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  • Parse multiple named command line parameters

    - by scholzr
    I need to add the ability to a program to accept multiple named parameters when opening the program via the command line. i.e. program.exe /param1=value /param2=value and then be able to utilize these parameters as variables in the program. I have found a couple of ways to accomplish pieces of this, but can't seem to figure out how to put it all together. I have been able to pass one named parameter and recover it using the code below, and while I could duplicate it for every possible named parameter, I know that can't be the preffered way to do this. Dim inputArgument As String = "/input=" Dim inputName As String = "" For Each s As String In My.Application.CommandLineArgs If s.ToLower.StartsWith(inputArgument) Then inputName = s.Remove(0, inputArgument.Length) End If Next Alternatively, I can get multiple unnamed parameters from the command line using My.Application.CommandLineArgs But this requires that the parameters all be passed in the same order/format each time. I need to be able to pass a random subset of parameters each time. Ultimately, what I would like to be able to do, is separate each argument and value, and load it into a multidimentional array for later use. I know that I could find a way to do this by separating the string at the "=" and stripping the "/", but as I am somewhat new to this, I wanted to see if there was a "preffered" way for dealing with multiple named parameters?

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  • A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected: Dealing with these errors proactively, or a

    - by Albert
    I'm noticing this error more and more in my error logs. I've read through the questions here talking about this error, but they don't address what I would like to do (see below). I'm considering three options, in the order of preference: 1) When submitting a form (I use formviews almost exclusively, if that helps), if potentially dangerous characters are detected, automatically strip them out and submit. 2) When submitting a form, if potentially dangerous characters are detected, alert the user and let them fix it before trying again. 3) After the exception is generated, deal with it and alert the user. I'm hoping one of the first two options might be able to do somewhat globally...I know for the 3rd I'd have to alter a TON of Try-Catch blocks I already have in place. Doable, but labor intensive. I'd rather be proactive about it if at all possible and avoid the exception all together. Perhaps one approach to #1 would be to write a block of code that could loop through all text entry fields in a formview, during the insert/update event, and strip the characters out. I'm ok with that, but I'd rather not have to heavily alter all my Insert/Update events to accomplish this. Or maybe I just create a different class to do the text checking/deleting, and only insert 1 line of code in each Insert/Update event. If anyone can come up with some example code of any of these approaches that would be a help. Thanks for any ideas or information. I'm definitely open to other solutions too; these are only the 3 that came to mind. I can say that I don't want to turn request validation off though.

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  • Getting the ranking of a photo in SQL

    - by Jake Petroules
    I have the following tables: Photos [ PhotoID, CategoryID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID ] Categories [ CategoryID, ... ] PK [ CategoryID ] Votes [ PhotoID, UserID, ... ] PK [ PhotoID, UserID ] A photo belongs to one category. A category may contain many photos. A user may vote once on any photo. A photo can be voted for by many users. I want to select the ranks of a photo (by counting how many votes it has) both overall and within the scope of the category that photo belongs to. The count of SELECT * FROM Votes WHERE PhotoID = @PhotoID being the number of votes a photo has. I want the resulting table to have generated columns for overall rank, and rank within category, so that I may order the results by either. So for example, the resulting table from the query should look like: PhotoID VoteCount RankOverall RankInCategory 1 48 1 7 3 45 2 5 19 33 3 1 2 17 4 3 7 9 5 5 ... ...you get the idea. How can I achieve this? So far I've got the following query to retrieve the vote counts, but I need to generate the ranks as well: SELECT PhotoID, UserID, CategoryID, DateUploaded, (SELECT COUNT(CommentID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.Comments WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS CommentCount, (SELECT COUNT(PhotoID) AS Expr1 FROM dbo.PhotoVotes WHERE (PhotoID = dbo.Photos.PhotoID)) AS VoteCount, Comments FROM dbo.Photos

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  • Showing errors in updatepanel after processing a CSV file

    - by Younes
    I have a csv importroutine which imports my CSV values into Sitecore. After this proces is done i want to show the errors in an asp:literal. This is not working, and I think this is because i need an updatepanel for this in order to be able to update text after the first postback (the csv upload / import). I made this: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder1" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> and coded this: string melding = string.Format("Er zijn {0} objecten geïmporteerd.{1}", nrOfItemsImported, errors); ViewState["Melding"] = melding; And i have a button. On the onclick of this button I have: Literal literal = new Literal(); literal.Text = (string)ViewState["Melding"]; literal.ID = DateTime.Now.Ticks.ToString(); UpdatePanel1.ContentTemplateContainer.Controls.Add(literal); PlaceHolder1.Controls.Add(literal); When i now press the button i want to update the panel so that it will show my Literal with the errormsg on it. This however isn't happening. How can this be? I'm guessing it has something to do with my viewstate, i don't see keys on the viewstate after I press the button...

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  • How to use R's ellipsis feature when writing your own function?

    - by Ryan Thompson
    The R language has a nifty feature for defining functions that can take a variable number of arguments. For example, the function data.frame takes any number of arguments, and each argument becomes the data for a column in the resulting data table. Example usage: > data.frame(letters=c("a", "b", "c"), numbers=c(1,2,3), notes=c("do", "re", "mi")) letters numbers notes 1 a 1 do 2 b 2 re 3 c 3 mi The function's signature includes an ellipsis, like this: function (..., row.names = NULL, check.rows = FALSE, check.names = TRUE, stringsAsFactors = default.stringsAsFactors()) { [FUNCTION DEFINITION HERE] } I would like to write a function that does something similar, taking multiple values and consolidating them into a single return value (as well as doing some other processing). In order to do this, I need to figure out how to "unpack" the ... from the function's arguments within the function. I don't know how to do this. The relevant line in the function definition of data.frame is object <- as.list(substitute(list(...)))[-1L], which I can't make any sense of. So how can I convert the ellipsis from the function's signature into, for example, a list? To be more specific, how can I write get_list_from_ellipsis in the code below? my_ellipsis_function(...) { input_list <- get.list.from.ellipsis(...) output_list <- lapply(X=input_list, FUN=do_something_interesting) return(output_list) } my_ellipsis_function(a=1:10,b=11:20,c=21:30)

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  • Zend Routes conflict

    - by meder
    I have defined 2 custom routes. One for threads/:id/:name and the other for threads/tags/:tagName however the second one conflicts with the first because if I enable both then the first breaks and treats :id literally as an action, not obeying the \d+ requirement ( I also tried using pure regex routes, see bottom ). Action "1" does not exist and was not trapped in __call() I tried re-arranging the order of the routes but if I do that then the threads/tags/:tagName doesnt correctly capture the tagName. I also tried disabling default routes but the routes still don't properly work after that. Here's my route init function: protected function _initRoutes() { $fc = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $router = $fc->getRouter(); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/:id/:name', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 'id' => '\d+' ) ) ); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/tags/:tagName', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'tags', ), array( 'tagName' => '[a-zA-Z]+' ) ) ); } I also tried using a pure regex route but was unsuccessful, most likely because I did it wrong: $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex( 'threads/(\d+)/([a-zA-Z]+)', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 1 => 'tagName', 2 => 'name' ) ) );

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • Tablesorter Pager not working in Safari or Chrome

    - by Zendog74
    Hi all. I am building an app using the tablesorter plug-in and it's pager plug-in. Things work perfectly fine in Firefox and IE, but in Safari (4.0.4 on a PC) and Chrome () I get errors when it hits the following code that binds the tablesorter pager. I took the pager binding out and it worked, so something is going wrong somewhere in those three lines of code. var tableSel = calendarportlet.ut.createIdSelector(calendarportlet.addNamespace("eventListTable")); var pagerSel = calendarportlet.ut.createIdSelector(calendarportlet.addNamespace("pager")); jQuery(tableSel).tablesorter({ widthFixed: true, headers: { 0: {sorter: false} }, sortList:[[2,1],[1,0]], widgets: ['zebra'] }).tablesorterPager({ <-- error happens in here container: jQuery(pagerSel), positionFixed: false }); Also, the errors only happen in Safari and Chrome when prototype.js is loaded AFTER jQuery. If they are loaded before jQuery, it works fine. However, this is a portlet and it has to play nice with other portlets, so we don't want to modify the header and loading order of the js libs. Anyone have any ideas on how to fix this?

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  • Unique prime factors using HashSet

    - by theGreenCabbage
    I wrote a method that recursively finds prime factors. Originally, the method simply printed values. I am currently trying to add them to a HashSet to find the unique prime factors. In each of my original print statements, I added a primes.add() in order to add that particular integer into my set. My printed output remains the same, for example, if I put in the integer 24, I get 2*2*2*3. However, as soon as I print the HashSet, the output is simply [2]. public static Set<Integer> primeFactors(int n) { Set<Integer> primes = new HashSet<Integer>(); if(n <= 1) { System.out.print(n); primes.add(n); } else { for(int factor = 2; factor <= n; factor++) { if(n % factor == 0) { System.out.print(factor); primes.add(factor); if(factor < n) { System.out.print('*'); primeFactors(n/factor); } return primes; } } } return primes; } I have tried debugging via putting print statements around every line, but was unable to figure out why my .add() was not adding some values into my HashSet.

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  • Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

    - by Orion Edwards
    Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

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  • What is the benefit of using ONLY OpenID authentication on a site?

    - by Peter
    From my experience with OpenID, I see a number of significant downsides: Adds a Single Point of Failure to the site It is not a failure that can be fixed by the site even if detected. If the OpenID provider is down for three days, what recourse does the site have to allow its users to login and access the information they own? Takes a user to another sites content and every time they logon to your site Even if the OpenID provider does not have an error, the user is re-directed to their site to login. The login page has content and links. So there is a chance a user will actually be drawn away from the site to go down the Internet rabbit hole. Why would I want to send my users to another company's website? [ Note: my provider no longer does this and seems to have fixed this problem (for now).] Adds a non-trivial amount of time to the signup To sign up with the site a new user is forced to read a new standard, chose a provider, and signup. Standards are something that the technical people should agree to in order to make a user experience frictionless. They are not something that should be thrust on the users. It is a Phisher's Dream OpenID is incredibly insecure and stealing the person's ID as they log in is trivially easy. [ taken from David Arno's Answer below ] For all of the downside, the one upside is to allow users to have fewer logins on the Internet. If a site has opt-in for OpenID then users who want that feature can use it. What I would like to understand is: What benefit does a site get for making OpenID mandatory?

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  • Programatically rebuild .exd-files when loading VBA

    - by aspartame
    Hi, After updating Microsoft Office 2007 to Office 2010 some custom VBA scripts embedded in our software failed to compile with the following error message: Object library invalid or contains references to object definitions that could not be found. As far as I know, this error is a result of a security update from Microsoft (Microsoft Security Advisory 960715). When adding ActiveX-controls to VBA scripts, information about the controls are stored in cache files on the local hard drive (.exd-files). The security update modified some of these controls, but the .exd-files were not automatically updated. When the VBA scripts try to load the old versions of the controls stored in the cached files, the error occurs. These cache-files must be removed from the hard drive in order for the controls to load successfully (which will create new, updated .exd-files automatically). What I would like to do is to programatically (using Visual C++) remove the outdated .exd-files when our software loads. When opening a VBA project using CApcProject::ApcProject.Open I set the following flag:axProjectThrowAwayCompiledState. TestHR(ApcProject.Open(pHost, (MSAPC::AxProjectFlag) (MSAPC::axProjectNormal | MSAPC::axProjectThrowAwayCompiledState))); According to the documentation, this flag should cause the VBA project to be recompiled and the temporary files to be deleted and rebuilt. I've also tried to update the checksum of the host application type library which should have the same effect. However none of these fixes seem to do the job and I'm running out of ideas. Help is very much appreciated!

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  • MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

    - by cbp
    Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

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  • WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

    - by user320849
    Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

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  • How does mercurial's bisect work when the range includes branching?

    - by Joshua Goldberg
    If the bisect range includes multiple branches, how does hg bisect's search work. Does it effectively bisect each sub-branch (I would think that would be inefficient)? For instance, borrowing, with gratitude, a diagram from an answer to this related question, what if the bisect got to changeset 7 on the "good" right-side branch first. @ 12:8ae1fff407c8:bad6 | o 11:27edd4ba0a78:bad5 | o 10:312ba3d6eb29:bad4 |\ | o 9:68ae20ea0c02:good33 | | | o 8:916e977fa594:good32 | | | o 7:b9d00094223f:good31 | | o | 6:a7cab1800465:bad3 | | o | 5:a84e45045a29:bad2 | | o | 4:d0a381a67072:bad1 | | o | 3:54349a6276cc:good4 |/ o 2:4588e394e325:good3 | o 1:de79725cb39a:good2 | o 0:2641cc78ce7a:good1 Will it then look only between 7 and 12, missing the real first-bad that we care about? (thus using "dumb" numerical order) or is it smart enough to use the full topography and to know that the first bad could be below 7 on the right-side branch, or could still be anywhere on the left-side branch. The purpose of my question is both (a) just to understand the algorithm better, and (b) to understand whether I can liberally extend my initial bisect range without thinking hard about what branch I go to. I've been in high-branching bisect situations where it kept asking me after every test to extend beyond the next merge, so that the whole procedure was essentially O(n). I'm wondering if I can just throw the first "good" marker way back past some nest of merges without thinking about it much, and whether that would save time and give correct results.

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  • Query to look up comment in one table, username in another table

    - by John
    Hello, I am using a MySQL table called "login" with the following structure: loginid, username, password, email, actcode, disabled, activated, created, points I am using another MySQL table called "comment" with the following structure: commentid, loginid, submissionid, comment, datecommented For a given "submisssionid", I would like to print out the following information from the table "comment": -The fields "comment" and "datecommented". At the same time, I would like to print out the following from the table "login": -The "username" that corresponds to the "loginid" for each row being row being selected from the table "comment". How can I do this? I tried the code below but it did not work. Thanks in advance, John $submission = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submission']); $submissionid = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET['submissionid']); $sqlStr = "SELECT c.loginid ,c.submissionid ,c.comment ,c.datecommented ,l.username ,COUNT(c.commentid) countComments FROM comment c WHERE c.submissionid = $submissionid INNER JOIN login l ON c.loginid = l.loginid GROUP BY c.submissionid ORDER BY c.datecommented DESC LIMIT 100"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1">'.$row["comment"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a>'.$row["datecommented"].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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  • iTextSharp Overlay Image

    - by pennylane
    Hi guys I have an instance where I have a logo image as part of some artwork.. If a user uploads a new logo I have a form field which is larger than the default logo. I then use that form field to position the new image. The problem is I need to set the background colour of that form field to white so that it covers the old logo in the event that the new image is smaller than the old logo.. what I have done is: foreach (var imageField in imageReplacements) { fields.SetFieldProperty(imageField.Key, "bgcolor", iTextSharp.text.Color.WHITE, null); fields.RegenerateField(imageField.Key); PdfContentByte overContent = stamper.GetOverContent(imageField.Value.PageNumber); float[] logoArea = fields.GetFieldPositions(imageField.Key); if (logoArea != null) { iTextSharp.text.Rectangle logoRect = new iTextSharp.text.Rectangle(logoArea[1], logoArea[2], logoArea[3], logoArea[4]); var logo = iTextSharp.text.Image.GetInstance(imageField.Value.Location); if (logo.Width >= logoRect.Width || logo.Height >= logoRect.Height) { logo.ScaleToFit(logoRect.Width, logoRect.Height); } logo.Alignment = iTextSharp.text.Image.ALIGN_LEFT; logo.SetAbsolutePosition(logoRect.Left, logoArea[2] + (logoRect.Height - logo.ScaledHeight) / 2); // left: logoArea[3] - logo.ScaledWidth + (logoRect.Width - logo.ScaledWidth) / 2 overContent.AddImage(logo); } } The problem with this is that the background colour of the field is set to white and the image then doesn't appear.. i remove the SetFieldProperty and RegenerateField commands and the image replacement works fine.. is there a way to set a stacking order on layers?

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  • Paragraph with normal opacity within greyed-out div

    - by dmr
    I am greying out a web page when a user doesn't have permission to access it. In order to do that, I am placing a div with background-color white and a lowered opacity on top of the web page. I want to write some words in that div with the words having a normal opacity. As of now, the greyed out background is showing correctly. However, I can't seem to get the words to be a regular opacity. The derived styles on Firebug show the opacity on the words as normal, but it clearly isn't. What am I doing wrong? The HTML: <div class="noPermission"> <p>I'm sorry. You do not have permission to access this page.</p> </div> The CSS: div.noPermission { background-color: white; filter:alpha(opacity=50); /* IE */ opacity: 0.5; /* Safari, Opera */ -moz-opacity:0.50; /* FireFox */ z-index: 20; height: 100%; width: 100%; background-repeat:no-repeat; background-position:center; position:absolute; top: 0px; left: 0px; } div.noPermission p{ color: black; margin: 300px auto auto 50px; text-align: left; font-weight: bold; font-size: 18px; display: block; width: 250px; }

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  • Centralized Exception handling for Eclipse plug-in

    - by Svilen
    Hello, At first I thought this would be question often asked, however trying (and failing) to look up info on this proved me wrong. Is there a mechanism in Eclipse platform for centralized exception handling of exceptions? For example... You have plug-in project which connects to a DB and issues queries, results of which are used to populate some e.g. views. This is like the most common example ever. :) Queries are executed almost for any user action, from every UI control the plug-in provides. Most likely the DB Query API will have some specific to the DB SomeDBGeneralException declared as being thrown by it. That's OK, you can handle those according to whatever your software design is. But how about unchecked exceptions which are likely to occur, e.g. , when communication with DB suddenly breaks for some network related reason? What if in such case one would like to catch those exceptions in a central place and for example provide user friendly message to the user (rather than the low level communication protocol api messages) and even some possible actions the user could execute in order to deal with the specific problem? Thinking in Eclipse platform context, the question may be rephrased as "Is there an extension point like "org.eclipse.ExceptionHandler" which allows to declare exception handlers for specific (some kind of filtering support) exceptions giving a lot of flexibility with the actual handling?"

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  • LINQ : How to query how to sort result by most similarity/equality

    - by aNui
    I want to do a search for Music instruments which has its informations Name, Category and Origin as I asked in my post. But now I want to sort/group the result by similarity/equality to the keyword such as. If I have the list { Harp, Piano, Drum, Guitar, Guitarrón } and if I queried "p" the result should be { Piano, Harp } but it shows Harp first because of the list's sequence and if I add {Grand Piano} to the list and query "piano" the result shoud be like { Piano, Grand Piano } here's my code static IEnumerable<MInstrument> InstrumentsSearch(IEnumerable<MInstrument> InstrumentsList, string query, MInstrument.Category[] SelectedCategories, MInstrument.Origin[] SelectedOrigins) { var result = InstrumentsList .Where(item => SelectedCategories.Contains(item.category)) .Where(item => SelectedOrigins.Contains(item.origin)) .Where(item => { if ( (" " + item.Name.ToLower()).Contains(" " + query.ToLower()) || item.Name.IndexOf(query) != -1 ) { return true; } return false; } ) .Take(30); return result.ToList<MInstrument>(); } Or the result may be like my old self-invented algorithm that I called "by order of occurence", that is just OK to me. Is there any way to do that, please tell me. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to install previously-archived apps from xcode organizer to my iphone

    - by Ben Clayton
    Hi all. Xcode keeps an archive of all the versions of my apps that I've submitted to the app store in the 'archived applications' section. I assumed using this I could install an old version of an app to my device, in order to reproduce any problems my client may have had with that particular version. However, when I try to do this I get an error: 'this executable was signed with invalid entitlements, the entitlements specified in your applications code signing entitlements do not match those specified in your provisioning profile' The original app was signed using our App Store distribution certificate, and I use the Organizer interface to re-sign it using our Developer profile. select the archived app select the version I want to test click 'share' select 'iphone developer' next to identity save to disk (saves the ipa file) then copy the ipa to the device using the little + button you see next to 'applications' on the screen you get when you select the connected device. Then I get the error, and the app isn't installed. Is there something obvious I'm doing wrong here? Or is there a different process to re-install an archived app to my device? Thanks,

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  • What is an elegant way to set up a leiningen project that requires different dependencies based on the build platform?

    - by Savanni D'Gerinel
    In order to do some multi-platform GUI development, I have just switched from GTK + Clojure (because it looks like the Java bindings for GTK never got ported to Windows) to SWT + Clojure. So far, so good in that I have gotten an uberjar built for Linux. The catch, though, is that I want to build an uberjar for Windows and I am trying to figure out a clean way to manage the project.clj file. At first, I thought I would set the classpath to point to the SWT libraries and then build the uberjar. This would require that I set a classpath to the SWT libraries before running the jar, but I would likely need a launcher script, anyway. However, leiningen seems to ignore the classpath in this instance because it always reports that Currently, project.clj looks like this for me: (defproject alyra.mana-punk/character "1.0.0-SNAPSHOT" :description "FIXME: write" :dependencies [[org.clojure/clojure "1.2.0"] [org.clojure/clojure-contrib "1.2.0"] [org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 "3.5.2"]] :main alyra.mana-punk.character.core) The relevant line is the org.eclipse/swt-gtk-linux-x86 line. If I want to make an uberjar for Windows, I have to depend on org.eclipse/swt-win32-win32-x86, and another one for x86-64, and so on and so forth. My current solution is to simply create a separate branch for each build environment with a different project.clj. This seems kinda like using a semi to deliver a single gallon of milk, but I am using bazaar for version control, so branching and repeated integrations are easy. Maybe the better way is to have a project.linux.clj, project.win32.clj, etc, but I do not see any way to tell leiningen which project descriptor to use. What are other (preferably more elegant) ways to set up such an environment?

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  • Trying to use jquery ui in google chrome extension in the content level

    - by user135697
    The problem is that the scope of the content script is on the web page that your plugin is suppose to be used at. So the css background:url(images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png) becomes url('http://webpageforplugin/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') in order for this to work as far as i understood i need to have it to point to: url('chrome-extension://extensionId/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') So i tried to haxorz the document.styleSheets var ss = document.styleSheets; for (var i=0; i<ss.length; i++) { var found=-1, x,i; var rules = ss[i].cssRules || ss[i].rules; for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if ('.ui-helper-hidden'==rules[j].selectorText){ found=i; break; } } if (found>-1){ for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if (x=rules[j].style.background){ if ((i=x.indexOf('url'))!=-1) rules[j].style.background = x.replace('http://page/images/','chrome-extension://extensionId/images/'); } } break; } }; I feel that i'm missing the obvious. That there must be an easier way. Even if i manage to change this how will i get the extension id to build the string. Btw this doesn't work, the icons are not properly fetched. (I hardcoded the extension id) Any ideas?

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  • Vertically Merge Multiple Tables in MySQL by Joint Primary Key

    - by world
    Hello, I'll attempt to make my question as clear as possible. I'm fairly unexperienced with SQL, only know the really basic queries. In order to have a better idea I'd been reading the MySQL manual for the past few days, but I couldn't really find a concrete solution and my needs are quite specific. I've got 3 MySQL MyISAM tables: table1, table2 and table3. Each table has an ID column (ID, ID2, ID3 respectively), and different data columns. For example table1 has [ID, Name, Birthday, Status, ...] columns, table2 has [ID2, Country, Zip, ...], table3 has [ID3, Source, Phone, ...] you get the idea. The ID, ID2, ID3 columns are common to all three tables... if there's an ID value in table1 it will also appear in table2 and table3. The number of rows in these tables is identical, about 10m rows in each table. What I'd like to do is create a new table that contains (most of) the columns of all three tables and merge them into it. The dates, for instance, must be converted because right now they're in VARCHAR YYYYMMDD format. Reading the MySQL manual I figured STR_TO_DATE() would do the job, but I don't know how to write the query itself in the first place so I have no idea how to integrate the date conversion. So basically, after I create the new table (which I do know how to do), how can I merge the three tables into it, integrating into the query the date conversion?

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