Search Results

Search found 87926 results on 3518 pages for 'deft code'.

Page 636/3518 | < Previous Page | 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643  | Next Page >

• What is the best way to embed SQL in VB.NET.

  - by Amy P

  I am looking for information on the best practices or project layout for software that uses SQL embedded inside VB.NET or C#. The software will connect to a full SQL DB. The software was written in VB6 and ported to VB.NET, we want to update it to use .NET functionality but I am not sure where to start with my research. We are using Visual Studio 2005. All database manipulations are done from VB. Update: To clarify. We are currently using SqlConnection, SqlDataAdapter, SqlDataReader to connect to the database. What I mean by embed is that the SQL stored procedures are scripted inside our VB code and then run on the db. All of our tables, stored procs, views, etc are all manipulated in the VB code. The layout of our code is quite messy. I am looking for a better architecture or pattern that we can use to organize our code. Can you recommend any books, webpages, topics that I can google, etc to help me better understand the best way for us to do this.

  Read the article

• question about partition

  - by davit-datuashvili

  i have question about hoare partition method here is code and also pseudo code please if something is wrong correct pseudo code HOARE-PARTITION ( A, p, r) 1 x ? A[ p] 2 i ? p-1 3 j ? r +1 4 while TRUE 5 do repeat j ? j - 1 6 until A[ j ] = x 7 do repeat i ? i + 1 8 until A[i] = x 9 if i < j 10 then exchange A[i] ? A[ j ] 11 else return j and my code public class Hoare { public static int partition(int a[],int p,int r) { int x=a[p]; int i=p-1; int j=r+1; while (true) { do { j=j-1; } while(a[j]>=x); do { i=i+1; } while(a[i]<=x); if (i<j) { int t=a[i]; a[i]=a[j]; a[j]=t; } else { return j; } } } public static void main(String[]args){ int a[]=new int[]{13,19,9,5,12,8,7,4,11,2,6,21}; partition(a,0,a.length-1); } } and mistake is this error: Class names, 'Hoare', are only accepted if annotation processing is explicitly requested 1 error any ideas

  Read the article

• c++ problem, maybe with types...

  - by Infinity

  Hi guys! I have a little problem in my code. The variables don't want to change their values. Can you say why? Here is my code: vector<coordinate> rocks(N); double angle; double x, y; // other code while (x > 1.0 || x < -1.0 || y > 1.0 || y < -1.0) { angle = rand() * 2.0 * M_PI; cout << angle << endl; cout << rocks[i - 1].x << endl; cout << rocks[i - 1].y << endl; x = rocks[i-1].x + r0 * cos(angle); y = rocks[i-1].y + r0 * sin(angle); cout << x << endl; cout << y << endl << endl; } // other code And the result on the console is: 6.65627e+09 0.99347 0.984713 1.09347 0.984713 1.16964e+09 0.99347 0.984713 1.09347 0.984713 As you see the values of x, y variables doesn't change and this while be an infinity loop. What's the problem? What do you think?

  Read the article

• ObjectDataSource firing twice, or on its own

  - by LoveMeSomeCode

  Can someone explain exactly how/when an ObjectDataSource fires? I have an ASP.NET page, with a GridView, which is referencing an ODS. I put a breakpoint in the method the ODS is using, and noticed it was firing twice. I looked into the code and the answer seemed obvious at first. I had Page_Load() { if(!Page.IsPostBack) { MethodA(); MethodB(); } } where MethodA and MethodB were both eventually calling gv.DataBind(). This made sense because I assume that each call to GridView.DataBind() would result in asking the ODS for data, and therefore running my data access method. The weird thing is that when comment out the call to MethodA, it still fires twice. Checking the call stack shows the method being run first as a result of MethodB, and then again, with no trail except [External Code]. This mystery load does not happen when I let MethodA and MethodB both execute. Any idea what's going on here? Any idea what other code I might have that is asking the ODS for data? I'm starting to think all these 'no code' data controls are more obfuscation and BS than they're worth.

  Read the article

• Wordpress and Dynamic Programming Php

  - by user1675146

  I have geography pages for two types of business listings. Each page goes from state, county, city, but I need to have the same geography shared between two types of business. My two business types are dentist and chiropractors. I am trying to have a permalink structure like this: enter code here xyz.com/dentist/alabama enter code here xyz.com/dentist/alabama/polk-county/ enter code here xyz.com/chiropractors/alabama/ enter code here xyz.com/chiropractors/alabama/polk-county/ I originally was going to load the geography as pages and subpages, but with that method I cannot get the permalink separated by the type chiropractor and dentist. So now I have created a custom post type one for chiropractor and one for dentist which give me the permalink xyz.com/dentist and xyz.com/chiropractor. My question is now how to handle my category geography page. I was wondering if in wordpress it is possible to create a shell page such as xyz.com/dentist/[state]/ and then through php dynamically build a page for each state? So where it shows [state] it will be replaced with the actual state such as alabama, california etc when that specific page is viewed. But the shell page is just 1 page in the database. If so could someone give me a basic explanation on how to instruct a programmer to do this? Thank you.

  Read the article

• Get parameter values from method at run time

  - by Landin Martens

  I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

  Read the article

• Objects leaking immediately from allocation using either new or [[Object alloc] init];

  - by Sam

  While running Instruments to find leaks in my code, after I've loaded a file and populate an NSMutableArray with new objects, leaks pop up! I am correctly releasing the objects. Sample code below: //NSMutableArray declared as a retained property in the parent class if(!mutableArray) mutableArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:objectCount]; else [mutableArray removeAllObjects]; //Iterates through the read in data and populate the NSMutableArray for(int i = 0; i < objectCount; i++){ //Initializes a new object with data MyObject *object = [MyObject new]; //Adds the object to the mutableArray [mutableArray addObject:object]; //Releases the object [object release]; } I get a number of leaks from Instruments terminating at the addition of the 'object' into the 'mutableArray', but also including the allocation of the 'object' and the 'mutableArray'. I don't get it. Not to mention, this is happening on the first call of the enclosing method so the allocation of the NSMutableArray is being hit in the logic block, not the 'removeAllObjects' selector. Lastly, does Core Foundation have a major bug in it that randomly creates CFStrings and mismanages their memory? My code does not even use those, nor do the leaks where they occur have anything to do with my code. Almost all of my applications so far deal with OpenGL (in case anyone knows of a threading issue that arises from trying to synch the backend of the program with the front end of displaying the contents of an NSOpenGLView class or whatever it is).

  Read the article

• Socket stops communicating

  - by user1392992

  I'm running python 2.7 code on a Raspberry Pi that receives serial data from an Arduino, processes it, and sends it to a Windows box over a wifi link. The Pi is wired to a Linksys router running in client bridge mode and that router connects over wifi to another Linksys router to which the Windows box is wired. The code in the Pi runs fine for some (apparently) random interval, and then the Pi becomes unreachable from the Windows box. I'm running PUTTY on the the Windows machine to connect to the Pi and when the fail occurs I get a message saying there's been a network error and the Pi is not reachable. Pinging the Pi from the Windows machine works fine until the error, at which time it produces "Reply from 192.168.0.129: Destination host unreachable." The client bridge router to which the Pi is connected remains reachable. I've got the networking code on the Pi wrapped in an exception handler, and when it fails it shows the following: Ethernet problem: Traceback (most recent call last): File "garage.py", line 108, in module s.connect((host, port)) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/socket.py", line 224, in meth return getattr(self._sock,name)(*args) error: [Errno 113] No route to host None The relevant python code looks like: import socket import traceback host = '192.168.0.129' port = 31415 in the setup, and after serial data has been processed: try: bline = strline.encode('utf-8') s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) s.connect((host, port)) s.send(bline) s.close() except: print "Ethernet problem: " print traceback.print_exc() Where strline contains the processed data. As I said, this runs fine for a few hours more or less before failing. Any ideas? EDIT: When PUTTY fails its error message is :Network Error: Software caused connection abort."

  Read the article

• Is it possible to reference remote content from chrome.manifest? (XULRunner)

  - by siemaa

  Hi, I have a xulrunner application and I've been trying to reference remote content from chrome.manifest file. Tt's an application for the company I work in; it's run on a number of computers (most of them are used by other employees as well) as a kind of an internet monitoring service. The problem I'd like to solve is this: updating the code of such application usually requires me to manually copy the modified files to every computer that the application is running on (I've had no luck trying to make automatic updates via xulrunner platform). This process has become very tedious. What I'd like to have is a web server, where all of the xul and js files would be accessible, so that every application could reference them from there. This would require me only to update the code on that server, and the applications (when restarted) would automatically get the latest code. What I managed to do: I can reference js scripts from a xul file using http based urls and everything works fine (I can use local, binary components etc.), although the xul file has to be local - that I'd like to change. But when I write in chrome.manifest a line like: content my_app http://path/to/app/files/ and then use the line in default/preferences/pref.js pref("toolkit.defaultChromeURI", "chrome://my_app/content/my_app.xul"); it just opens a console window (to test I manually run the application with the -console option) and no code gets executed. The file can be downloaded remotely using wget so I guess this isn't the web server issue. The applications work on Windows machines. Is there some kind of security issue causing such behavior or am I doing something wrong? Is it even possible to register remote, http based content as chrome?

  Read the article

• Suggestions on Working with this Inherited Generic Method

  - by blu

  We have inherited a project that is a wrapper around a section of the core business model. There is one method that takes a generic, finds items matching that type from a member and then returns a list of that type. public List<T> GetFoos<T>() { List<IFoo> matches = Foos.FindAll( f => f.GetType() == typeof(T) ); List<T> resultList = new List<T>(); foreach (var match in matches) { resultList.Add((T)obj); } } Foos can hold the same object cast into various classes in inheritance hierarchy to aggregate totals differently for different UI presentations. There are 20+ different types of descendants that can be returned by GetFoos. The existing code basically has a big switch statement copied and pasted throughout the code. The code in each section calls GetFoos with its corresponding type. We are currently refactoring that into one consolidated area, but as we are doing that we are looking at other ways to work with this method. One thought was to use reflection to pass in the type, and that worked great until we realized the Invoke returned an object, and that it needed to be cast somehow to the List <T>. Another was to just use the switch statement until 4.0 and then use the dynamic language options. We welcome any alternate thoughts on how we can work with this method. I have left the code pretty brief, but if you'd like to know any additional details please just ask.

  Read the article

• Is there such a thing as a MemberExpression that handles a many-to-many relationship?

  - by Jaxidian

  We're trying to make it easy to write strongly-typed code in all areas of our system, so rather than setting var sortColumn = "FirstName" we'd like to say sortOption = (p => p.FirstName). This works great if the sortOption is of type Expression<Func<Person, object>> (we actually use generics in our code but that doesn't matter). However, we run into problems for many-to-many relationships because this notation breaks down. Consider this simple code: internal class Business { public IQueryable<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } internal class Address { public State MyState { get; set; } } internal class State { public string Abbreviation { get; set; } public int StateID { get; set; } } Is it possible to have this sort of MemberExpression to identify the StateID column off of a business? Again, the purpose of using this is not to return a StateID object, it's to just identify that property off of that entity (for sorting, filtering, and other purposes). It SEEMS to me that there should be some way to do this, even if it's not quite as pretty as foo = business.Addresses.SomeExtension(a => a.State.StateID);. Is this really possible? If more background is needed, take a look at this old question of mine. We've since updated the code significantly, but this should give you the general detailed idea of the context behind this question.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Search

  - by Cameron

  Hi I'm building a very simple search system using ASP.NET MVC. I had it originally work by doing all the logic inside the controller but I am now moving the code piece by piece into a repository. Can anyone help me do this. Thanks. Here is the original Action Result that was in the controller. public ActionResult Index(String query) { var ArticleQuery = from m in _db.ArticleSet select m; if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { ArticleQuery = ArticleQuery.Where(m => m.headline.Contains(query) orderby m.posted descending); } return View(ArticleQuery.ToList()); } As you can see, the Index method is used for both the initial list of articles and also for the search results (they use the same view). In the new system the code in the controller is as follows: public ActionResult Index() { return View(_repository.ListAll()); } The Repository has the following code: public IList<Article> ListAll() { var ArticleQuery = (from m in _db.ArticleSet orderby m.posted descending select m); return ArticleQuery.ToList(); } and the Interface has the following code: public interface INewsRepository { IList<Article> ListAll(); } So what I need to do is now add in the search query stuff into the repository/controller methods using this new way. Can anyone help? Thanks.

  Read the article

• where is c function attribute set (how to unset) with gcc

  - by cvsdave

  I am working with code from the GNU core utils, and find that the void usage() function is apparently set with the attribute "noreturn". Well, I am modifying the function, and I wish it to return (I removed the call to exit()). The compiler still complains that a "noreturn" function returns, and when using the Eclipse CDT debugger, stepping thorugh the code is anomolous - I skip over lines of code. I do not see the function be set in the .c file, and there is no .h file for this .c file. The file is df.c. I have renamed the file df_call.c. How can the compiler be finding this attribute? How can I unset it? Thanks. ======= Thanks to all contributors for their help! The short answer is "the usage() function found in GNUutils 7.4 is prototyped in system.h as 'void usage (int status) ATTRIBUTE_NORETURN'. Changing to 'void usage (int status); /*ATTRIBUTE_NORETURN;*/' resolved the issue for me, but leaves the problem of a modified system.h. The long answer is: The GNU c compiler supports assigning attributes to functions (see http://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc/Function-Attributes.html) one of which is "noreturn". The syntax is "attribute ((noreturn))" (see http://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc/Attribute-Syntax.html#Attribute-Syntax) but is often macro'd to ATTRIBUTE_NORETURN. If the attribute is set, and in this case one tries to return from the function, the executable compiles with a complaint, but compiles and runs. It will, however, behave unexpectedly (skipping over src lines in my case, maybe due to the optimization). The debugger in Eclipse CDT actually jumps past lines of code, leading the developer to doubt his senses.

  Read the article

• Sqlite3 INSERT INTO Question × 377

  - by user316717

  Hi, My 1st post. I am creating an exercise app that will record the weight used and the number of "reps" the user did in 4 "Sets" per day over a period of 7 days so the user may view their progress. I have built the database table named FIELDS with 2 columns ROW and FIELD_DATA and I can use the code below to load the data into the db. But the code has a sql statement that says, INSERT OR REPLACE INTO FIELDS (ROW, FIELD_DATA)VALUES (%d, '%@'); When I change the statment to: INSERT INTO FIELDS (ROW, FIELD_DATA)VALUES (%d, '%@'); Nothing happens. That is no data is recorded in the db. Below is the code: #define kFilname @"StData.sqlite3" - (NSString *)dataFilePath { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains (NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:kFilname]; } -(IBAction)saveData:(id)sender; { for (int i = 1; i <= 8; i++) { NSString *fieldName = [[NSString alloc]initWithFormat:@"field%d", i]; UITextField *field = [self valueForKey:fieldName]; [fieldName release]; NSString *insert = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat: @"INSERT OR REPLACE INTO FIELDS (ROW, FIELD_DATA) VALUES (%d, '%@');",i, field.text]; // sqlite3_stmt *stmt; char *errorMsg; if (sqlite3_exec (database, [insert UTF8String], NULL, NULL, &errorMsg) != SQLITE_OK) { // NSAssert1(0, @"Error updating table: %s", errorMsg); sqlite3_free(errorMsg); } } sqlite3_close(database); } So how do I modify the code to do what I want? It seemed like a simple sql statement change at first but obviously there must be more. I am new to Objective-C and iPhone programming. I am not new to using sql statements as I have been creating web apps in ASP for a number of years. Any help will be greatly appreciated, this is driving me nuts! Thanks in advance Dave

  Read the article

• jquery looping include php

  - by mapet

  Jquery Code: $(function() { $("#submit").click(function(){ var pilaMan = 2; for (i=0; i < pilaMan; i++) { $('#dialog_link').dialog({ modal: false, autoOpen: false, width: 800, height: 300, buttons: { "Ok": function() { $(this).dialog("close"); }, "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); $('#dialog' + i).click(function(){ $('#dialog_link' ).dialog('open'); var lineCode = $('#lineCode').currentElem.prev().val(); alert(lineCode); return false; }); } }); My Problem with my jquery Code i cant get the exact value of $amew.. and also when i alert the lineCode it will return undefined :( php code: $amew = "loso, nimo"; $count = 0; $array = explode(" ", $amew) foreach ($array as $value) { echo '<td width="68" class="rep" id="dialog'.$count.'">'; echo '<input type="text" id="lineCode'" value="'.$value.'">'; echo '</td'; } my problem with my php code is so redundant my jquery codes i solving this for 10 hours and still i cant get it need help guys:(

  Read the article

• FileInput Help/Advice

  - by user559142

  I have a fileinput class. It has a string parameter in the constructor to load the filename supplied. However it just exits if the file doesn't exist. I would like it to output a message if the file doesn't exist - but not sure how.... Here is the class: public class FileInput extends Input { /** * Construct <code>FileInput</code> object given a file name. */ public FileInput(final String fileName) { try { scanner = new Scanner(new FileInputStream(fileName)); } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { System.err.println("File " + fileName + " could not be found."); System.exit(1); } } /** * Construct <code>FileInput</code> object given a file name. */ public FileInput(final FileInputStream fileStream) { super(fileStream); } } And its implementation: private void loadFamilyTree() { out.print("Enter file name: "); String fileName = in.nextLine(); FileInput input = new FileInput(fileName); family.load(input); input.close(); }

  Read the article

• C# keyhook question

  - by user203123

  I copied the following code from http://www.codeproject.com/KB/cs/CSLLKeyboardHook.aspx, public int hookProc(int code, int wParam, ref keyboardHookStruct lParam) { if (code >= 0) { Keys key = (Keys)lParam.vkCode; if (HookedKeys.Contains(key)) { KeyEventArgs kea = new KeyEventArgs(key); if((wParam == WM_KEYDOWN || wParam == WM_SYSKEYDOWN) && (KeyDown != null)) {KeyDown(this, kea) ;} else if ((wParam == WM_KEYUP || wParam == WM_SYSKEYUP) && (KeyUp != null)) {KeyUp(this, kea); } if (kea.Handled) {return 1;} } } lParam.vkCode ++; lParam.scanCode ++; return CallNextHookEx(hhook, code, wParam, ref lParam); } It works fine but when I make a little change: lParam.vkCode ++; or lParam.scanCode ++; right before the return CallNextHookEx(...), the original keys still appears in Notepad. Ex. If I press "a", I expect the letter in Notepad will be "b" but it still "a". It seems like "lParam" doesn't change. Couldn't understand why?

  Read the article

• Replacing repetitively occuring loops with eval in Javascript - good or bad?

  - by Herc

  Hello stackoverflow! I have a certain loop occurring several times in various functions in my code. To illustrate with an example, it's pretty much along the lines of the following: for (var i=0;i<= 5; i++) { function1(function2(arr[i],i),$('div'+i)); $('span'+i).value = function3(arr[i]); } Where i is the loop counter of course. For the sake of reducing my code size and avoid repeating the loop declaration, I thought I should replace it with the following: function loop(s) { for (var i=0;i<= 5; i++) { eval(s); } } [...] loop("function1(function2(arr[i],i),$('div'+i));$('span'+i).value = function3(arr[i]);"); Or should I? I've heard a lot about eval() slowing code execution and I'd like it to work as fast as a proper loop even in the Nintendo DSi browser, but I'd also like to cut down on code. What would you suggest? Thank you in advance!

  Read the article

• Blit SDL_Surface onto another SDL_Surface and apply a colorkey

  - by NordCoder

  I want to load an SDL_Surface into an OpenGL texture with padding (so that NPOT-POT) and apply a color key on the surface afterwards. I either end up colorkeying all pixels, regardless of their color, or not colorkey anything at all. I have tried a lot of different things, but none of them seem to work. Here's the working snippet of my code. I use a custom color class for the colorkey (range [0-1]): // Create an empty surface with the same settings as the original image SDL_Surface* paddedImage = SDL_CreateRGBSurface(image->flags, width, height, image->format->BitsPerPixel, #if SDL_BYTEORDER == SDL_BIG_ENDIAN 0xff000000, 0x00ff0000, 0x0000ff00, 0x000000ff #else 0x000000ff, 0x0000ff00, 0x00ff0000, 0xff000000 #endif ); // Map RGBA color to pixel format value Uint32 colorKeyPixelFormat = SDL_MapRGBA(paddedImage->format, static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.R * 255), static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.G * 255), static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.B * 255), static_cast<Uint8>(colorKey.A * 255)); SDL_FillRect(paddedImage, NULL, colorKeyPixelFormat); // Blit the image onto the padded image SDL_BlitSurface(image, NULL, paddedImage, NULL); SDL_SetColorKey(paddedImage, SDL_SRCCOLORKEY, colorKeyPixelFormat); Afterwards, I generate an OpenGL texture from paddedImage using similar code to the SDL+OpenGL texture loading code found online (I'll post if necessary). This code works if I just want the texture with or without padding, and is likely not the problem. I realize that I set all pixels in paddedImage to have alpha zero which causes the first problem I mentioned, but I can't seem to figure out how to do this. Should I just loop over the pixels and set the appropriate colors to have alpha zero?

  Read the article

• Processing JSON data with jQuery - strange results needing alert()

  - by James

  I have this code below. I randomly ran across that it will work if I have that alert message exactly where it is. If I take it out or move it to any other spot the tabs will not appear. What exactly is that alert doing that allows the code to work and how can I make it work without the alert? If I move the each loop into the success section it does not work even with the alert. $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "../ajax.php", data: "action=tabs", dataType: "json", success: function(data){ Projects = data; } }); alert("yes"); $.each(Projects, function(i){ /* Sequentially creating the tabs and assigning a color from the array: */ var tmp = $('<li><a href="#" class="tab green">'+Projects[i].name+'<span class="left" /><span class="right" /></a></li>'); /* Setting the page data for each hyperlink: */ tmp.find('a').data('page','../ajax.php?action=lists&projectID='+Projects[i].project_id); /* Adding the tab to the UL container: */ $('ul.tabContainer').append(tmp); }); The ajax code is retuning json with this code $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `projects` ORDER BY `position` ASC"); $projects = array(); // Filling the $projects array with new project objects: while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)){ $projects[] = $row; } echo json_encode($projects); The returning data is very small and very fast so I don't think that is the problem.

  Read the article

• How to ensure I get the picture is complete? (in java)

  - by Zenofo

  i using below code to get a picture from URL: URL url=new URL("http://www.google.com/images/logos/ps_logo2.png"); InputStream in=url.openStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream tmpOut = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); byte[] buf = new byte[512]; int len; while (true) { len = in.read(buf); if (len == -1) { break; } tmpOut.write(buf, 0, len); } tmpOut.close(); byte[] picture=tmpOut.toByteArray(); System.out.println(picture.length); this code is okay,but my internet connect is very very bad, so ,I maybe get a broken picture like this: How can I ensure the picture file is complete ? I think you can add this code to try and test this: if (len == -1) { change to if (len == -1 || (int)(Math.random()*100)==1 ) { full test code: URL url=new URL("http://www.google.com/images/logos/ps_logo2.png"); InputStream in=url.openStream(); ByteArrayOutputStream tmpOut = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); byte[] buf = new byte[512]; int len; while (true) { len = in.read(buf); if (len == -1 || (int)(Math.random()*100)==1 ) { break; } tmpOut.write(buf, 0, len); } tmpOut.close(); byte[] picture =tmpOut.toByteArray(); System.out.println(picture.length); thanks for help :)

  Read the article

• Credit card validation with regexp using test()

  - by Matt

  I'm trying to complete some homework and it appears the book might have gotten it wrong. I have a simple html page that allows user to pick a credit card in our case american express. The user then enters a number and evalutes that number based on a regular expression. My question ends up being when test() evaluates the number it returns a boolean or a string? I should then compare that string or boolean? True == true should fire off the code in a nested if statement. Heres what the book gives me as valid code: if(document.forms[0].cardName.value == "American Express") { var cardProtocol = new RegExp("^3[47][0-9]{13}$"); //REGEX ENTRY HERE if(cardProtocol.test(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value)) document.forms[0].ccResult.value = "Valid credit card number"; } The above code doesn't work in firefox. I've tried modifying it with 2 alerts to make sure the number is good and the boolean is good...and still no luck: if(document.forms[0].cardName.value == "American Express") { var cardProtocol = new RegExp("^3[47][0-9]{13}$"); //REGEX ENTRY HERE <------ alert(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value) alert(cardProtocol.test(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value)) if((cardProtocol.test(document.forms[0].cardNumber.value)) == true ) // <--Problem { document.forms[0].ccResult.value = "Valid credit card number"; } else { document.forms[0].ccResult.value = "Invalid credit card number"; } } Any ideas? the if loop is the culprit but I'm not figuring out why it is not working. Please throw up the code for the if loop! Thanks for the help!

  Read the article

• $(selector).text() equivalent in c# (Revised)

  - by Ian Jasper Bardoquillo

  Hi, I am trying check if the inner html of the element is empty but I wanted to do the validation on the server side, I'm treating the html as a string. Here is my code public string HasContent(string htmlString){ // this is the expected value of the htmlString // <span class="spanArea"> // <STYLE>.ExternalClass234B6D3CB6ED46EEB13945B1427AA47{;}</STYLE> // </span> // From this jquery code--------------> // if($('.spanArea').text().length>0){ // // } // <------------------ // I wanted to convert the jquery statement above into c# code. /// c# code goes here return htmlSTring; } using this line $('.spanArea').text() // what is the equivalent of this line in c# I will know if the .spanArea does really have something to display in the ui or not. I wanted to do the checking on the server side. No need to worry about how to I managed to access the DOM I have already taken cared of it. Consider the htmlString as the Html string. My question is if there is any equivalent for this jquery line in C#? Thanks in advance! :)

  Read the article

• Analyzing BSOD without a dump

  - by eeoo2555

  One of the drivers I'm developing has caused a BSOD. Unfortunately a dump file was not created since it was not configured / low resources. I was trying to reproduce this crash but no luck so far. Is there any way to get some info using WinDbg or any other tool? I have this information: A screenshot of the BSOD The .sys file. Its pdb The source code The machine it was crashed on I have everything except the dump itself. Your help will be much appreciated. As I said above, no dump (/minidump) exists. This is the actual problem. For this specific crash, I know I won't be able to get the stack. Just getting the specific line of code will be good enough. Because the BSOD contains the module's address, it seems like there should be a way to detect which line exactly is it. As I mentioned above, I do have the .sys file, the pdb and the source code. This is the specific code taken from MSDN: SYSTEM_SERVICE_EXCEPTION. How can I know from there what was the specific line? and/or the specific exception raised?

  Read the article

• C non-trivial constants

  - by user525869

  I want to make several constants in C with #define to speed up computation. Two of them are not simply trivial numbers, where one is a right shift, the other is a power. math.h in C gives the function pow() for doubles, whereas I need powers for integers, so I wrote my own function, ipow, so I wouldn't need to be casting everytime. My question is this: One of the #define constants I want to make is a power, say ipow(M, T), where M and T were also #define constants. ipow is a function in the actual code, so this actually seems to slows things down when I run the code (is it running ipow everytime the constant is mentioned?). However, when I ues the built in pow function and just do (int)pow(M,T), the code is sped up. I'm confused as to why this is, since the ipow and pow functions are just as fast. On a more general note, can I define constants using #define using functions inside the actual code? The above example has me confused on whether this speeds things up or actually slows things down.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643  | Next Page >