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  • How to make Android not to recycle my Bitmap until I don't need it?

    - by RankoR
    I'm getting drawing cache of the view, that is set as contentView to the Activity. Then I set new content view to the activity and pass that drawing cache to it. But Android recycles my bitmaps and I'm getting this exception: 06-13 01:58:04.132: E/AndroidRuntime(15106): java.lang.RuntimeException: Canvas: trying to use a recycled bitmap android.graphics.Bitmap@40e72dd8 Any way to fix it? I had an idea to extend Bitmap class, but it's final. Why GC is recycling it?

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  • clocksource tsc unstable

    - by amorfis
    Ok, now I have real server fault ;) After some time from booting (about one minute) my server hangs. All I can do is hard reset. Then after restart in /var/log/kern.log I can find: Jul 29 22:38:57 leonidas kernel: [ 90.729598] longhaul: Failed to set requested frequency! Jul 29 22:38:57 leonidas kernel: [ 90.731252] longhaul: Enabling "Ignore Revision ID" option. Jul 29 22:38:57 leonidas kernel: [ 91.201461] longhaul: Failed to set requested frequency! Jul 29 22:38:57 leonidas kernel: [ 91.201482] longhaul: Disabling ACPI C3 support. Jul 29 22:38:57 leonidas kernel: [ 91.204230] longhaul: Disabling "Ignore Revision ID" option. Jul 29 22:38:58 leonidas kernel: [ 91.416133] longhaul: Failed to set requested frequency! Jul 29 22:38:58 leonidas kernel: [ 91.416152] longhaul: Enabling "Ignore Revision ID" option. Jul 29 22:38:58 leonidas kernel: [ 91.960048] Clocksource tsc unstable (delta = -105611479 ns) I found some resources on the net, and it said to change clocksource, or disable ACPI. I tried disabling ACPI but it didn't help (but I noticed there was longer time before hanging). I can't change clock to hpet, because my system doesn't have such one. Output of cat /sys/devices/system/clocksource/clocksource0/available_clocksource: acpi_pm jiffies tsc My system is ubuntu server on VIA Epia hardware.

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  • Having two IP Routes/Gateways of last Resort on an HP Switch

    - by SteadH
    We have an HP Layer 3 Switch that is doing IP routing between vlans. The general set up is that the switch has an IP address on each VLAN and IP routing is enabled. On our servers VLAN, we have a firewall that has a connection to the outside world. To set a IP route on the HP router, we use IOS command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 where 192.168.2.1 is the address of our firewall, and the zeros essentially mean to route all traffic that the switch doesn't know what to do with out the firewall as a gateway. We're in the middle of an ISP and firewall change. I set up the new firewall and ran the IOS command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.254 (the address of the new firewall). Things started working nicely. When I reviewed the configuration of the switch though, I noticed that it did not replace the previous ip route command, but just added another route. Now, I know how to remove the old firewall route (no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1), but what is the effect of having these two 0.0.0.0 routes? Is it switch implosion? Will a server just respond back over the route it receives the request from? I've read elsewhere that having two default gateways is an impossibility by definition, but I'm curious about this situation that our switch allowed. Thanks!

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  • W3 xHTML Validation Errors on jQuery code!

    - by Chris
    I have some jQuery code that, without it in the document it passes validation fine, but with it in it causes errors. The code in question is here: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "data.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { //Update error info errors = $(xml).find("Errors").find("*").filter(function () { return $(this).children().length === 0; }); if (errors.length == 0) { statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/accept.png' alt='' /> System OK"; } else { statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/exclamation.png' alt='' /> "+errors.length+" System error"+(errors.length>1?"s":""); } $("#top-bar-systemstatus a").html(statuscontent); //Update timestamp $("#top-bar-timestamp").html($(xml).find("Timestamp").text()); //Update storename $("#top-bar-storename").html("Store: "+$(xml).find("StoreName").text()); } }); There are loads of other jQuery code on the page which all works fine and causes no errors so I cannot quite understand what is wrong with this. The page isn't "live" so cannot provide a link to it unfortunately. The error it lists is document type does not allow element "img" here And the line of code it points to is here: statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/accept.png' alt='' /> System OK"; It also has an issue with the next assignment to statuscontent

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  • Multi-tier applications using L2S, WCF and Base Class

    - by Gena Verdel
    Hi all. One day I decided to build this nice multi-tier application using L2S and WCF. The simplified model is : DataBase-L2S-Wrapper(DTO)-Client Application. The communication between Client and Database is achieved by using Data Transfer Objects which contain entity objects as their properties. abstract public class BaseObject { public virtual IccSystem.iccObjectTypes ObjectICC_Type { get { return IccSystem.iccObjectTypes.unknownType; } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order = 1)] public virtual long ID { //get; //set; get { return _ID; } set { _ID = value; } } } [DataContract] public class BaseObjectWrapper<T> where T : BaseObject { #region Fields private T _DBObject; #endregion #region Properties [DataMember] public T Entity { get { return _DBObject; } set { _DBObject = value; } } #endregion } Pretty simple, isn't it?. Here's the catch. Each one of the mapped classes contains ID property itself so I decided to override it like this [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.TableAttribute(Name="dbo.Divisions")] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute()] public partial class Division : INotifyPropertyChanging, INotifyPropertyChanged { [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_ID", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order=1)] public override long ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } } Wrapper for division is pretty straightforward as well: public class DivisionWrapper : BaseObjectWrapper<Division> { } It worked pretty well as long as I kept ID values at mapped class and its BaseObject class the same(that's not very good approach, I know, but still) but then this happened: private CentralDC _dc; public bool UpdateDivision(ref DivisionWrapper division) { DivisionWrapper tempWrapper = division; if (division.Entity == null) { return false; } try { Table<Division> table = _dc.Divisions; var q = table.Where(o => o.ID == tempWrapper.Entity.ID); if (q.Count() == 0) { division.Entity._errorMessage = "Unable to locate entity with id " + division.Entity.ID.ToString(); return false; } var realEntity = q.First(); realEntity = division.Entity; _dc.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { division.Entity._errorMessage = ex.Message; return false; } } When trying to enumerate over the in-memory query the following exception occurred: Class member BaseObject.ID is unmapped. Although I'm stating the type and overriding the ID property L2S fails to work. Any suggestions?

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  • Serialize problem with cookie

    - by cagin
    Hi there, I want use cookie in my web project. I must serialize my classes. Although my code can seralize an int or string value, it cant seralize my classes. This is my seralize and cookie code : public static bool f_SetCookie(string _sCookieName, object _oCookieValue, DateTime _dtimeExpirationDate) { bool retval = true; try { if (HttpContext.Current.Request[_sCookieName] != null) { HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.Remove(_sCookieName); } BinaryFormatter bf = new BinaryFormatter(); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); bf.Serialize(ms, _oCookieValue); byte[] bArr = ms.ToArray(); MemoryStream objStream = new MemoryStream(); DeflateStream objZS = new DeflateStream(objStream, CompressionMode.Compress); objZS.Write(bArr, 0, bArr.Length); objZS.Flush(); objZS.Close(); byte[] bytes = objStream.ToArray(); string sCookieVal = Convert.ToBase64String(bytes); HttpCookie cook = new HttpCookie(_sCookieName); cook.Value = sCookieVal; cook.Expires = _dtimeExpirationDate; HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cook); } catch { retval = false; } return retval; } And here is one of my classes: [Serializable] public class Tahlil { #region Props & Fields public string M_KlinikKodu{ get; set; } public DateTime M_AlinmaTarihi { get; set; } private List<Test> m_Tesler; public List<Test> M_Tesler { get { return m_Tesler; } set { m_Tesler = value; } } #endregion public Tahlil() {} Tahlil(DataRow _rwTahlil){} } I m calling my Set Cookie method: Tahlil t = new Tahlil(); t.M_AlinmaTarihi = DateTime.Now; t.M_KlinikKodu = "2"; t.M_Tesler = new List<Test>(); f_SetCookie("Tahlil", t, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I cant see cookie in Cookie folder and Temporary Internet Files but if i will call method like that: f_SetCookie("TRY", 5, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I can see cookie. What is the problem? I dont understand. Thank you for your helps.

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  • how to declare a public string with a textbox's text

    - by Ian Lundberg
    i am trying to do public string str = txtText.Text; but it wont let me use txtText.txt so how would I declare that so it can be used everywhere? I can't use it in the button1_click event because if I do it messes it up because I am having a string retrieve from the textbox and set to the textbox so it doesn't work right so I have to have it retrieve the textbox's text somewhere else then set to it.

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  • Creating a Jenkins build farm in a hands-off manner?

    - by user183394
    My colleague and I have set up and run Jenkins on a KVM guest running Ubuntu 12.04 with good results for a while now. We are thinking about deploying a cluster of Jenkins CI hosts in master/slave configuration, with the libvirt slave plugin to keep our hardware count low. Our environment is strictly Linux (CentOS, Scientific Linux, Fedora, and Ubuntu). Both of us are competent in setting up large clusters. We typically use tools like cobbler + a configuration management tool (Puppet, Chef, and alike) to set up a large number of machines (physical and/or virtual) hands off (hundreds of nodes in less than an hour typical). We would like to do the same for nodes running Jenkins. But the step by step guide doesn't give us any clues in this regard. I did see a Multi-slave config plugin. But, being used to dealing with hundreds or more machines completely hands-off, clicking the UI for many machines just doesn't feel right. Can someone point to us a reference that talks about how to set up large cluster of Jenkins CI hosts more in the hands-off way?

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  • How to update a table with a list of values at a time?

    - by VJ
    I have update NewLeaderBoards set MonthlyRank=(Select RowNumber() from LeaderBoards) I tried it this way - (Select RowNumber() from LeaderBoards) as NewRanks update NewLeaderBoards set MonthlyRank = NewRanks But it doesnt work for me..Can anyone suggest me how can i perform an update in such a way..

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  • Somewhat lost with jquery + php + json

    - by Luis Armando
    I am starting to use the jquery $.ajax() but I can't get back what I want to...I send this: $(function(){ $.ajax({ url: "graph_data.php", type: "POST", data: "casi=56&nada=48&nuevo=98&perfecto=100&vales=50&apenas=70&yeah=60", dataType: "json", error: function (xhr, desc, exceptionobj) { document.writeln("El error de XMLHTTPRequest dice: " + xhr.responseText); }, success: function (json) { if (json.error) { alert(json.error); return; } var output = ""; for (p in json) { output += p + " : " + json[p] + "\n"; } document.writeln("Results: \n\n" + output); } }); }); and my php is: <?php $data = $_POST['data']; function array2json($data){ $json = $data; return json_encode($json); } ?> and when I execute this I come out with: Results: just like that I used to have in the php a echo array2json statement but it just gave back gibberish...I really don't know what am I doing wrong and I've googled for about 3 hours just getting basically the same stuff. Also I don't know how to pass parameters to the "data:" in the $.ajax function in another way like getting info from the web page, can anyone please help me? Edit I did what you suggested and it prints the data now thank you very much =) however, I was wondering, how can I send the data to the "data:" part in jQuery so it takes it from let's say user input, also I was checking the php documentation and it says I'm allowed to write something like: json_encode($a,JSON_HEX_TAG|JSON_HEX_APOS|JSON_HEX_QUOT|JSON_HEX_AMP) however, if I do that I get an error saying that json_encode accepts 1 parameter and I'm giving 2...any idea why? I'm using php 5.2

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  • Rails time zone selector: intelligently selecting a default

    - by Tim Sullivan
    When signing up for an account on one of my apps, we need to store the time zone is in. We're using the time zone selector, which is fine, but I'd like to set the default value to something that it likely the user's current time zone. Is there an easy way, either on the server or using JavaScript, to set the time zone selector to the time zone the user is currently in?

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  • Image swap with a javascript onclick dropdown menu

    - by AzzyDude
    So I've got this code that has an image and when you click it a dropdown menu appears. Pretty simple. The code works fine but I'm trying to incorporate an image swap on click and I'm having difficulty. Here's the HTML and the JS (there's some CSS too, but I'll leave that out): HTML: <div id="header"> <dl class="dropdown"> <dt><a href="#"><img src="images/cogwheel_btn.png"/></a></dt> <dd> <ul> <li><a href="#">Favorites</a></li> <li><a href="#">History</a></li> </ul> </dd> </dl> </div> JS: $(document).ready(function() { $(".dropdown img.flag").addClass("flagvisibility"); $(".dropdown dt a").click(function() { $(".dropdown dd ul").toggle(); }); $(".dropdown dd ul li a").click(function() { var text = $(this).html(); $(".dropdown dt a span").html(text); $(".dropdown dd ul").hide(); $("#result").html("Selected value is: " + getSelectedValue("sample")); }); function getSelectedValue(id) { return $("#" + id).find("dt a span.value").html(); } $(document).bind('click', function(e) { var $clicked = $(e.target); if (!$clicked.parents().hasClass("dropdown")) $(".dropdown dd ul").hide(); }); $("#flagSwitcher").click(function() { $(".dropdown img.flag").toggleClass("flagvisibility"); }); });? I've tried adding lines like ("dt").empty(); and then ("dt").html("new_image") but it causes the dropdown functionality to stop working. Anyone any ideas?

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  • How to use command bindings in user controls in wpf?

    - by Sam
    In MainWindow the commandbinding works fine. In UserControl1 it doesnt work. Note the datacontext is set correctly as is evidenced by the content of the button which is the result of a binding. I am not trying to bind the command in the usercontrol to a command in mainwindow or any other such trickery. I am just trying to replicate what I did in MainWindow in UserControl1. // MainWindow xaml <StackPanel> <Button Content="Click Here" Command="{Binding ClickHereCommand}" Height="25" Width="90"></Button> <local:UserControl1></local:UserControl1> </StackPanel> // MainWindow public partial class MainWindow : Window { public static RoutedCommand ClickHereCommand { get; set; } public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = this; ClickHereCommand = new RoutedCommand(); CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ClickHereCommand, ClickHereExecuted)); } public void ClickHereExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { System.Windows.MessageBox.Show("hello"); } } // UserControl1 xaml <UserControl x:Class="CommandBindingTest.UserControl1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="300" d:DesignWidth="300" x:Name="root"> <Grid DataContext="{Binding ElementName=root}" > <Button Content="{Binding ButtonContent}" Command="{Binding ClickHereCommand}" Height="25" Width="90"></Button> </Grid> </UserControl> // UserControl1 public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl, INotifyPropertyChanged { private string _ButtonContent; public string ButtonContent { get { return _ButtonContent; } set { if (_ButtonContent != value) { _ButtonContent = value; OnPropertyChanged("ButtonContent"); } } } public static RoutedCommand ClickHereCommand { get; set; } public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); ClickHereCommand = new RoutedCommand(); CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(ClickHereCommand, ClickHereExecuted)); ButtonContent = "Click Here"; } public void ClickHereExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { System.Windows.MessageBox.Show("hello from UserControl1"); } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public void OnPropertyChanged(string name) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(name)); } } #endregion }

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  • PHP/WordPress Session CountDown

    - by Cameron
    I have the following code to show how long a user has left before their session will expire, I am using WordPress. How can I do this? Thanks <script> var obj_Span; var n_Seconds = 0; var n_Minutes = 0; var n_Hours = 0; function F_ConvertNumberToString ( n_Num ) { var str_Num = String(n_Num); if ( str_Num.length < 2 ) str_Num = "0" + str_Num; return str_Num; } function F_CountDown () { if ( n_Hours == 0 && n_Minutes == 0 && n_Seconds == 0 ) { obj_Span.innerHTML = "(Sorry, your session has expired.)"; } else { if ( n_Seconds >= 0 ) n_Seconds --; if ( n_Seconds < 0 ) { n_Minutes --; n_Seconds = 59; } if ( n_Minutes >= 0 ) { window.setTimeout ( "F_CountDown()", 1000 ); } if ( n_Minutes < 0 ) { n_Hours --; n_Minutes = 59; window.setTimeout ( "F_CountDown()", 1000 ); } F_UpdateDisplay (); } } function F_UpdateDisplay ( ) { if ( document.getElementById ) { if (n_Hours > 0 ) obj_Span.innerHTML = "(Remaining " + F_ConvertNumberToString(n_Hours) + ":" + F_ConvertNumberToString(n_Minutes) + ":" + F_ConvertNumberToString(n_Seconds) + ")"; else obj_Span.innerHTML = "(Remaining " + F_ConvertNumberToString(n_Minutes) + ":" + F_ConvertNumberToString(n_Seconds) + ")"; } } function F_StartCountDown ( n_Session ) { obj_Span = document.getElementById ( "CountDown" ); n_Minutes = n_Session; n_Hours = Math.floor(n_Minutes/60); n_Minutes = n_Minutes - (60*n_Hours); F_CountDown (); } </script> <script> F_StartCountDown ( " code here... " ); </script> <span id="CountDown"></span>

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  • Controlling Solr score/sort

    - by Znarkus
    I want to filter a property within a range, but items that does not have the property should come last in the result. My solution was to set it to -1 if the property was not set. +(property:[10000000001 TO 10000000019] property:"-1"^0.5) This doesn't work, since every document with property:-1 get a very high score, for some reason. Is there a way to reliably control the sorting here? Boosting the range instead would mean I must boost every other term, which I'd rather not do.

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  • Get The Currency From Current Culture?

    - by leen3o
    Is there a way to get current information dynamically from the apps culture settings? Basically if the user has set the culture to US I want to know the currency is dollars, or if they have it set to UK I want to pound sterling etc... etc.. This is so I can send this information to PayPal when a payment is being made

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  • #include in C# (conditional compilation)

    - by HeavyWave
    Is it possible in C# to set such a condition that if the condition is true - compile one file;If condition is false - compile another file? Sort of like #ifdef DEBUG #include Class1.cs #else #include Class2.cs #endif Or possibly set it up in project properties.

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  • Does className exist in Mootools ?

    - by anna mae
    Hi, I want to update this very simple JS to Mootools 1.2 and it's not easy. This function : function changeclass(x){ document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass0"; document.getElementById("content").className = "ziclass" + x; } is triggered in the DOM by : <div id="someclass"> a href="javascript: changeclass(0)">Unstyled</a a href="javascript: changeclass(1)">link one</a a href="javascript: changeclass(2)">link two</a a href="javascript: changeclass(3)">link three</a </div> to call the according CSS classes like : .ziclass1 h1{ color: rgb(142,11,0); font-family: Verdana; font-size: 2.5em; letter-spacing: 0.1em; } and changes the layout accordingly in : <div id="content" class="ziclass3"> ... </div> I know I can add an event to the triggers like : $(#someclass.each(function(element,index) { element.addEvent('click', function(){ //some code }); But, how do I get #content class classname ? Through an array ? I am a bit confused here. I'd be really grateful for any help to set me on the right track

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  • Changing the prompt in telnet

    - by wim
    With some help from people on here, I was able to set a custom prompt in an ssh session (thanks!). Now I need to do the same in telnet, but I'm not sure of what syntax I could use for that. Basically the telnet prompt is just a > character, I need to modify it to something I can more reliably detect in automation jobs. Hope this makes sense. From inside telnet, trying to escape that command with a bang like !PS1=spam and !PS2=eggs did not change it. wim@wim-acer:~$ ssh [email protected] -i ~/.ssh/guest_nopassphrase -t "export PS1='Sending a custom prompt \w \$ '; exec sh" Sending a custom prompt ~ $ set HOME='/var/tmp' IFS=' ' LOGNAME='guest' PATH='/sbin:/usr/sbin:/bin:/usr/bin' PPID='1128' PS1='Sending a custom prompt \w $ ' PS2='> ' PS4='+ ' PWD='' SHELL='/bin/sh' TERM='xterm' USER='guest' Sending a custom prompt ~ $ telnet localhost <snip> Entering character mode Escape character is '^]'. > !set CONSOLE='/dev/ttyp0' HOME='/var/tmp' IFS=' ' LOGNAME='root' PATH='/sbin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin' PPID='546' PREVLEVEL='N' PS1='\w \$ ' PS2='> ' PS4='+ ' PWD='/var/tmp' RESPAWN_COUNT='1' RESPAWN_LAST='0' RESPAWN_MAX='5' RESPAWN_TIME='5' ROOTDEV='/dev/sla1' RUNLEVEL='5' SHELL='/bin/false' TERM='linux' USER='root' > > Connection closed by foreign host Sending a custom prompt ~ $ Connection to 192.168.1.124 closed. wim@wim-acer:~$

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  • How do I keep a table in Sync across 4 db's to be used in SQL Replication Filtering?

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I have a Win Form, Data Entry, application that uses 4 seperate Data Bases. This is an occasionally connected app that uses Merge Replication (SQL 2005) to stay in Sync. This is working just fine. The next hurdle I am trying to tackle is adding Filters to my Publications. Right now we are replicating 70mbs, compressed, to each of our 150 subscribers when, truthfully, they only need a tiny fraction of that. Using Filters I am able to accomplish this(see code below) but I had to make a mapping table in order to do so. This mapping table consists of 3 columns. A PrimaryID(Guid), WorkerName(varchar), and ClientID(int). The problem is I need this table present in all FOUR Databases in order to use it for the filter since, to my knowledge, views or cross-db query's are not allowed in a Filter Statement. What are my options? Seems like I would set it up to be maintained in 1 Database and then use Triggers to keep it updated in the other 3 Databases. In order to be a part of the Filter I have to include that table in the Replication Set so how do I flag it appropriately. Is there a better way, altogether? SELECT <published_columns> FROM [dbo].[tblPlan] WHERE [ClientID] IN (select ClientID from [dbo].[tblWorkerOwnership] where WorkerID = SUSER_SNAME()) Which allows you to chain together Filters, this next one is below the first one so it only pulls from the first's Filtered Set. SELECT <published_columns> FROM [dbo].[tblPlan] INNER JOIN [dbo].[tblHealthAssessmentReview] ON [tblPlan].[PlanID] = [tblHealthAssessmentReview].[PlanID] P.S. - I know how illogical the DB structure sounds. I didn't make it. I inherited it and was then told to make it a "disconnected app."

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  • How can I progrommatically change the target framework from 4.0 to 3.5 of a project/solution?

    - by scott
    Edit 3: After more googling it looks like you can't have the TargetFrameworkMoniker property in a .NET 3.5 application. So I guess I should be asking a different question. How do I change the Target framework from 4.0 to 3.5? Unfortunately, I can only find stuff on how to go the other way. or better yet how do i progrommatically set the target framework version of a project to something other than 4.0? Original question: I just switched to vs2010. I have an application that uses .net 3.5. It loads plugins which are generated by a different app. The plugins are using .net 4 and there for cannot be loaded. I'm using EnvDTE.Project to create a project and set the settings. I can't find what setting needs to be set for this. Edit 1: I'm generating code for about 50 solutions. When I made the switch from vs2005 to vs2010 the projects in those solutions are defaulting to .NET Framework 4.0. So I need to set the .NET Framework to 3.5 when I am generating the code for these solutions. Edit 2: After a lot of googling I found this. so then I tried this: loProp = vsGetProperty("TargetFrameworkMoniker"); vsSetValue(loProp, ".NETFramework,Version=v3.5"); the definitions for those two methods are below. as far as I can tell they do the same this as project.Properties.Item("TargetFrameworkMoniker").Value = ".NETFramework,Version=v4.0,Profile=Client"; I start getting an Property Unavailable Exception later in the code. When I remove the new lines everything works except the projects target framework is still 4.0. The code generators target framework is 3.5 so I can't use the FrameworkName class like shown in the second example in that link. here is vsGetProperty protected Property vsGetProperty(string aProperty) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; Property loProp; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { loProp = pProject.Properties.Item(aProperty); lbDone = true; return loProp; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } return null; } and vsSetValue protected void vsSetValue(Property aProperty, string aValue) { bool lbDone = false; int liCount = 0; while (!lbDone && liCount < pMaxRetries) { try { aProperty.Value = aValue; lbDone = true; } catch (System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException loE) { liCount++; if ((uint)loE.ErrorCode == 0x80010001) { // RPC_E_CALL_REJECTED - sleep half sec then try again System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(pDelayBetweenRetry); } } } }

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  • Can a Windows Domain play along with a Hosted Exchange service?

    - by benzado
    I'm setting up a computer network for a small (10-20 people) company. They are currently using a Hosted Exchange service they are totally happy with. Other than that, they are starting from scratch (office doesn't even have furniture yet). They will need some kind of file sharing server set up in their office. If I set up a machine as a file server and nothing more, users will have three passwords to deal with: local machine, file server, and email. If I set up a Domain Controller, identities for local machine and file server will be the same. But what about the Hosted Exchange server? Must the users have a separate email password, or is it possible to combine the two? (I realize it might depend on the specific hosting provider, but is it possible?) If not, it seems like I have these options: Deal with it: users have a separate email password. Host Exchange on the local server: more than they want to manage in-house? Purchase a hosted VPS, make it part of the domain, and host Exchange there. (Or can/should a VPS be a domain controller?) I realize I have a lot of questions in there. The main one: is there any reason to use a Hosted Exchange service if I'm setting up other Windows services?

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  • How can I override the attribute assignment in an active record object?

    - by ryeguy
    I know you can do this with virtual attributes, but what if the column actually exists? For example, my model has a raw_topic column. When raw_topic is set, I want artist and song_title to be set based off of raw_topic's contents. Ideally, I'd like to override the raw_topic= method, but rails doesn't seem to like that. What's the proper way of doing this? Is a callback the only way?

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  • structDelete doesn't affect the shallow copy?

    - by Travis
    I was playing around onError so I tried to create an error using a large xml document object. <cfset XMLByRef = variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement.XMLChildElement> <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML, "XMLRootElement")> <cfset startXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> <cfloop from = "1" to = "#arrayLen(variables.XMLByRef)#" index = "variables.i"> <cfoutput>#variables.XMLByRef[variables.i].id.xmltext#</cfoutput><br /> </cfloop> <cfset stopXMLShortLoop = getTickCount()> I expected to get an error because I deleted the structure I was referencing. From LiveDocs: Variable Assignment - Creates an additional reference, or alias, to the structure. Any change to the data using one variable name changes the structure that you access using the other variable name. This technique is useful when you want to add a local variable to another scope or otherwise change a variable's scope without deleting the variable from the original scope. instead I got 580df1de-3362-ca9b-b287-47795b6cdc17 25a00498-0f68-6f04-a981-56853c0844ed ... ... ... db49ed8a-0ba6-8644-124a-6d6ebda3aa52 57e57e28-e044-6119-afe2-aebffb549342 Looped 12805 times in 297 milliseconds <cfdump var = "#variables#"> Shows there's nothing in the structure, just parsedXML.xmlRoot.xmlName with the value of XMLRootElement. I also tried <cfset structDelete(variables.parsedXML.XMLRootElement, "XMLChildElement")> as well as structClear for both. More information on deleting from the xml document object. http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ColdFusion/9.0/Developing/WSc3ff6d0ea77859461172e0811cbec22c24-78e3.html Can someone please explain my faulty logic? Thanks.

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