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  • get current selected button cell placed inside tableview using cocoa

    - by Swati
    hi i have a NSTableView i have two columns A and B B contains some data A contains custom button the button is added to column A using this: Below code is placed inside awakeFromNib method NSButtonCell *buttonCell = [[[NSButtonCell alloc] init] autorelease]; [buttonCell setBordered:NO]; [buttonCell setImagePosition:NSImageOnly]; [buttonCell setButtonType:NSMomentaryChangeButton]; [buttonCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [buttonCell setSelectable:TRUE]; [buttonCell setTag:100]; [buttonCell setTarget:self]; [buttonCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; [[myTable tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] setDataCell:buttonCell]; Some code in display cell of nstableview: -(void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(id)cell forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"DataIdentifier"]) { } else if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *zCell = (NSButtonCell *)cell; [zCell setTag:rowIndex]; [zCell setTitle:@"abc"]; [zCell setTarget:self]; [zCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; } } } now i want that when i click on the button the image of button cell gets changed as well as i want to do some coding. When button gets clicked then by default the tableView's reference gets passed. How can i get the button cell reference i looked here for similar problem: Cocoa: how to nest a button inside a Table View cell? but i am unable to add button inside column of NSTableView. How i change the image: - (void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView setObjectValue:(id)object forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)row; { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *aCell = (NSButtonCell *)[[tableView tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] dataCellForRow:row]; NSInteger index = [[aCell title]intValue]; if([self.selectedIndexesArray count]>0) { if(![self.selectedIndexesArray containsObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]) { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray removeObjectAtIndex:[selectedIndexesArray indexOfObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]]; } } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } } } } I have debugged the code and found that proper tag and titles are passed but image applies on more than one button cell, this is too very irregular. cant understand how its working!!! Any suggestions what am i doing wrong??

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  • JbossESB jmsProvider cannot convert IBMMQ JMS Message JMSTextMessage

    - by Himanshu
    I am trying to integrate IBMMQ v6.0.2 with jbossESB. we have local Queue available on IBMMQ on one of our QA QUEUEMANAGER. I am able to listen to the QUEUE using JMSprovider of jboss ESB. As soon as a message (of type jms_text ) is dropped , esb listen to it and pick it up and before it hit the next action it throws following error message. ERROR [JmsComposer] Unsupported JMS message type: com.ibm.jms.JMSTextMessage Here are the steps I followed. jboss-service.mxl : Defined Connection Factory and QUEUE added jars ( com.ibm.mq.* ) to ${jbossesb}/server/${mynode}/lib Added jms lsinterner configuration on jboss-esb.xml Please guide me what I m missing here... Do I need to create custom MessagePlugin ? jboss-esb looks like this <jms-provider name="WSMQ" connection-factory="MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <jms-bus busid="queuestartGwChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" acknowledge-mode ="AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE" /> </jms-bus> <jms-bus busid="queuestartEsbChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" /> </jms-bus> </jms-provider> jboss-service.xml looks like this <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQConnectionFactory" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <attribute name="JndiName">MQQueueConnectionFactory</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="IsXA">false</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="HostName">111.111.111.111</attribute> <attribute name="Port">1415</attribute> <attribute name="Channel">MYCO.SVRCONN</attribute> <attribute name="TransportType">CLIENT</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQDestination" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=WSMQRequestQueue"> <attribute name="JndiName">wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="DestinationName">MYCO.SERVICEORDER.QA01.QL01</attribute> <attribute name="TargetClient">MQ</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> I am using jboss-eap-4.3. Really appreciate any help.

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  • problem about gridview and baseadapter? Pls help

    - by flybirdtt
    I need a gridview to place 9 items. And i write a custom baseadapter. But find a problem about the position in the getView method.it looks like this gridview miss the 7th item.The code like this:` public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { LayoutDTO lDto = menuHashtable.get(Integer.toString(position)); ViewHolder vHolder = new ViewHolder(); if (lDto != null) { String titleString = lDto.getTitle(); Log.v("title...........", titleString + " " + Integer.toString(position) ); Bitmap iconBitmap = lDto.getIcon(); convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.custombutton, null); vHolder.icon = (ImageView) convertView .findViewById(R.id.imageicon); vHolder.icon.setImageBitmap(iconBitmap); vHolder.text = (TextView) convertView .findViewById(R.id.icontitle); int index = titleString.indexOf("\u0026"); if (index != -1) { String title1 = titleString.substring(0, index + 1).trim(); String title2 = titleString.substring(index + 1, titleString.length()).trim(); vHolder.text.setLines(2); String newtitle = title1 + "\n" + title2; vHolder.text.setText(newtitle); } else { vHolder.text.setLines(2); String newtitle = titleString + "\n" + " "; vHolder.text.setText(newtitle); } convertView.setTag(vHolder); } return convertView; }` The log show this: 05-20 21:37:16.066: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.105: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.125: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.135: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.166: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.185: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Entertainment 1 05-20 21:37:16.195: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Shopping 2 05-20 21:37:16.195: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Fashion 3 05-20 21:37:16.205: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Health & Beauty 4 05-20 21:37:16.215: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Supermarkets 5 05-20 21:37:16.226: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Auto Services 6 05-20 21:37:16.236: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Travel & Accommodation 8 05-20 21:37:16.316: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.326: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.336: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.345: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0

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  • What to do when you need more verbs in REST

    - by Richard Levasseur
    There is another similar question to mine, but the discussion veered away from the problem I'm encounting. Say I have a system that deals with expense reports (ER). You can create and edit them, add attachments, and approve/reject them. An expense report might look like this: GET /er/1 => {"title": "Trip to NY", "totalcost": "400 USD", "comments": [ "john: Please add the total cost", "mike: done, can you approve it now?" ], "approvals": [ {"john": "Pending"}, {"finance-group": "Pending"}] } That looks fine, right? Thats what an expense report document looks like. If you want to update it, you can do this: POST /er/1 {"title": "Trip to NY 2010"} If you want to approve it, you can do this: POST /er/1/approval {"approved": true} But, what if you want to update the report and approve it at the same time? How do we do that? If you only wanted to approve, then doing a POST to something like /er/1/approval makes sense. We could put a flag in the URL, POST /er/1?approve=1, and send the data changes as the body, but that flag doesn't seem RESTful. We could put special field to be submitted, too, but that seems a bit hacky, too. If we did that, then why not send up data with attributes like set_title or add_to_cost? We could create a new resource for updating and approving, but (1) I can't think of how to name it without verbs, and (2) it doesn't seem right to name a resource based on what actions can be done to it (what happens if we add more actions?) We could have an X-Approve: True|False header, but headers seem like the wrong tool for the job. It'd also be difficult to get set headers without using javascript in a browser. We could use a custom media-type, application/approve+yes, but that seems no better than creating a new resource. We could create a temporary "batch operations" url, /er/1/batch/A. The client then sends multiple requests, perhaps POST /er/1/batch/A to update, then POST /er/1/batch/A/approval to approve, then POST /er/1/batch/A/status to end the batch. On the backend, the server queues up all the batch requests somewhere, then processes them in the same backend-transaction when it receives the "end batch processing" request. The downside with this is, obviously, that it introduces a lot of complexity. So, what is a good, general way to solve the problem of performing multiple actions in a single request? General because its easy to imagine additional actions that might be done in the same request: Suppress or send notifications (to email, chat, another system, whatever) Override some validation (maximum cost, names of dinner attendees) Trigger backend workflow that doesn't have a representation in the document.

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  • Saxon XSLT-Transformation: How to change serialization of an empty tag from <x/> to <x></x>?

    - by Ben
    Hello folks! I do some XSLT-Transformation using Saxon HE 9.2 with the output later being unmarshalled by Castor 1.3.1. The whole thing runs with Java at the JDK 6. My XSLT-Transformation looks like this: <xsl:transform version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:ns="http://my/own/custom/namespace/for/the/target/document"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="UTF-8" indent="no" /> <xsl:template match="/"> <ns:item> <ns:property name="id"> <xsl:value-of select="/some/complicated/xpath" /> </ns:property> <!-- ... more ... --> </xsl:template> So the thing is: if the XPath-expression /some/complicated/xpath evaluates to an empty sequence, the Saxon serializer writes <ns:property/> instead of <ns:property></ns:property>. This, however, confuses the Castor unmarshaller, which is next in the pipeline and which unmarshals the output of the transformation to instances of XSD-generated Java-code. So my question is: How can I tell the Saxon-serializer to output empty tags not as standalone tags? Here is what I am proximately currently doing to execute the transformation: import net.sf.saxon.s9api.*; import javax.xml.transform.*; import javax.xml.transform.sax.SAXSource; // ... // read data XMLReader xmlReader = XMLReaderFactory.createXMLReader(); // ... there is some more setting up the xmlReader here ... InputStream xsltStream = new FileInputStream(xsltFile); InputStream inputStream = new FileInputStream(inputFile); Source xsltSource = new SAXSource(xmlReader, new InputSource(xsltStream)); Source inputSource = new SAXSource(xmlReader, new InputSource(inputStream)); XdmNode input = processor.newDocumentBuilder().build(inputSource); // initialize transformation configuration Processor processor = new Processor(false); XsltCompiler compiler = processor.newXsltCompiler(); compiler.setErrorListener(this); XsltExecutable executable = compiler.compile(xsltSource); Serializer serializer = new Serializer(); serializer.setOutputProperty(Serializer.Property.METHOD, "xml"); serializer.setOutputProperty(Serializer.Property.INDENT, "no"); serializer.setOutputStream(output); // execute transformation XsltTransformer transformer = executable.load(); transformer.setInitialContextNode(input); transformer.setErrorListener(this); transformer.setDestination(serializer); transformer.setSchemaValidationMode(ValidationMode.STRIP); transformer.transform(); I'd appreciate any hint pointing in the direction of a solution. :-) In case of any unclarity I'd be happy to give more details. Nightly greetings from Germany, Benjamin

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  • Interop.Outlook.UserProperties.Add causing problem during connection time

    - by Akie
    Hi All, I have created a plug-in for outlook. Plug-in has only below code. private void OnNewOutlookInspector(Outlook.Inspector OutlookInsptr) { Outlook.MailItem MlItem = (Outlook.MailItem)OutlookInsptr.CurrentItem; //if I remove below line. Everything is working fine. MlItem.UserProperties.Add("INSPINIT", Outlook.OlUserPropertyType.olText , true , true ).Value = "1"; } public void OnConnection(object application, Extensibility.ext_ConnectMode connectMode, object addInInst, ref System.Array custom) { applicationObject = application; addInInstance = addInInst; MessageBox.Show("in connection new 2"); OutlkApp = (Outlook.Application)application; OutlkInsptrs = OutlkApp.Inspectors; OutlkInsptrs.NewInspector += new Outlook.InspectorsEvents_NewInspectorEventHandler(OnNewOutlookInspector); } Problem I am facing is, When I send HTML mail while plug-in is enabled, receiving end it is being received as a plain text. Below is the mail content along with the header and body at recieving end. x-sender: [email protected] x-receiver: [email protected] Received: from blr-s-07.pointcrossblr.com ([192.168.1.107]) by blr-ws-134.pointcrossblr.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(6.0.2600.5949); Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:11:02 +0530 Received: from blrws134 ([192.168.1.175]) by blr-s-07.pointcrossblr.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(6.0.3790.4675); Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:11:02 +0530 From: "Ashif Nataliya" <[email protected]> To: <[email protected]> Cc: <[email protected]> Subject: RTF FRM blr to pc.com cc blr-ws-134 Date: Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:11:02 +0530 Message-ID: <[email protected]> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/mixed; boundary="----=_NextPart_000_00F7_01CBA1FB.36115580" X-Mailer: Microsoft Outlook 14.0 Content-Language: en-us X-MS-TNEF-Correlator: 00000000DCB2344DE8F50F4FBC91085BB5C06D55A4172000 thread-index: AcuhzRuTOBkvHPUnS1aLi9+cHNAWhA== Return-Path: [email protected] X-OriginalArrivalTime: 22 Dec 2010 11:41:02.0822 (UTC) FILETIME=[1C788860:01CBA1CD] This is a multipart message in MIME format. ------=_NextPart_000_00F7_01CBA1FB.36115580 Content-Type: text/plain; charset="us-ascii" Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit HTML Test Test Mail ------=_NextPart_000_00F7_01CBA1FB.36115580 Content-Type: application/ms-tnef; name="winmail.dat" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="winmail.dat" // and some other code..... Any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Why won't this hit test fire a second time? wpf

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a main window that contains two custom objects (AnimatedCharacter). These objects are nothing but images. These images might contain transparent portions. One of these objects slightly overlaps the other object. There is a listener attached to the main window and is as follows. private void Window_MouseLeftButtonUp_1(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point pt = e.GetPosition((UIElement)sender); //store off the mouse pt hitPointMouse = pt; //clear the result list hitResultsSubList.Clear(); EllipseGeometry m_egHitArea = new EllipseGeometry(pt, 1, 1); VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(sender as Visual, HitTestFilterFuncNew, new HitTestResultCallback(HitTestCallback), new GeometryHitTestParameters(m_egHitArea)); //Check all sub items you have now hit if (hitResultsSubList.Count > 0) { CheckSubHitItems(hitResultsSubList); } } The idea is to filter out only a select group of items (called AnimatedCharacters). The hittest and filters are as follows public HitTestResultBehavior HitTestCallback(HitTestResult htrResult) { IntersectionDetail idDetail = ((GeometryHitTestResult)htrResult).IntersectionDetail; switch (idDetail) { case IntersectionDetail.FullyContains: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.Intersects: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.FullyInside: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; default: return HitTestResultBehavior.Stop; } } public HitTestFilterBehavior HitTestFilterFuncNew(DependencyObject potentialHitTestTarget) { if (potentialHitTestTarget.GetType() == typeof(AnimatedCharacter)) { hitResultsSubList.Add(potentialHitTestTarget as AnimatedCharacter); } return HitTestFilterBehavior.Continue; } This returns me back a list (called hitResultsSubList) that I attempt to then process further. I want to take everything in the hitResultsSubList and run a hit test on it again. This time, the hit test will be checking alpha levels on the particular animatedCharacter object. private void CheckSubHitItems(List<DependencyObject> hitResultsSub) { for(int i = 0; i<hitResultsSub.Count; i++) { hitResultsList.Clear(); AnimatedCharacter ac = hitResultsSub[i] as AnimatedCharacter; try { //DEBUGGER SKIPS THIS NEXT LINE EVERY SINGLE TIME. VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(ac, null, new HitTestResultCallback(hitCallBack), new PointHitTestParameters(hitPointMouse)); } catch (Exception e) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(e.StackTrace); } if (hitResultsList.Count > 0) { //do something here } } } Here is my problem now. The hit test in the second function (CheckSubHitItems) never gets called. There are definitely items (DependencyObjects of the type AnimatedCharacter) in the hitResultSub, but no matter what, the second hit test will not fire. I can walk the for loop fine, but when that line is hit, I get the following console statement. Step into: Stepping over non-user code 'System.MulticastDelegate.CtorClosed' No exceptions are thrown. Any help is appreciated.

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  • C# Spell checker Problem

    - by reggie
    I've incorporated spell check into my win forms C# project. This is my code. public void CheckSpelling() { try { // declare local variables to track error count // and information int SpellingErrors = 0; string ErrorCountMessage = string.Empty; // create an instance of a word application Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application WordApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application(); // hide the MS Word document during the spellcheck //WordApp.WindowState = WdWindowState.wdWindowStateMinimize; // check for zero length content in text area if (this.Text.Length > 0) { WordApp.Visible = false; // create an instance of a word document _Document WordDoc = WordApp.Documents.Add(ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref oFalse); // load the content written into the word doc WordDoc.Words.First.InsertBefore(this.Text); // collect errors form new temporary document set to contain // the content of this control Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.ProofreadingErrors docErrors = WordDoc.SpellingErrors; SpellingErrors = docErrors.Count; // execute spell check; assumes no custom dictionaries WordDoc.CheckSpelling(ref oNothing, ref oIgnoreUpperCase, ref oAlwaysSuggest, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing); // format a string to contain a report of the errors detected ErrorCountMessage = "Spell check complete; errors detected: " + SpellingErrors; // return corrected text to control's text area object first = 0; object last = WordDoc.Characters.Count - 1; this.Text = WordDoc.Range(ref first, ref last).Text; } else { // if nothing was typed into the control, abort and inform user ErrorCountMessage = "Unable to spell check an empty text box."; } WordApp.Quit(ref oFalse, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem); System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(WordApp); // return report on errors corrected // - could either display from the control or change this to // - return a string which the caller could use as desired. // MessageBox.Show(ErrorCountMessage, "Finished Spelling Check"); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString()); } } The spell checker works well, the only problem is when I try to move the spell checker the main form blurs up for some reason. Also when I close the spell checker the main form is back to normal. It seems like it is opening up Microsoft word then hiding the window, only allowing the spell checker to be seen. Please help.

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  • Gap appears between navigation bar and view after rotating & tab switching

    - by Bogatyr
    My iphone application is showing strange behavior when rotating: a gap appears between the navigation title and content view inside a tab bar view (details on how to reproduce are below). I've created a tiny test case that exhibits the same problem: a custom root UIViewController, which creates and displays a UITabBarController programmatically, which has two tabs: 1) plain UIViewController, and 2) UINavigationController created programmatically with a single plain UIViewController content view. The complete code for the application is in the root controller's viewDidLoad (every "*VC" class is a totally vanilla UIViewController subclass with XIB for user interface from XCode, with only the view background color changed to clearly identify each view, nothing else). Here's the viewDidLoad code, and the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation code, this code is the entire application basically: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; FirstVC *fvc = [[FirstVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstVC" bundle:nil]; NavContentsVC *ncvc = [[NavContentsVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"NavContentsVC" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *svc = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:ncvc]; NSMutableArray *localControllersArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:2]; [localControllersArray addObject:fvc]; [localControllersArray addObject:svc]; fvc.title = @"FirstVC-Title"; ncvc.title = @"NavContents-Title"; UITabBarController *tbc = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tbc.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460); [tbc setViewControllers:localControllersArray]; [self.view addSubview:tbc.view]; [localControllersArray release]; [ncvc release]; [svc release]; [fvc release]; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Here's how to reproduce the problem: 1) start application 2) rotate device (happens in simulator, too) to landscape (UITabBar properly rotates) 3) click on tab 2 4) rotate device to portrait -- notice gap of root view controller's background color of about 10 pixels high beneath the Navigation title bar and the Navigation content view. 5) click tab 1 6) click tab 2 And the gap is gone! From my real application, I see that the gap remains during all VC push and pops while the NavigationController tab is active. Switching away to a different tab and back to the Nav tab clears up the gap. What am I doing wrong? I'm running on SDK 3.1.3, this happens both on the simulator and on the device. Except for this particular sequence, everything seems to work fine. Help!

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  • Rendering javascript at the server side level. A good or bad idea?

    - by davidhong
    I want to make it clear first: This isn't a question in relation to server-side Javascript or running Javascript server side. This is a question regarding rendering of Javascript code (which will be executed on the client-side) from server-side code. Having said that, take a look at below ASP.net code for example: hlRemoveCategory.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?');") This is prescribing the client-side onclick event on the server-side. As oppose to: $('a[rel=remove]').bind('click', function(event) { return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?'); } Now the question I want to ask is: What is the benefit of rendering javascript from the server-side code? Or the vice-versa? I personally prefer the second way of hooking up client-side UI/behaviour to HTML elements for the following reasons: Server-side does what ever it needs to already, including data-validation, event delegation and etc; and What server-side sees as an event is not necessarily the same process on the client-side. i.e., there are plenty more events on client-side (just look at custom events); and What happens on client-side and on server-side, during an event, could be completely irrelevant and decoupled; and What ever happens on client-side happens on client-side, there is no need for the server to know. Server should process and run what is given to them, how the process comes to life is not really up to them to decide in the event of the client-side events; and so and so forth. These are my thoughts obviously. I want to know what others think and if there has been any discussions on this topic. Topics branching from this argument can reach: Code management: is it easier to render everything from server-side? Separation of concern: is it easier if client-side logic is separated to server-side logic? Efficiency: which is more efficient both in terms of coding and running? At the end of the day, I am trying to move my team to go towards the second approach. There are lot of old guys in this team who are afraid of this change. I just wish to convince them with the right facts and stats. Let me know your thoughts.

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  • Routed Command Question

    - by Andrew
    I'd like to implement a custom command to capture a Backspace key gesture inside of a textbox, but I don't know how. I wrote a test program in order to understand what's going on, but the behaviour of the program is rather confusing. Basically, I just need to be able to handle the Backspace key gesture via wpf commands while keyboard focus is in the textbox, and without disrupting the normal behaviour of the Backspace key within the textbox. Here's the xaml for the main window and the corresponding code-behind, too (note that I created a second command for the Enter key, just to compare its behaviour to that of the Backspace key): <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Margin="44,54,44,128" Name="textBox1" /> </Grid> </Window> And here's the corresponding code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for EntryListView.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public static RoutedCommand EnterCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public static RoutedCommand BackspaceCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); CommandBinding cb1 = new CommandBinding(EnterCommand, EnterExecuted, EnterCanExecute); CommandBinding cb2 = new CommandBinding(BackspaceCommand, BackspaceExecuted, BackspaceCanExecute); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb1); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb2); KeyGesture kg1 = new KeyGesture(Key.Enter); KeyGesture kg2 = new KeyGesture(Key.Back); InputBinding ib1 = new InputBinding(EnterCommand, kg1); InputBinding ib2 = new InputBinding(BackspaceCommand, kg2); this.InputBindings.Add(ib1); this.InputBindings.Add(ib2); } #region Command Handlers private void EnterCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterCanExecute Method."); e.CanExecute = true; } private void EnterExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceCanExecute Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } #endregion Command Handlers } } Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Andrew

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  • paypal ipn working but stopping at 'thank you' page.

    - by Tarique Imam
    I am using the code for controller(CODEIGNITER): function paypal_tran(){ if (empty($_GET['action'])){ $_GET['action'] = 'process';} if($this-uri-segment ( 3 )){ $action=$this-uri-segment ( 3 ); } else{ $action='process'; } $ammount=39.99; $this-lenders_model-paypal_process($action,$this_script,$ammount); $this-load-view('view_paypal_tran'); } function ipn(){ if ($this->paypal_class->validate_ipn()) { $data = array( 'fname'=> 'fname', /* insert the user id */ 'lname'=>'lname' ); //$this->db->insert('ajax_test',$data); // For this example, we'll just email ourselves ALL the data. $subject = 'Instant Payment Notification - Recieved Payment'; $to = '[email protected]'; // your email $body = "An instant payment notification was successfully recieved\n"; $body .= "from ".$p->ipn_data['payer_email']." on ".date('m/d/Y'); $body .= " at ".date('g:i A')."\n\nDetails:\n"; foreach ($this->paypal_class->ipn_data as $key => $value) { $body .= "\n$key: $value"; } mail($to, $subject, $body); } } function success() { $this->load->view('paypal_succ_view'); } AND this is my model: function paypal_process($action,$this_script,$ammount){ switch ($action) { case 'process': // Process and order... // There should be no output at this point. To process the POST data, // the submit_paypal_post() function will output all the HTML tags which // contains a FORM which is submited instantaneously using the BODY onload // attribute. In other words, don't echo or printf anything when you're // going to be calling the submit_paypal_post() function. // This is where you would have your form validation and all that jazz. // You would take your POST vars and load them into the class like below, // only using the POST values instead of constant string expressions. // For example, after ensureing all the POST variables from your custom // order form are valid, you might have: // // $p->add_field('first_name', $_POST['first_name']); // $p->add_field('last_name', $_POST['last_name']); $this->paypal_class->add_field('business', '[email protected]'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('return', $this_script.'/success'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('cancel_return', $this_script.'/cancel'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('notify_url', $this_script.'/ipn'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('item_name', 'Lenders Account for one month'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('amount', $ammount); $this->paypal_class->submit_paypal_post(); // submit the fields to paypal $this->paypal_class->dump_fields(); // for debugging, output a table of all the fields break; PROBLEM IS IPN IS NOT WORKING. THE HIDDEN FIELD HAS VALUE FOR REDIRECT TO IPN, BUT NOT WORKING!!PLS HELP

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  • How can I make these images download on a seperate thread?

    - by Andy Barlow
    Hello!! I have the following code running on my Android device. It works great and displays my list items wonderfully. It's also clever in the fact it only downloads the data when it's needed by the ArrayAdapter. However, whilst the download of the thumbnail is occurring, the entire list stalls and you cannot scroll until it's finished downloading. Is there any way of threading this so it'll still scroll happily, maybe show a place holder for the downloading image, finish the download, and then show? Any help with this would be really apreciated. Thank-you kindly. Andy Barlow private class CatalogAdapter extends ArrayAdapter { private ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items; //Must research what this actually does! public CatalogAdapter(Context context, int textViewResourceId, ArrayList<SingleQueueResult> items) { super(context, textViewResourceId, items); this.items = items; } /** This overrides the getview of the ArrayAdapter. It should send back our new custom rows for the list */ @Override public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { View v = convertView; if (v == null) { LayoutInflater vi = (LayoutInflater)getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); v = vi.inflate(R.layout.mylists_rows, null); } final SingleQueueResult result = items.get(position); // Sets the text inside the rows as they are scrolled by! if (result != null) { TextView title = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_title); TextView format = (TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_format); title.setText(result.getTitle()); format.setText(result.getThumbnail()); // Download Images ImageView myImageView = (ImageView)v.findViewById(R.id.mylist_thumbnail); downloadImage(result.getThumbnail(), myImageView); } return v; } } // This should run in a seperate thread public void downloadImage(String imageUrl, ImageView myImageView) { try { url = new URL(imageUrl); URLConnection conn = url.openConnection(); conn.connect(); InputStream is = conn.getInputStream(); BufferedInputStream bis = new BufferedInputStream(is); Bitmap bm = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(bis); bis.close(); is.close(); myImageView.setImageBitmap(bm); } catch (IOException e) { /* Reset to Default image on any error. */ //this.myImageView.setImageDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.default)); } }

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  • Can't make my WCF extension work

    - by Sergio Romero
    I have a WCF solution that consists of the following class libraries: Exercise.Services: Contains the implementation classes for the services. Exercise.ServiceProxy: Contains the classes that are instantiated in the client. Exercise.HttpHost: Contains the services (*.svc files). I'm calling the service from a console application and the "first version" works really well so I took the next step which is to create a custom ServiceHostFactory, ServiceHost, and InstanceProvider so I can use constructor injection in my services as it is explained in this article. These classes are implemented in yet another class library: 4. Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension Now even though I've modified my service this: <%@ ServiceHost Language="C#" Debug="true" Factory="Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension.StructureMapServiceHostFactory" Service="Exercise.Services.PurchaseOrderService" %> I always get the following exception: System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException Security negotiation failed because the remote party did not send back a reply in a timely manner. This may be because the underlying transport connection was aborted. It fails in this line of code: public class PurchaseOrderProxy : ClientBase<IPurchaseOrderService>, IPurchaseOrderService { public PurchaseOrderResponse CreatePurchaseOrder(PurchaseOrderRequest purchaseOrderRequest) { return base.Channel.CreatePurchaseOrder(purchaseOrderRequest); //Fails here } } But that is not all, I added a trace to the web.config file and this is the error that appears in the log file: System.InvalidOperationException The service type provided could not be loaded as a service because it does not have a default (parameter-less) constructor. To fix the problem, add a default constructor to the type, or pass an instance of the type to the host. So this means that my ServiceHostFactory is never being hit, I even set a breakpoint in both its constructor and its method and they never get hit. I've added a reference of the StructureMapWcfExtension library to all the other ones (even the console client), one by one to no avail. I also tried to use the option in the host's web.config file to configure the factory like so: <serviceHostingEnvironment> <serviceActivations> <add service="Exercise.Services.PurchaseOrderService" relativeAddress="PurchaseOrderService.svc" factory="Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension.StructureMapServiceHostFactory"/> </serviceActivations> </serviceHostingEnvironment> That didn't work either. Please I need help in getting this to work so I can incorporate it to our project. Thank you. UPDATE: Here's the service host factory's code: namespace Exercise.StructureMapWcfExtension { public class StructureMapServiceHostFactory : ServiceHostFactory { private readonly Container Container; public StructureMapServiceHostFactory() { Container = new Container(); new ContainerConfigurer().Configure(Container); } protected override ServiceHost CreateServiceHost(Type serviceType, Uri[] baseAddresses) { return new StructureMapServiceHost(Container, serviceType, baseAddresses); } } public class ContainerConfigurer { public void Configure(Container container) { container.Configure(r => r.For<IPurchaseOrderFacade>().Use<PurchaseOrderFacade>()); } } }

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  • jQuery Validation plugin: checkbox groups and error message issues

    - by boomturn
    I've put together a form using the jQuery Validation plugin, and all inputs are fine with working validation and error messages – except for checkboxes. I have two checkbox problems. The first is that the Validation plugin API doesn't seem to handle checkboxes in grouped contexts (I'm using fieldsets for grouping). Found several approaches to the issue here, including reference to a post by Rebecca Murphey for a more general case using a custom method and class. Adapting that to this situation: jQuery.validator.addMethod('required_group', function(val, el) { var fieldParent = $(el).closest('fieldset'); return fieldParent.find('.required_group:checked').length; }); jQuery.validator.addClassRules('required_group', { 'required_group': true }); jQuery.validator.messages.required_group = 'Please check at least one box.'; This sort of works, but produces error messages on every checkbox, and only removes them as each box is clicked. This is not an acceptable situation for the user, who can only get rid of them by clicking false positives. Ideally, I guess what's needed is something to prevent or eliminate extra messages before they are displayed and use errorPlacement to display a single error message in the parent fieldset, that would then be removed with a click on any checkbox. Less ideally, maybe they would all display but an event handler could turn off the full set of redundant messages with a click, which is what this approach offered by tvanfosson appears to do. (Another customized approach here, but I couldn't get it to work.) I guess I should also note this form requires the checkboxes to have different names. My second problem is that one of the fieldsets with checkboxes in the form also contains a nested fieldset of checkboxes under one of the outer checkboxes. So in addition to the first-level one-box-checked requirement, if the particular checkbox containing the second-level checkboxes is checked, then at least one of the second-level boxes must be checked. Not sure about the right approach; I'm guessing what needs to happen (following the above scheme) is that the trigger checkbox would use toggleClass to add/remove 'required_group' class to all the checkboxes in the subfield, which would then (hopefully) behave the same as the parent field: $("#triggerCheckbox").click(function () { $(this).find(":checkbox").toggleClass("required_group"); }); Any suggestions or ideas welcome. I'm well beyond my limited jQuery skills on this one and would be happy to hear that I missed simple, elegant and/or obvious ways to do this!

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  • Does there exist an "idea checkout system" on the Internet?

    - by TimeSpace Traveller
    Greetings. I would like to ask the following question: is there anything on the Internet like an "idea checkout" system? Situation: I'm a software developer. Since my current job has started 2 years ago, my mentor at that time has pointed me to the open source world. I have only put little time to look at some of the open source projects, let alone any contribution. However, it is my wish to start developing something outside of the work. Well, except a little problem. I don't know what to develop! It is not about the technical knowledge; the problem is that, I am not a creative person. I am very good at analytical thinking, as well as debugging skills. When being told by my work partners to develop a solution, I could get it done without a problem. However, outside of work, I have no idea what to develop. When I look at the Internet, it seems that so many people have already been developing on so many interesting stuff, making me wonder what I could develop, so that I would not reinvent something already existed. That starts to make me wonder. On the Internet, is there anything like an "idea checkout" system or society? For example, some people would throw in as a software idea, and the system would keep it as an "inventory"; later, a potential software developer would "check out" the idea, just a how people would check out a book from the library. Then, the developer would check the "idea" back in, with a certain kind of work-in-progress or developed software, thus becoming an open-source project. I have just noticed that here at stackoverflow, there is a "Project-Ideas" tag, so perhaps that can provide me some ideas on what to develop; still, my wonder is about a system that people would provide ideas, and people would check out ideas to develop / implement into actual solution. Is there such a system or society existing anywhere on the Internet? Any input is welcome! Thank you very much. Update: Thank you for everyone who has answered my question. Certainly, "getting idea" is part of my problem; as a software developer, however, I'm concerned more than just "getting idea". What I am concerned more, as I have commented, is about the existence of such an idea exchanging ecosystem, capable to initiate open-source projects. I'll put an example here. Say, person A has an idea of music search program, but not search by the attributes of the music (composer, singer, publisher, lyrics, etc.); instead, he wants a program (and a database) to search a piece of music by melody. Very often, people only remember a piece of music by its melody, not even the name of the music (e.g. the music he wants was only once heard in a bookstore, but the melody just gets stuck in his head!). In order to find that piece, normally he would just need to blindly search for it, and spent a long time to do so. A search by melody would enable person A to find the piece much quicker. However, he would not want to personally work on it, not just because of the complexity (he is not a musician and/or programmer, knowing almost nothing about music systems in computer, search algorithms, etc.), but also legal issues (RIAA??), thus he would just like to keep the idea at some place, and let other people to work on that. Now, a developer (person B) may be at the same stage as I am right now, wishing to find something to develop, but not having an idea. With the idea exchanging ecosystem, person B will search, and somehow discover person A's music search idea, and feeling interested enough to work on it. So he "checks out" the idea, start working on it (at least a skeleton), and checks back in with the progress. An open-source project starts from here, fulfilling person A's wish, and person B's programming desire. The above is just an example, because there are already such systems exist on the Internet, but it illustrates what I think about the idea exchange system in my mind. My main concern is about idea exchanging ecosystem, not at personal and unorganized level, but at a semi-organized protocol that's specifically for software developers, having actual projects coming out as the fruits. Not about "projects", but about "ideas and product of ideas". Hopefully that would clear up some of the original idea of this question. Any input is welcome; in fact, I would like to hear as many people as possible how everyone thinks about this. Thank you very much!

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  • paypal IPN sends two different twice

    - by Patrick
    I've come across something a bit strange I was hoping someone with more experience with Paypal can explain, Specifically the IPN feature. It seems I'm getting two very different hits to my IPN listener. The first one always fails, The second one passes. Now I know Paypal tends to send duplicates, But what I've noticed is two very different $_POST arrays being recieved. Here's the respones : [2014-06-08 23:51:19] RAW POST DATA : Array ( [transaction] => Array ( [0] => ILS 20.00 ) [payment_request_date] => Sun Jun 08 13:52:12 PDT 2014 [return_url] => MY_URL [fees_payer] => EACHRECEIVER [ipn_notification_url] => MY_URL [sender_email] => [email protected] //fake email [verify_sign] => ANp5TpLat3.2ylx.cECtVZ..5HejAsVcs05tdVC7RldmeYNJ91SKaqFJ [test_ipn] => 1 [cancel_url] => MY_URL [pay_key] => AP-04B74091M7083584A [action_type] => PAY [transaction_type] => Adaptive Payment PAY [tracking_id] => 13 // This is a number I passed, But it doesn't exist in the 2nd POST [status] => COMPLETED [log_default_shipping_address_in_transaction] => false [charset] => windows-1252 [notify_version] => UNVERSIONED [reverse_all_parallel_payments_on_error] => false ) [2014-06-08 23:51:19] RAW POST DATA : Array ( [transaction_subject] => [payment_date] => 13:52:28 Jun 08, 2014 PDT [txn_type] => web_accept [last_name] => test [residence_country] => US [item_name] => .... (this continues for quite a bit more) .... [payment_fee] => [mc_fee] => 1.78 [mc_gross] => 20.00 [custom] => [charset] => windows-1252 [notify_version] => 3.8 [ipn_track_id] => f93ce8bdd4382 ) My problem The first IPN with the juicy tracking_id fails, the 2nd IPN is verified, But once the IPN is verified I no longer have access to the tracking_id. My questions Why does paypal send two different IPN's Why are they different? Why isn't any of this documented on Paypal? :(

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  • Android: dynamically setting links to text in strings.xml

    - by Martyn
    I'm trying to make an app with localisation built in, but I want a way that I can create a web link within the text, the URL being defined elsewhere (for ease of maintenance). So, I have my links in res/values/strings.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="link1">http://some.link.com</string> <string name="link2">http://some.link2.com</string> </resources> and my localised text in res/values-en-rGB/strings.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and link1\nMore text and link2.</string> </resources> I've not tested this bit, but from the localization section of developer.android.com it says that this approach to reducing content duplication should work, although I'm not sure what folder I should put Italian, for example. Would it be in 'res/values-it-rIT/strings.xml'? Lets assume that I have various other languages too. I'm looking for a way of taking the base localised 'sampleText' and inserting my html links in, and getting them to work when clicked on. I've tried two approaches so far: 1, Putting some formatting in the 'sampleText' (%s): <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and <a href="%s">link1</a>\nMore text and <a href="%s">link2</a>.</string> and then processing the text like this: TextView tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textHolder); tv.setText(getResources().getString(R.string.sampleText, getResources().getString(R.string.link1), getResources().getString(R.string.link2))); But this didn't work when I click on the link, even though the link text is being put in to the correct places. 2, I tried to use Linkify but the regular expression route may be difficult as I'm looking at supporting non-Latin based languages. I tried to put a custom xml tag around the link text and then do something like this: Pattern wordMatcher = Pattern.compile("<span1>.*</span1>"); String viewURL = "content://" + getResources().getString(R.string.someLink); Linkify.addLinks(tv, wordMatcher , viewURL ); But this didn't work either. So, I'd like to know if there's a way of dynamically adding multiple URLs to different sections of the same text which will link to web content? Thank you, Martyn

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  • Design pattern question: encapsulation or inheritance

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I have a question I have been toiling over for quite a while. I am building a templating engine with two main classes Template.php and Tag.php, with a bunch of extension classes like Img.php and String.php. The program works like this: A Template object creates a Tag objects. Each tag object determines which extension class (img, string, etc.) to implement. The point of the Tag class is to provide helper functions for each extension class such as wrap('div'), addClass('slideshow'), etc. Each Img or String class is used to render code specific to what is required, so $Img->render() would give something like <img src='blah.jpg' /> My Question is: Should I encapsulate all extension functionality within the Tag object like so: Tag.php function __construct($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call $this->extension = new $namespace($this); // Pass in Tag object so it can be used within extension return $this; // Tag object } function render() { return $this->extension->render(); } Img.php function __construct(Tag $T) { $args = $T->getArgs(); $T->addClass('img'); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } Usage: $T = new Tag("img", array(...); $T->render(); .... or should I create more of an inheritance structure because "Img is a Tag" Tag.php public static create($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call return new $namespace($args); } Img.php class Img extends Tag { function __construct($args) { // Determine namespace then call create tag $T = parent::__construct($namespace, $args); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } } Usage: $Img = Tag::create('img', array(...)); $Img->render(); One thing I do need is a common interface for creating custom tags, ie I can instantiate Img(...) then instantiate String(...), I do need to instantiate each extension using Tag. I know this is somewhat vague of a question, I'm hoping some of you have dealt with this in the past and can foresee certain issues with choosing each design pattern. If you have any other suggestions I would love to hear them. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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  • How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Jiho Han
    I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

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  • What is stopping data flow with .NET 3.5 asynchronous System.Net.Sockets.Socket?

    - by TonyG
    I have a .NET 3.5 client/server socket interface using the asynchronous methods. The client connects to the server and the connection should remain open until the app terminates. The protocol consists of the following pattern: send stx receive ack send data1 receive ack send data2 (repeat 5-6 while more data) receive ack send etx So a single transaction with two datablocks as above would consist of 4 sends from the client. After sending etx the client simply waits for more data to send out, then begins the next transmission with stx. I do not want to break the connection between individual exchanges or after each stx/data/etx payload. Right now, after connection, the client can send the first stx, and get a single ack, but I can't put more data onto the wire after that. Neither side disconnects, the socket is still intact. The client code is seriously abbreviated as follows - I'm following the pattern commonly available in online code samples. private void SendReceive(string data) { // ... SocketAsyncEventArgs completeArgs; completeArgs.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(OnSend); clientSocket.SendAsync(completeArgs); // two AutoResetEvents, one for send, one for receive if ( !AutoResetEvent.WaitAll(autoSendReceiveEvents , -1) ) Log("failed"); else Log("success"); // ... } private void OnSend( object sender , SocketAsyncEventArgs e ) { // ... Socket s = e.UserToken as Socket; byte[] receiveBuffer = new byte[ 4096 ]; e.SetBuffer(receiveBuffer , 0 , receiveBuffer.Length); e.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(OnReceive); s.ReceiveAsync(e); // ... } private void OnReceive( object sender , SocketAsyncEventArgs e ) {} // ... if ( e.BytesTransferred > 0 ) { Int32 bytesTransferred = e.BytesTransferred; String received = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(e.Buffer , e.Offset , bytesTransferred); dataReceived += received; } autoSendReceiveEvents[ SendOperation ].Set(); // could be moved elsewhere autoSendReceiveEvents[ ReceiveOperation ].Set(); // releases mutexes } The code on the server is very similar except that it receives first and then sends a response - the server is not doing anything (that I can tell) to modify the connection after it sends a response. The problem is that the second time I hit SendReceive in the client, the connection is already in a weird state. Do I need to do something in the client to preserve the SocketAsyncEventArgs, and re-use the same object for the lifetime of the socket/connection? I'm not sure which eventargs object should hang around during the life of the connection or a given exchange. Do I need to do something, or Not do something in the server to ensure it continues to Receive data? The server setup and response processing looks like this: void Start() { // ... listenSocket.Bind(...); listenSocket.Listen(0); StartAccept(null); // note accept as soon as we start. OK? mutex.WaitOne(); } void StartAccept(SocketAsyncEventArgs acceptEventArg) { if ( acceptEventArg == null ) { acceptEventArg = new SocketAsyncEventArgs(); acceptEventArg.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(OnAcceptCompleted); } Boolean willRaiseEvent = this.listenSocket.AcceptAsync(acceptEventArg); if ( !willRaiseEvent ) ProcessAccept(acceptEventArg); // ... } private void OnAcceptCompleted( object sender , SocketAsyncEventArgs e ) { ProcessAccept(e); } private void ProcessAccept( SocketAsyncEventArgs e ) { // ... SocketAsyncEventArgs readEventArgs = new SocketAsyncEventArgs(); readEventArgs.SetBuffer(dataBuffer , 0 , Int16.MaxValue); readEventArgs.Completed += new EventHandler<SocketAsyncEventArgs>(OnIOCompleted); readEventArgs.UserToken = e.AcceptSocket; dataReceived = ""; // note server is degraded for single client/thread use // As soon as the client is connected, post a receive to the connection. Boolean willRaiseEvent = e.AcceptSocket.ReceiveAsync(readEventArgs); if ( !willRaiseEvent ) this.ProcessReceive(readEventArgs); // Accept the next connection request. this.StartAccept(e); } private void OnIOCompleted( object sender , SocketAsyncEventArgs e ) { // switch ( e.LastOperation ) case SocketAsyncOperation.Receive: ProcessReceive(e); // similar to client code // operate on dataReceived here case SocketAsyncOperation.Send: ProcessSend(e); // similar to client code } // execute this when a data has been processed into a response (ack, etc) private SendResponseToClient(string response) { // create buffer with response // currentEventArgs has class scope and is re-used currentEventArgs.SetBuffer(sendBuffer , 0 , sendBuffer.Length); Boolean willRaiseEvent = currentClient.SendAsync(currentEventArgs); if ( !willRaiseEvent ) ProcessSend(currentEventArgs); } A .NET trace shows the following when sending ABC\r\n: Socket#7588182::SendAsync() Socket#7588182::SendAsync(True#1) Data from Socket#7588182::FinishOperation(SendAsync) 00000000 : 41 42 43 0D 0A Socket#7588182::ReceiveAsync() Exiting Socket#7588182::ReceiveAsync() - True#1 And it stops there. It looks just like the first send from the client but the server shows no activity. I think that could be info overload for now but I'll be happy to provide more details as required. Thanks!

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  • Why don't my scrollbars work properly when programmatically hiding rows in silverlight Datagrid?

    - by Luke Vilnis
    I have a Silverlight datagrid with custom code that allows for +/- buttons on the lefthand side and can display a table with a tree structure. The +/- buttons are bound to a IsExpanded property on my ViewModelRows, as I call them. The visibility of rows is bound to an IsVisible property on the ViewModelRows which is determined based on whether or not all of the parent rows are expanded. Straightforward enough. This code works fine in that if I scroll up and down the grid with PageUp/PageDown or the arrow keys, all the right rows are hidden and everything has the right structure and I can play with the +/- buttons to my hearts content. However, the vertical scroll bar on the right hand side, although it starts off the correct size and it scrolls through the rows smoothly, when I collapse rows and then re-expand them, doesn't go back to its correct size. The scrollbar can still usually be moved around to scroll through the whole collection, but because it is too big, once the bar moves to the bottom, there are still more rows to go through and it sort of jerkily shoots all the way down to the bottom or sometimes fails to scroll at all. This is pretty hard to describe so I included a screenshot with the black lines drawn on to show the difference in scrollbar length even though the two grids have the same number of rows expanded. I think this might be a bug related to the way the Datagrid does virtualization of rows. It seems to me like it isn't properly keeping track of how tall each row is supposed to be when expansion states change. Is there a way to programmatically "poke" (read hack) it to recalculate its scrollbar size on LoadingRow or something ugly like that? I'd include a code sample but there's 2 c# files and 1 xaml file so I wanted to see if anyone else has heard of this sort of issue before I try to make it reproducible in a self-contained way. Once again, scrolling with the arrow keys works fine so I'm pretty sure the underlying logic and binding is working, there's just some issue with the row height not being calculated properly. Since I'm a new user, it won't let me use image tags so here's the link to a picture of the problem: http://img210.imageshack.us/img210/8760/messedupscrollbars.png

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  • NSKeyedUnarchiver chokes when trying to unarchive more than one object

    - by ajduff574
    We've got a custom matrix class, and we're attempting to archive and unarchive an NSArray containing four of them. The first seems to get unarchived fine (we can see that initWithCoder is called once), but then the program simply hangs, using 100% CPU. It doesn't continue or output any errors. These are the relevant methods from the matrix class (rows, columns, and matrix are our only instance variables): -(void)encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder*) coder { float temp[rows * columns]; for(int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { for(int j = 0; j < columns; j++) { temp[columns * i + j] = matrix[i][j]; } } [coder encodeBytes:(const void *)temp length:rows*columns*sizeof(float) forKey:@"matrix"]; [coder encodeInteger:rows forKey:@"rows"]; [coder encodeInteger:columns forKey:@"columns"]; } -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder *) coder { if (self = [super init]) { rows = [coder decodeIntegerForKey:@"rows"]; columns = [coder decodeIntegerForKey:@"columns"]; NSUInteger * len; *len = (unsigned int)(rows * columns * sizeof(float)); float * temp = (float * )[coder decodeBytesForKey:@"matrix" returnedLength:len]; matrix = (float ** )calloc(rows, sizeof(float*)); for (int i = 0; i < rows; i++) { matrix[i] = (float*)calloc(columns, sizeof(float)); } for(int i = 0; i < rows *columns; i++) { matrix[i / columns][i % columns] = temp[i]; } } return self; } And this is really all we're trying to do: NSArray * weightMatrices = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:w1,w2,w3,w4,nil]; [NSKeyedArchiver archiveRootObject:weightMatrices toFile:@"weights.archive"]; NSArray * newWeights = [NSKeyedUnarchiver unarchiveObjectWithFile:@"weights.archive"]; What's driving us crazy is that we can archive and unarchive a single matrix just fine. We've done so (successfully) with a matrix many times larger than these four combined.

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  • DatagridView loses current edit on Background update

    - by yoni.s
    Here's my problem : I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList of custom objects. A background thread is constantly updating a value of these objects. The udpates are showing correctly, and everything is fine except for one thing - If you try to edit a different field while the background-updated field is being updated, it loses the entered value. Here is a code sample that demonstrates this behavior: (for new form, drop a new DataGridView on:) using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Threading; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { private BindingList<foo> flist; private Thread thrd; private BindingSource b; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); flist = new BindingList<foo> { new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1} }; b = new BindingSource(); b.DataSource = flist; dataGridView1.DataSource = b; thrd = new Thread(new ThreadStart(updPRoc)); thrd.Start(); } private void upd() { flist.ToList().ForEach(f=>f.c++); } private void updPRoc() { while (true) { this.BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(upd)); Thread.Sleep(1000); } } } public class foo:INotifyPropertyChanged { private int _c; public int a { get; set; } public int b { get; set; } public int c { get {return _c;} set { _c = value; if (PropertyChanged!= null) PropertyChanged(this,new PropertyChangedEventArgs("c")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } } So, you edit column a or b, you will see that the column c update causes you to lose your entry. Any thoughts appreciated.

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  • What are the benefits of using ORM over XML Serialization/Deserialization?

    - by Tequila Jinx
    I've been reading about NHibernate and Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform Object Relational Mapping against my data access layer. I'm interested in the benefits of having an established framework to perform ORM, but I'm curious as to the performance costs of using it against standard XML Serialization and Deserialization. Right now, I develop stored procedures in Oracle and SQL Server that use XML Types for either input or output parameters and return or shred XML depending on need. I use a custom database command object that uses generics to deserialize the XML results into a specified serializable class. By using a combination of generics, xml (de)serialization and Microsoft's DAAB, I've got a process that's fairly simple to develop against regardless of the data source. Moreover, since I exclusively use Stored Procedures to perform database operations, I'm mostly protected from changes in the data structure. Here's an over-simplified example of what I've been doing. static void main() { testXmlClass test = new test(1); test.Name = "Foo"; test.Save(); } // Example Serializable Class ------------------------------------------------ [XmlRootAttribute("test")] class testXmlClass() { [XmlElement(Name="id")] public int ID {set; get;} [XmlElement(Name="name")] public string Name {set; get;} //create an instance of the class loaded with data. public testXmlClass(int id) { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); this = db.ExecuteSerializable("myGetByIDProcedure"); } //save the class to the database... public Save() { GenericDBProvider db = new GenericDBProvider(); db.AddInParameter("myInputParameter", DbType.XML, this); db.ExecuteSerializableNonQuery("mySaveProcedure"); } } // Database Handler ---------------------------------------------------------- class GenericDBProvider { public T ExecuteSerializable<T>(string commandText) where T : class { XmlSerializer xml = new XmlSerializer(typeof(T)); // connection and command code is assumed for the purposes of this example. // the final results basically just come down to... return xml.Deserialize(commandResults) as T; } public void ExecuteSerializableNonQuery(string commandText) { // once again, connection and command code is assumed... // basically, just execute the command along with the specified // parameters which have been serialized. } public void AddInParameter(string name, DbType type, object value) { StringWriter w = new StringWriter(); XmlSerializer x = new XmlSerializer(value.GetType()); //handle serialization for serializable classes. if (type == DbType.Xml && (value.GetType() != typeof(System.String))) { x.Serialize(w, value); w.Close(); // store serialized object in a DbParameterCollection accessible // to my other methods. } else { //handle all other parameter types } } } I'm starting a new project which will rely heavily on database operations. I'm very curious to know whether my current practices will be sustainable in a high-traffic situation and whether or not I should consider switching to NHibernate or Microsoft's Entity Framework to perform what essentially seems to boil down to the same thing I'm currently doing. I appreciate any advice you may have.

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