward (or should be, but EF may be screwing it up). This is what resource monitor looks like in one of these "sprints" of 100% CPU, in case there's anything useful there. And a snapshot of some performance counters: Now, what confuses me very much is that CPU usage of w3wp is just so high. It shouldn't be doing much really... So my questions are... Is there any way of finding out "what" it is doing? Maybe even profile it? Any performance counters I should be looking at? Is this to be expected given this hardware/software configuration? Is this could be cause by some kind of configuration failure, where would you start looking? Thank you VERY much. Daniel Magliola

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  • How to improve this bash shell script for turning hardlinks into symlinks?

    - by MountainX
    This shell script is mostly the work of other people. It has gone through several iterations, and I have tweaked it slightly while also trying to fully understand how it works. I think I understand it now, but I don't have confidence to significantly alter it on my own and risk losing data when I run the altered version. So I would appreciate some expert guidance on how to improve this script. The changes I am seeking are: make it even more robust to any strange file names, if possible. It currently handles spaces in file names, but not newlines. I can live with that (because I try to find any file names with newlines and get rid of them). make it more intelligent about which file gets retained as the actual inode content and which file(s) become sym links. I would like to be able to choose to retain the file that is either a) the shortest path, b) the longest path or c) has the filename with the most alpha characters (which will probably be the most descriptive name). allow it to read the directories to process either from parameters passed in or from a file. optionally, write a long of all changes and/or all files not processed. Of all of these, #2 is the most important for me right now. I need to process some files with it and I need to improve the way it chooses which files to turn into symlinks. (I tried using things like the find option -depth without success.) Here's the current script: #!/bin/bash # clean up known problematic files first. ## find /home -type f -wholename '*Icon* ## *' -exec rm '{}' \; # Configure script environment # ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ set -o nounset dir='/SOME/PATH/HERE/' # For each path which has multiple links # ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ # (except ones containing newline) last_inode= while IFS= read -r path_info do #echo "DEBUG: path_info: '$path_info'" inode=${path_info%%:*} path=${path_info#*:} if [[ $last_inode != $inode ]]; then last_inode=$inode path_to_keep=$path else printf "ln -s\t'$path_to_keep'\t'$path'\n" rm "$path" ln -s "$path_to_keep" "$path" fi done < <( find "$dir" -type f -links +1 ! -wholename '* *' -printf '%i:%p\n' | sort --field-separator=: ) # Warn about any excluded files # ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ buf=$( find "$dir" -type f -links +1 -path '* *' ) if [[ $buf != '' ]]; then echo 'Some files not processed because their paths contained newline(s):'$'\n'"$buf" fi exit 0

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  • Why is vCenter 5.1u1 exiting hosts from maintenance mode?

    - by Shane Madden
    This vCenter server was just upgraded to 5.1 update 1. I'm going through hosts and bringing firmware up to date, then upgrading them from various versions of 5.0 to 5.1u1. vCenter 5.1u1 seems to have an interesting new behavior: it's removing hosts from maintenance mode when they reconnect after being disconnected -- but very inconsistently, I've seen it maybe 4 or 5 times on ~25-30 host reboots. I've only seen it happen on 5.0 hosts that have not yet been upgraded to 5.1. In the image, I placed the host in maint mode and rebooted it into the HP SPP DVD's automatic update mode. After its usual ~40 minute update process, the host came back online.. and 7 seconds before even logging that the host had reconnected, vCenter had sent the host a task to exit maintenance mode. In my understanding, the only time vCenter should drop a host out of maintenance mode is when vCenter put it into maintenance mode itself (such as a VUM upgrade task). Why would this vCenter be unilaterally exiting a host from user-initiated maintenance mode? Edit, additional info: I ran the firmware upgrades on 5 more hosts, all at the same time. Two of them exited maint mode after reconnecting, three did not. The common factor of those exiting maint mode seems to be how long they were offline; the two that took a few tries to boot to the virtual media are the two that got knocked out of maint mode. esx31 (image above): 45 minutes unresponsive esx19 (exited maint): 87 minutes unresponsive esx24 (stayed in maint): 32 minutes unresponsive esx29 (stayed in maint): 39 minutes unresponsive esx32 (stayed in maint): 30 minutes unresponsive esx34 (exited maint): 70 minutes unresponsive Edit: The disconnect time idea seems to have been a red herring, as it's not happening consistently. Additionally, in the vpxd.log the exit maint mode task initiation seems to always immediately follow this vim.EnvironmentBrowser.queryProvisioningPolicy SOAP call. Here's the lines, slightly trimmed for clarity: 15:27:49.535 [info 'vpxdvpxdVmomi'] [ClientAdapterBase::InvokeOnSoap] Invoke done (esx31, vim.EnvironmentBrowser.queryProvisioningPolicy) 15:27:49.560 [info 'commonvpxLro'] [VpxLRO] -- BEGIN task -- esx31 -- HostSystem.exitMaintenanceMode -- Note that on the nodes that don't get the exit task, the vim.EnvironmentBrowser.queryProvisioningPolicy event still occurs. I'm not seeing any other differences in events before or after this in the reconnect process, aside from the extra events caused by exiting maintenance mode. Given the log's mention of provisioning policies, looking for autodeploy-related maintenance mode issues turns up complaints about similar behavior (though I'm not using autodeploy at all).

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  • XP OEM licensing when reinstalling Windows XP

    - by mindas
    My wife has managed to buy a Dell laptop she was using at her ex-employer that just went bust. The problem with it is the OS (Windows XP) which takes ages to boot and is generally disproportionally slow to the hardware of the machine. So my aim is to sacrifice a day and reinstall it. The problem I am slightly worried about is the licensing/registration/activation hell. Apart from the sticker (with WinXP license key), the laptop has no other paperwork proving this license is legitimate. I believe this was originally an OEM license. Unfortunately, I don't have the the installation CD. This computer also has MS Office installed (which I would like to retain) but it none of MS Office apps would launch due to some obscure error complaining about lack of free disk space (which computer has plenty of). I have absolutely no clue what kind of license this MS Office was. And because the company has gone into the administration, there is no way of getting this information nor installable media. I believe that by buying the hardware I have also acquired the software which I can use as I see fit. Correct me if I'm wrong. Above said, my question would be: What is the easiest way of reinstalling the XP? By easiest I mean avoiding spending my time to prove Microsoft support I've got the right to use the software (insert your computer says noooo joke here) but still being able to get to fresh virgin activated legal state of the XP. I used to work as a sysadmin many years ago so I am not afraid of any technical difficulties. The same question applies to MS Office. I imagine the process would consist of backing up all the data, pulling some bits from the registry and using that on the fresh install. As for reinstall I'd expect to use some sort of OEM Windows repair CD from Dell, right? Are those freely available? My other box (HP) has such a thing and it can't be used on any other brand. I'm sure somebody had to go through this licensing hell and could share his/her tips. Thanks in advance.

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  • XP OEM licensing when reinstalling Windows XP

    - by mindas
    My wife has managed to buy a Dell laptop she was using at her ex-employer that just went bust. The problem with it is the OS (Windows XP) which takes ages to boot and is generally disproportionally slow to the hardware of the machine. So my aim is to sacrifice a day and reinstall it. The problem I am slightly worried about is the licensing/registration/activation hell. Apart from the sticker (with WinXP license key), the laptop has no other paperwork proving this license is legitimate. I believe this was originally an OEM license. Unfortunately, I don't have the the installation CD. This computer also has MS Office installed (which I would like to retain) but it none of MS Office apps would launch due to some obscure error complaining about lack of free disk space (which computer has plenty of). I have absolutely no clue what kind of license this MS Office was. And because the company has gone into the administration, there is no way of getting this information nor installable media. I believe that by buying the hardware I have also acquired the software which I can use as I see fit. Correct me if I'm wrong. Above said, my question would be: What is the easiest way of reinstalling the XP? By easiest I mean avoiding spending my time to prove Microsoft support I've got the right to use the software (insert your computer says noooo joke here) but still being able to get to fresh virgin activated legal state of the XP. I used to work as a sysadmin many years ago so I am not afraid of any technical difficulties. The same question applies to MS Office. I imagine the process would consist of backing up all the data, pulling some bits from the registry and using that on the fresh install. As for reinstall I'd expect to use some sort of OEM Windows repair CD from Dell, right? Are those freely available? My other box (HP) has such a thing and it can't be used on any other brand. I'm sure somebody had to go through this licensing hell and could share his/her tips. Thanks in advance.

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  • Hyper-V Machine drifts time all over, even with NTP

    - by MichaelGG
    Resolved The problem was Hyper-V on that machine. I removed Hyper-V, installed VMware Server, ran the same VM. Time sync issues went away (< 100ms difference after a day). My setup is like this: HYV1 - HyperV machine (non domain) - sync irrelevant AD1 - VM AD server on HYV1, sync'd to time.nist.gov. HyperV time sync off. S1 - Physical machine, sync'd to domain. S2 - Physical machine running HyperV, sync'd to domain. V1 - Linux VM machine on S2, sync'd to AD1. No HyperV integration. AD1 and S1 have fine sync -- stripchart shows less than 100ms difference. S2 drifts like crazy. Here's a bit of the stripchart against AD1: 18:33:22 d:+00.0010138s o:+05.4101899s 18:33:24 d:+00.0010138s o:+05.4319765s 18:33:26 d:+00.0000000s o:+05.4788429s 18:33:28 d:+00.0000000s o:+05.6089942s 18:33:30 d:+00.0010138s o:+05.7240269s 18:33:32 d:+00.0000000s o:+06.0421911s 18:33:34 d:+00.0081104s o:+06.5613708s 18:33:37 d:+00.0000000s o:+06.9096594s 18:33:39 d:+00.0000000s o:+06.8867838s 18:33:41 d:+00.0010127s o:+06.8936401s In 20 seconds, it drifted over a second. If I manually reset it to within 1s, within a few minutes it'll be back drifting about 2 seconds. Overnight it went from ~2s to ~5s. The Linux VM inside S2 has perfect sync with AD1. Here's the config: C:\Users\mgg>w32tm /dumpreg /subkey:Parameters Value Name Value Type Value Data ------------------------------------------------------------ ServiceDll REG_EXPAND_SZ %systemroot%\system32\w32time.dll ServiceMain REG_SZ SvchostEntry_W32Time ServiceDllUnloadOnStop REG_DWORD 1 Type REG_SZ NT5DS NtpServer REG_SZ ad01.mydomain ad02.mydomain C:\Users\mgg>w32tm /dumpreg /subkey:Config Value Name Value Type Value Data ----------------------------------------------------------- FrequencyCorrectRate REG_DWORD 4 PollAdjustFactor REG_DWORD 5 LargePhaseOffset REG_DWORD 50000000 SpikeWatchPeriod REG_DWORD 900 LocalClockDispersion REG_DWORD 9 HoldPeriod REG_DWORD 5 PhaseCorrectRate REG_DWORD 1 UpdateInterval REG_DWORD 30000 EventLogFlags REG_DWORD 2 AnnounceFlags REG_DWORD 5 TimeJumpAuditOffset REG_DWORD 28800 MinPollInterval REG_DWORD 2 MaxPollInterval REG_DWORD 8 MaxNegPhaseCorrection REG_DWORD -1 MaxPosPhaseCorrection REG_DWORD -1 MaxAllowedPhaseOffset REG_DWORD 300 I looked at the event log, and apart from warnings about sync (after it gets way out of sync), there's no other warnings. How can I go about troubleshooting this? It's the only machine that is having this problem. All the other machines (physical and virtual) are doing fine. Edit: To clarify: The VM (AD1) has integration turned off and syncs to time.nist.gov. AD1 is fine. It's the physical machine S1 that can't sync to AD1 and drifts all over. All the other physical servers are able to sync to AD1 just fine. Update So, it appears to be an issue of running the VM. The clock slips slowly with the VM off. Turned on, it immediately starts losing seconds. I swt the VM to only use half the resources, and that seems to have slightly mitigated it, for now. Thanks!

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  • Cannot exit X server, restart, shutdown or drop to tty when VGA monitor active

    - by terdon
    I have a strange problem. If I connect an external VGA monitor to my laptop, exiting the X environment in any way crashes the computer. For example, say I am working with my two monitors (the laptop's and one connected to my VGA port) active. Hitting Ctrl+Alt+F Key should take me down to a tty. What actually happens is that the VGA screen goes blank, as you would expect, but the laptop screen, although still on, shows nothing. I know the screen is on because it is slightly more illuminated than when it is off. When in this state, I can do nothing to regain access to the machine. I have tried: Ctrl+F Key (and even Ctrl+Alt+F Key, just in case) combinations and none seem to have any effect. Ctrl+Alt+Del : Nothing Magic SysRq key: Nothing Blindly typing my username and password and trying to reboot/shutdown or restart GDM or MDM: Nothing The only thing that works is a hard reset. The exact same behavior occurs when kiling the X server through Ctrl+Alt+Backspace, rebooting or shutdown. There is no difference if I reboot/shutdown/log out using the WM's graphical menu or if I use the shutdown or rebootcommands. It is also not WM-dependent. I have the same problem using Cinnamon, Gnome 3, MATE and xfce4. It is, however, VGA dependent. I have tried connecting another VGA monitor and have the same problem. I do not, however, have this problem if a screen is connected to the DisplayPort. It is, therefore, a VGA specific issue. To make things even stranger, this only occurs when both screens are active. If either the laptop screen or the VGA monitor is inactive the problem goes away. Finally, this problem arose when I installed the latest Linux Mint Debian (LMDE). It did not occur with the previous release of LMDE. I am not sure what has changed since I used the same kernel version in both releases (I had upgraded the kernel while on the previous release) and, I think, the same nvidia drivers. Oh, and yes, I have updated the nvidia driver. Hardware: Dell M4500 laptop CPU: Intel Core i7 RAM: 8GB Graphics: nVidia GT216 [Quadro FX 880M] Software: LMDE, kernel 3.2.0-2-amd64 Xorg: 1.11.4 nVidia kernel: 295.20-1+3.2.9-1 Possibly relevant files: /var/log/Xorg.0.log ~/.xsession-errors Does anyone have any ideas how to fix this? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • Trouble setting up PATH for Java on Debian

    - by milkmansrevenge
    I am trying to get Oracle Java 7 update 3 working correctly on Debian 6. I have downloaded and set up the files in /usr/java/jre1.7.0_03. I have also set the following two lines at the end of /etc/bash.bashrc: export JAVA_HOME=/usr/java/jre1.7.0_03 export PATH=$PATH:$JAVA_HOME/bin Logging in as other users and root is fine, Java can be found: chris@mc:~$ java -version java version "1.7.0_03" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.7.0_03-b04) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 22.1-b02, mixed mode) However there are two cases where Java cannot be found as detailed below. Note that both of these worked fine when I have previously installed OpenJDK Java 6 via aptitude, but I need Oracle Java 7 for various reasons. Most importantly, I cannot run commands as another user via su, despite the PATH showing that Java should be present. The user was created with adduser chris root@mc:~# su chris -c "echo $PATH" /usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/java/jre1.7.0_03/bin:/bin root@mc:~# su chris -c "java -version" bash: java: command not found root@mc:~# su chris -c "/usr/java/jre1.7.0_03/bin/java -version" java version "1.7.0_03" ... How can it be in the PATH but not be found? Update 05/04/2012: explained by Daniel, to do with it being a non-interactive shell so files such as /etc/profile and /etc/bash.bashrc are not executed. Doing a full swap to that user and running Java works: root@mc:~# su chris chris@mc:/root$ java -version java version "1.7.0_03" ... I run a script on start up which exhibits similar but slightly different problems. The script is located in /etc/init.d/start-mystuff.sh and calls a jar: #!/bin/bash # /etc/init.d/start-mystuff.sh java -jar /opt/Mars.jar I can confirm that the script runs on start up and the exit code is 127, which indicates command not found. Inserting a line to print/save the PATH shows that it is: /sbin:/usr/sbin:/bin:/usr/bin This second problem isn't as important because I can just point directly to the Java executable in the script, but I am still curious! I have tried setting the full PATH and JAVA_HOME explicitly in /etc/environment which didn't help. I have also tried setting them in /etc/profile which doesn't seem to help either. I have tried logging in and out again after setting PATH in the various locations (duh!). Anyway, long post for what will probably have a simple one line solution :( Any help with this would be greatly appreciated, I have spent far too long trying to fix it by myself. Motivation The first problem may seem obscure but in my system I have users that are not allowed SSH access yet I still want to run processes as them. I have a ton of scripts operating in this way and don't want to have to change them all.

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  • Filtering Security Logs by User and Logon Type

    - by Trido
    I have been asked to find out when a user has logged on to the system in the last week. Now the audit logs in Windows should contain all the info I need. I think if I search for Event ID 4624 (Logon Success) with a specific AD user and Logon Type 2 (Interactive Logon) that it should give me the information I need, but for the life of my I cannot figure out how to actually filter the Event Log to get this information. Is it possible inside of the Event Viewer or do you need to use an external tool to parse it to this level? I found http://nerdsknowbest.blogspot.com.au/2013/03/filter-security-event-logs-by-user-in.html which seemed to be part of what I needed. I modified it slightly to only give me the last 7 days worth. Below is the XML I tried. <QueryList> <Query Id="0" Path="Security"> <Select Path="Security">*[System[(EventID=4624) and TimeCreated[timediff(@SystemTime) &lt;= 604800000]]]</Select> <Select Path="Security">*[EventData[Data[@Name='Logon Type']='2']]</Select> <Select Path="Security">*[EventData[Data[@Name='subjectUsername']='Domain\Username']]</Select> </Query> </QueryList> It only gave me the last 7 days, but the rest of it did not work. Can anyone assist me with this? EDIT Thanks to the suggestions of Lucky Luke I have been making progress. The below is my current query, although as I will explain it isn't returning any results. <QueryList> <Query Id="0" Path="Security"> <Select Path="Security"> *[System[(EventID='4624')] and System[TimeCreated[timediff(@SystemTime) &lt;= 604800000]] and EventData[Data[@Name='TargetUserName']='john.doe'] and EventData[Data[@Name='LogonType']='2'] ] </Select> </Query> </QueryList> As I mentioned, it wasn't returning any results so I have been messing with it a bit. I can get it to produce the results correctly until I add in the LogonType line. After that, it returns no results. Any idea why this might be? EDIT 2 I updated the LogonType line to the following: EventData[Data[@Name='LogonType'] and (Data='2' or Data='7')] This should capture Workstation Logons as well as Workstation Unlocks, but I still get nothing. I then modify it to search for other Logon Types like 3, or 8 which it finds plenty of. This leads me to believe that the query works correctly, but for some reason there are no entries in the Event Logs with Logon Type equalling 2 and this makes no sense to me. Is it possible to turn this off?

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  • mobile broadband recommendations for Lenovo T500

    - by Justin Grant
    I use a Lenovo T500 primarily in and around San Francisco, although I do some travel in the US on business and occasionally to Europe/Asia. I'm looking for a good mobile broadband option for my T500. I am admittedly baffled by the various mobile-broadband choices (3G vs. 4G, WiMax vs. LTE vs. MIMO vs. ..., etc.). My priorities are (in this order): Compatible with Lenovo T500 and Windows 7. I realize only the AT&T accessory card is listed on Lenovo's site, but I've also heard that other cards will work in my T500 too, like the WiMax/Wifi combo card-- so I'm interested in what actually works, not necessarily only what Lenovo is promoting. Reliable coverage in US large cities, especially the SF Bay Area. my IPhone has lousy coverage in many spots, so I'd be nervous about an AT&T 3G option unless the problem is with the IPhone and not AT&T's network. I'm OK with non-great coverage outside major US cities, since I don't do much travel in those areas. Speed. faster is better. Internal card. I'd slightly prefer something I could install inside my T500 instead of a dongle on the side that might break off, although this is my lowest priority so it's not a big deal. Price. I don't want to pay over $100/month. I've tried lots of Googling and haven't come up with clear answers. I've seen lots of general overviews without recommendations, and lots of passionate opinions which don't feel objective (and don't help me understand compatibility with my hardware & geography). Can you recommend a good, objective guide online, ideally for Lenovo although general guide is OK too, which can help me figure out which option is the best one for me? I'd also be interested in your own personal experiences of using mobile broadband using a Lenovo T500. I'll accept the answer which gets me closest to making a decision.

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  • Apache2 graceful restart stops proxying requests to passenger

    - by Rob
    Issue with apache mod proxy, it stops proxying requests after a graceful restart but not all the time. It seems to happen only on a Sunday when a graceful restart is triggered by logrotate. [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [notice] SIGUSR1 received. Doing graceful restart [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [notice] Apache/2.2.22 (Ubuntu) Phusion_Passenger/3.0.11 configured -- resuming normal operations [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(492) failed in child 26153 for worker proxy:reverse [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(486) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/api [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(487) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/editor/$1 [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(489) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/build [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(490) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/help [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(491) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/motd.html [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(480) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/api [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(481) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/editor/$1 [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(483) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/build [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(484) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/help [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(485) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/motd.html [Sun Sep 9 05:25:06 2012] [error] proxy: ap_get_scoreboard_lb(479) failed in child 26153 for worker http://api.myservice.org/motd.html After these lines, the logs are flooded with 404's because the requests are not being proxied. It's worth noting that the destination is just another vhost on the same apache instance, but the vhost (http://api.myservice.org) is serving passenger (mod_rails) I was thinking that maybe there's some startup issues with the passenger workers not being ready during a graceful restart? After a full restart resolves it and everything returns to normal. //Edit Here's the vhost config, thanks :) <VirtualHost *:80> UseCanonicalName Off LogFormat "%V %h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b" vcommon <Directory /var/www/vhosts> RewriteEngine on AllowOverride All </Directory> RewriteEngine on RewriteCond /var/www/vhosts/%{SERVER_NAME} !-d RewriteCond /var/www/vhosts/%{SERVER_NAME} !-l RewriteRule ^ http://sitenotfound.myservice.org/ [R=302,L] VirtualDocumentRoot /var/www/vhosts/%0/current # Rewrite requests to /assets to map to the /var/file-store/<SERVER_NAME>/ RewriteMap lowercase int:tolower RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/assets/ RewriteRule ^/assets/(.*)$ /var/file-store/${lowercase:%{SERVER_NAME}}/$1 # Map /login to /editor.html as it's far friendlier. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/login RewriteRule .* /editor.html [PT] # Forward some requests to the API ProxyPass /api http://api.myservice.org/api ProxyPass /site.json http://api.myservice.org/api/editor/site ProxyPassMatch ^/editor/(.*)$ http://api.myservice.org/editor/$1 ProxyPassMatch ^/api/(.*) http://api.myservice.org/api/$1 ProxyPass /build http://api.myservice.org/build ProxyPass /help http://api.myservice.org/help ProxyPass /motd.html http://api.myservice.org/motd.html <Proxy *> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Proxy> # TODO generate slightly more specific Error Documents for 401/403/500's, # but for now the 404 page is good enough ErrorDocument 401 /404.html ErrorDocument 403 /404.html ErrorDocument 404 /404.html ErrorDocument 500 /404.html </VirtualHost>

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  • Vagrant - Failed login, ssh not set up

    - by motleydev
    This question is two fold because somewhere in my attempts to solve the problem, I created a new one. First: I was trying to vagrant up using a Vagranfile based on the standard hashicorp/precise32 box. Everything worked up until default: SSH auth method: private key where it would eventually time out. Enabling gui in the Vagrantfile showed that the machine never actually logs in. I can use the standard user/pass and log in from that point but the vagrant up process still remains at that prior status. Here's where my understanding might be a little dim. I've tried setting auth method from the insecure_pass_key to my root ~/.ssh/id_rsa or whichever one I wanted to use. I'm not entirely sure where to put a copy of the public key or my authorized keys file. I've got a .vagrant.d folder in my user dir (I'm on OSX) which seems to contain the box images. I've got a .vagrant folder in my directory with the Vagrantfile which seems to contain the specific machine I am building off of. I've tried pouring over the docs and forums but I seem to be missing a key concept here. And Now: After a host of tips/tricks such as rolling back by VirtualBox install, uninstalling/reinstalling Vagrant and VritualBox several times, when I try to run vagrant ssh-config with a Vagrantfile based on the same hashicorp/precise32 it says that the box is not enabled for SSH. Specifically, this error: The provider for this Vagrant-managed machine is reporting that it is not yet ready for SSH. Depending on your provider this can carry different meanings. Make sure your machine is created and running and try again. Additionally, check the output of `vagrant status` to verify that the machine is in the state that you expect. If you continue to get this error message, please view the documentation for the provider you're using. So now I am slightly up a creek. Any help would be appreciated if not just clarifying a concept. Some pertinent info: I'm on OSX Maverics Due to the fact I'm running a dual HD system with system files on one HD and user files on another, my permissions are a little wonky and VBoxManage will only let me run commands via Sudo - not sure if it's pertinent - but maybe. I have no idea what I'm doing. That part is perhaps more important.

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