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  • Apache Virtual Hosts behind Cisco Router

    - by Theo
    I'm setting up an Apache 2.2 Ubuntu web server for internal services that is also supposed to be accessed from outside our LAN. Our LAN has a single external IP that is the external IP of our RV042 Cisco router. We have set up several A records on our external DNS server that point to this IP. Our internal DNS server resolve the same records to the internal IP of our web server, so computers from inside the network can access them using the same address as if they were outside. We forwarded the router's external 80 port to our web server's 80 port. I have set up one Virtual Host for each domain name in our list, and my httpd.conf is something like this: ServerName web.domain.com NameVirtualHost *:80 <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName alfresco.domain.com <Proxy *> Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass /alfresco http://localhost:8080/alfresco ProxyPassReverse /alfresco http://localhost:8080/alfresco ProxyPass /share http://localhost:8080/share ProxyPassReverse /share http://localhost:8080/share </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName crm.domain.com DocumentRoot /var/www/sugarcrm </VirtualHost> Now, this works if we are in our LAN. However, if we are outside of our LAN we reach our web server's default page saying: It Works! This is the default web page for this server. But we can't reach the virtual hosts, as if the domain name is not being preserved when the router forward the packets to the web server. Am I doing something wrong? How can I check what is going on? What should be the settings to make this work from outside?

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  • JPA returning null for deleted items from a set

    - by Jon
    This may be related to my question from a few days ago, but I'm not even sure how to explain this part. (It's an entirely different parent-child relationship.) In my interface, I have a set of attributes (Attribute) and valid values (ValidValue) for each one in a one-to-many relationship. In the Spring MVC frontend, I have a page for an administrator to edit these values. Once it's submitted, if any of these fields (as <input> tags) are blank, I remove the ValidValue object like so: Set<ValidValue> existingValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(attribute.getValidValues()); Set<ValidValue> finalValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(); for(ValidValue validValue : attribute.getValidValues()) { if(!validValue.getValue().isEmpty()) { finalValues.add(validValue); } } existingValues.removeAll(finalValues); for(ValidValue removedValue : existingValues) { getApplicationDataService().removeValidValue(removedValue); } attribute.setValidValues(finalValues); getApplicationDataService().modifyAttribute(attribute); The problem is that while the database is updated appropriately, the next time I query for the Attribute objects, they're returned with an extra entry in their ValidValue set -- a null, and thus, the next time I iterate through the values to display, it shows an extra blank value in the middle. I've confirmed that this happens at the point of a merge or find, at the point of "Execute query ReadObjectQuery(entity.Attribute). Here's the code I'm using to modify the database (in the ApplicationDataService): public void modifyAttribute(Attribute attribute) { getJpaTemplate().merge(attribute); } public void removeValidValue(ValidValue removedValue) { ValidValue merged = getJpaTemplate().merge(removedValue); getJpaTemplate().remove(merged); } Here are the relevant parts of the entity classes: Entity @Table(name = "attribute") public class Attribute { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.LAZY, mappedBy = "attribute") private Set<ValidValue> validValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(0); } @Entity @Table(name = "valid_value") public class ValidValue { @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "attr_id", nullable = false) private Attribute attribute; }

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  • DataGridView live display of datatable using virtual mode

    - by Chris
    I have a DataGridView that will display records (log entries) from a database. The amount of records that can exist at a time is very large. I would like to use the virtual mode feature of the DataGridView to display a page of data, and to minimize the amount of data that has to be transferred across a network at a given time. Polling for data is out of the question. There will be several clients running at a time, all of which are on the same network and viewing the records. If they all poll for data, the network will run very slowly. The data is read-only to the user; they won't be able to edit any of it, just view it. I need to know when updates occur in the database, and I need to update the screen with those updates accordingly using virtual mode. If a page of data a user is viewing contains data that has change, he/she will see those updates on that page. If updates were made to data in the database, but not in the data the user is viewing, then not much really changes on the user screen (Maybe just the scroll bar if records were added or removed). My current approach is using SQL server change tracking with the sync framework. Each client has a local SQL Server CE instance and database file that is kept in sync with the main database server. I use the information from the synchronization event to see if any changes were made to the main database and were sync'ed to the client. I need to use the DataGridView virtual mode here because I can't have thousands of records loaded into the DataGridView at once, otherwise memory usage goes through the roof. The main challenge right now is knowing how to use virtual mode to provide a seamless experience to the user by allowing them to scroll up and down through the records, and also have records update on the fly without interfering with the user inappropriately. Has anybody dealt with this issue before, and if so, where I can see how they did it? I've gone through some of the MSDN documentation and examples on virtual mode. So far, I haven't found documentation and/or examples on their site that explains how to do what I am trying to accomplish.

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  • sub application and virtual directory file permissions

    - by Zeus
    I have a website setup in IIS7, exampledomain.com. Under the application exampledomain.com lives a sub application cms. In a rather convoluted way, we have content in our cms system in this sub-app, under cms\content\{generatedfoldername}. So to access an image in this content, the full URL would be http://www.exampledomain.com/cms/cms/content/{generatedfoldername}/image.jpg, (yes, cms twice...) and this works just fine. Now, we have a virtual directory under the parent website, called stuff which points at the content of the cms. So I should be able to get to the image using the url http://www.exampledomain.com/stuff/{generatedfoldername}/image.jpg. Unfortunately this gives a server 500 error "There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed." Whilst you do have to log into the cms system to access any of the admin pages within, I don't think the image files are protected by login, or else the first example URL wouldn't work, right? Also it's a server 500 error, rather than a 403. I'm sure I must be missing something obvious here- will the virtual directory be using the permissions defined in the parent application, or the subapplication to which it is pointing? Or is there some other permissions I may have missed? Sorry, that was a bit long, thanks for reading all the way down here! (I also must point out that I'm pretty new to the server management stuff.) edit: also, we have <location path="." inheritInChildApplications="false"> specified in the webconfig of the parent app, so it's hopefully not the issue described in this config file hierarchy article.

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  • Virtual Host Configuration and mod_rewrite - Removing PHP Extension and Adding Forward Slash

    - by nicorellius
    On my production server, things are fine: PHP extension removal and trailing slash rules are in place in my .htaccess file. But locally, this isn't working (well, partially, anyway). I'm running Apache2 with a virtual host for the site in question. I decided to not use the .htaccess file in this case and just add the rules to the httpd-vhosts.conf file instead, which, I've heard, if possible on your server, is a better way to go. The virtual host is working and the URL I use for my site is like this: devserver:9090 Here is my httpd-vhosts.conf file: NameVirtualHost *:9090 # for stuff other than this site <VirtualHost *:9090> ServerAdmin admin@localhost DocumentRoot "/opt/lampstack/apache2/htdocs" ServerName localhost </VirtualHost> # for site in question <VirtualHost *:9090> ServerAdmin admin@localhost DocumentRoot "/opt/lampstack/apache2/htdocs/devserver" ServerName devserver <Directory "/opt/lampstack/apache2/htdocs/devserver"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks Includes AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <IfModule rewrite_module> RewriteEngine ON # remove PHP extension and add trailing slash # note - this doesn't work for directories, and throws 404 # TODO - fix so directories use index.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^GET\ /[^?\s]+\.php RewriteRule (.*)\.php$ /$1/ [R=302,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule (.*)/$ /$1.php [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}.php -f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule .*[^/]$ /$0/ [R=302,L] </IfModule> # error docs ErrorDocument 404 /errors/404.php </VirtualHost> The problem I'm facing is that when I go to directories on the site, I get a 404 error. So for example, this: devserver:9090/page.php goes to devserver:9090/page/ but going to a directory (that has an index.php): devserver:9090/dir/ throws 404 error page. If I type in devserver:9090/dir/index.php I get devserver:9090/dir/index/ and the contents I want appear... Can anyone help me with my rewrite rules?

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  • Apache not routing to tomcat on correct Virtual host

    - by ttheobald
    We are looking at moving from Websphere to Tomcat. I'm trying to send traffic to tomcat from apache web server based on the virtual host directives in apache web server. After some playing around I have it sort of working, but I'm noticing that if I have a JKMount directive in the first VirtualHost in apache, all virtualHosts will send to the application server. If I have the JKMount in Virtual hosts further down in the configs, then only that VirtualHost works with the request. For Example, with the configs below here are my symptoms mysite.com/Webapp1/ -- I resolve to the proper application mysite2.com/Webapp1/ -- I resolve to the proper application (bad!) mysite.com/MonitorApp/ -- I resolve to the proper application mysite2.com/MonitorApp/ -- I resolve to the proper application (bad!) mysite.com/Webapp2/ -- I DO NOT get to the app (good) mysite2.com/Webapp2/ -- I resolve to the proper application Here's what my web server virtualhosts look like. <VirtualHost 255.255.255.1:80> ServerName mysite.com ServerAlias aliasmysite.ca ##all our rewrite rules JkMount /Webapp1/* LoadBalanceWorker JKmount /MonitorApp/* LoadBalanceWorker </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 255.255.255.2:80> ServerName mysite2.com ServerAlias aliasmysite2.ca ##all our rewrite rules JkMount /Webapp2/* LoadBalanceWorker </VirtualHost> we are running apache webserver 2.2.10 and tomcat 7.0.29 on Solaris10 I've posted an image of our architecture here. http://imgur.com/IFaA6Rh I HAVE not defined VirtualHosts on Tomcat. Based on what I've read, my understanding is that it's only needed if I'm accessing Tomcat directly. Any assistance is appreciated. Edit Here's my worker.properties. worker.list= LoadBalanceWorker,App1,App2 worker.intApp1.port=8009 worker.intApp1.host=10.15.8.8 worker.intApp1.type=ajp13 worker.intApp1.lbfactor=1 worker.intApp1.socket_timeout=30 worker.intApp1.socket_connect_timeout=5000 worker.intApp1.fail_on_status=302,500,503 worker.intApp1.recover_time=30 worker.intApp2.port=8009 worker.intApp2.host=10.15.8.9 worker.intApp2.type=ajp13 worker.intApp2.lbfactor=1 worker.intApp2.socket_timeout=30 worker.intApp2.socket_connect_timeout=5000 worker.intApp2.fail_on_status=302,500,503 worker.intApp2.recover_time=30 worker.LoadBalanceWorker.type=lb worker.LoadBalanceWorker.balanced_workers=intApp1,intApp2 worker.LoadBalanceWorker.sticky_session=1

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  • Virtual folder for multiple sites

    - by Cups
    I am creating a very simple flat file CMS for small (multilingual) websites. The little file writing that goes on is handled by 4 scripts in a publicly available folder in each site named /edit. Given that I have 2 websites now working on that simple system: websiteA/index.php (etc) websiteA/edit/ websiteB/index.php (etc) websiteB/edit/ What is the best way of making that /edit folder "virtual" in order that these and each subsequent website owner can login to their view of /edit and yet the code only exists in one place. I do not want the website owners to have to login from a central website, but from their own /edit directory. I have already read about different solutions seemingly using the <Directory> directive in my httpd.conf declaration for each website, and also using straight mod_rewrite but admit to now becoming confused about some of the terminology. Each website has its own config file which contains path settings and so on. What in your opinion is the best way to handle this? EDIT In light of a reply, I suppose that given a virtual host directive such as this: <VirtualHost 00.00.00.00:80> DocumentRoot /var/www/html/websitea.com ServerName www.websitea.com ServerAlias websitea.com DirectoryIndex index.htm index.php CustomLog logs/websitea combined </VirtualHost> Is it possible to create an alias inside that directive for the folder websitea.com/edit ?

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  • Directories Throwing 404 Errors - Virtual Host Configuration and mod_rewrite

    - by nicorellius
    On my production server, things are fine: PHP extension removal and trailing slash rules are in place in my .htaccess file. But locally, this isn't working (well, partially, anyway). I'm running Apache2 with a virtual host for the site in question. I decided to not use the .htaccess file in this case and just add the rules to the httpd-vhosts.conf file instead, which, I've heard, if possible on your server, is a better way to go. The virtual host is working and the URL I use for my site is like this: devserver:9090 Here is my httpd-vhosts.conf file: NameVirtualHost *:9090 # for stuff other than this site <VirtualHost *:9090> ServerAdmin admin@localhost DocumentRoot "/opt/lampstack/apache2/htdocs" ServerName localhost </VirtualHost> # for site in question <VirtualHost *:9090> ServerAdmin admin@localhost DocumentRoot "/opt/lampstack/apache2/htdocs/devserver" ServerName devserver <Directory "/opt/lampstack/apache2/htdocs/devserver"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks Includes AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <IfModule rewrite_module> RewriteEngine ON # remove PHP extension and add trailing slash # note - this doesn't work for directories, and throws 404 # TODO - fix so directories use index.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^GET\ /[^?\s]+\.php RewriteRule (.*)\.php$ /$1/ [R=302,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule (.*)/$ /$1.php [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}.php -f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule .*[^/]$ /$0/ [R=302,L] </IfModule> # error docs ErrorDocument 404 /errors/404.php </VirtualHost> The problem I'm facing is that when I go to directories on the site, I get a 404 error. So for example, this: devserver:9090/page.php goes to devserver:9090/page/ but going to a directory (that has an index.php): devserver:9090/dir/ throws 404 error page. If I type in devserver:9090/dir/index.php I get devserver:9090/dir/index/ and the contents I want appear... Can anyone help me with my rewrite rules?

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  • using virtual machine like mySql server

    - by ffmm
    i'm developing a java program and i need a database. Now i'm using MAMP and it's pretty easy but i would have a virtual machine (ubuntu server) and i need to connect my java program with this virtual machine using vitualBox. the situation: I installed VirtualBox on my mac and I installed an ubuntu-server machine set "bridge adapter" in the network settings of VB I installed mysql on ubuntu-server and i created a simple database (all work well by ubuntu) doing ifconfig by ubuntu I get the ip: 192.168.1.217 so in the java program i made this function: public static Connection connect(String host, int port, String dbName, String user, String passwd) { Connection dbConnection = null; try { String dbString = null; Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); dbString = "jdbc:mysql://" + host + ":" + port + "/" + dbName; dbConnection = DriverManager.getConnection(dbString, user, passwd); } catch (Exception e) { System.err.println("Failed to connect with the DB"); e.printStackTrace(); } return dbConnection; } and in the main() i use: Connection con = connect(1, "192.168.1.217", 3306, "Ciao", "root", "cocacola"); 3306 was a default value. I don't know if is correct, it works on mamp, but…. how I can find the correct port that I have to use with VB? when I ran the program I get the catch excepion… what's wrong? ps: i have to install apache o something else?

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  • Implement two functions with the same name but different, non-covariant return types due to multiple abstract base classes

    - by user1508167
    If I have two abstract classes defining a pure virtual function with the same name, but different, non-covariant return types, how can I derive from these and define an implementation for both their functions? #include <iostream> class ITestA { public: virtual ~ITestA() {}; virtual float test() =0; }; class ITestB { public: virtual ~ITestB() {}; virtual bool test() =0; }; class C : public ITestA, public ITestB { public: /* Somehow implement ITestA::test and ITestB::test */ }; int main() { ITestA *a = new C(); std::cout << a->test() << std::endl; // should print a float, like "3.14" ITestB *b = dynamic_cast<ITestB *>(a); if (b) { std::cout << b->test() << std::endl; // should print "1" or "0" } delete(a); return 0; } As long as I don't call C::test() directly there's nothing ambiguous, so I think that it should work somehow and I guess I just didn't find the right notation yet. Or is this impossible, if so: Why?

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  • maxlength attribute of a text box from the DataAnnotations StringLength in MVC2

    - by Pervez Choudhury
    I am working on an MVC2 application and want to set the maxlength attributes of the text inputs. I have already defined the stringlength attribute on the Model object using data annotations and it is validating the length of entered strings correctly. I do not want to repeat the same setting in my views by setting the max length attribute manually when the model already has the information. Is there any way to do this? Code snippets below: From the Model: [Required, StringLength(50)] public string Address1 { get; set; } From the View: <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Address1) %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Address1, new { @class = "text long" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Address1) %> What I want to avoid doing is: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Address1, new { @class = "text long", maxlength="50" })%> Is there any way to do this?

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  • Android's EditText is hidden when the virtual keyboard is shown and a SurfaceView is involved

    - by Jan
    I have a simple user interface: an EditText should be located below a SurfaceView. I use a RelativeLayout to arrange these two views. Now, when I tap on the EditText to open the virtual keyboard the SurfaceView slides up but the EditText is hidden and does not show the typed string. To reproduce, use the following layout XML code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/RelativeLayout01" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent"> <SurfaceView android:id="@+id/SurfaceView01" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> </SurfaceView> <EditText android:id="@+id/EditText01" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_alignParentLeft="true" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:selectAllOnFocus="true" android:textStyle="normal" android:singleLine="true"> </EditText> </RelativeLayout> The main Activity class only needs to show the layout. When I start the program and tap the EditText, the virtual keyboard appears but the EditText field is gone. Maybe the RelativeLayout is causing the problems, but I don't know how to reproduce the same layout with another Layout class. Any suggestions are welcome, I really appreciate your help. Thanks. Edit: Here are two screenshots, one showing the EditText at the bottom without virtual keyboard, one with virtual keyboard but with no EditText. It is interesting to note that the SurfaceView and the EditText actually shift upward, the EditText just disappears. BTW this also happens to a button if it is next to the EditText. EditText below a SurfaceView (left); EditText is gone (right)

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  • MSTest: Problems with DeploymentItem attribute

    - by Juri
    Hi, I'm currently maintaining an "old" system written in C#.net, removing some obsolete features and doing some refactoring. Thanks god, the previous guy wrote some unit tests (MSTests). I quite comfortable with JUnit tests, but didn't do yet much with MSTests. The test methods have a DeploymentItem attribute, specifying a text file which is parsed by the business logic method that is being tested and a 2nd DeploymentItem where just a path has been specified containing a bunch of TIF files that have to be deployed too. [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem(@"files\valid\valid_entries.txt")] [DeploymentItem(@"files\tif\")] public void ExistsTifTest() { ... } The tests worked before, but now I had to change the names of the TIF files contained in the \files\tif directory. According to a rule, the TIF filenames have to match a certain pattern which is also checked by the ExistsTifTest() method. Now I had to change the filenames in order to adapt them to the new requirements and suddently the TIF files are no more being deployed as before. Can someone give me a hint why this happens or what may be the cause? The same thing happens also if I add a new text-file say "my2ndTest.txt" beside the "valid_entries.txt" in the \files\valid\ directory with the according DeploymentItem attribute on the test method. The file doesn't get deployed? I got the images now deployed by defining the deployment path directly in the testrunconfig, but I'd like to understand why these things happen or why for instance my new file "my2ndTest.txt" doesn't get deployed while the others do. Thanks a lot. Juri

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  • jQuery attribute selector inside a jQuery object

    - by chifliiiii
    Im trying to set up a quicksand with multiple filters and the approach im taking in the following which im not sure if its the best. $filteredItems = $containerClone.find('.portfolio-item-marketing').filter(function(index){ if ( $filterA != 'all' && $filterB != 'all' ) { return jQuery(this).find('.portfolio-item-marketing[data-type~=' + $filterA + ']') || jQuery(this).find('.portfolio-item-marketing[data-type~=' + $filterB + ']'); } if ( $filterA != 'all' && $filterB == 'all' ) { return jQuery(this+'[data-type~='+$filterA+']') ; } if ( $filterA == 'all' && $filterB != 'all' ) { return jQuery(this).find('.portfolio-item-marketing[data-type~=' + $filterB + ']'); } if ( $filterA == 'all' && $filterB == 'all' ) { return jQuery(this).find('.portfolio-item-marketing'); } }); As you see in the code i tried 2 different methods ( First "if" and second "if" ). Im not sure if i can use find inside a filter but i also dont know how to get the attribute from the jQuery object. I can not use jQuery(this).attr('data-type') == $filterA Because the attribute maybe contain various filters .Thats why im trying to use jQuery "~=" Should i give up and end using a indexOf ?

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  • Updating CoreData xcdatamodel file troubles - attribute type change

    - by San
    I noticed several questions related to this topic go unanswered. Is this such a gray area that nobody really understands it? Here is my problem: I am a midway in the development of my app and the app has never been used ouside of my iphone simulator.One of the attributes in my core data structure requires a type change.Since my app has never been used outside of my iPhone Simulator, I first deleted the sqlite file. Doubling the effort of this step, I also went into iPhone Simulator menu and selected "Reset Content and Settings...". Than, I edited the xcdatamodel file and changed the type of my attribute. I saved the file and exited. Without any other changes, I compiled. I expected it to fail because of my type change. It did not! After this, I assigned a value with new type to my attribute and it fails to compile?! Is there something else that I need to do for the change to take an effect? I would really, really appreciate an answer to my question. Thank you!

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  • Correctly assigning value to a Core Data attribute with an integer data-type

    - by Gordon Fontenot
    I'm missing something here, and feeling like an idiot about it. I'm using a UIPickerView in my app, and I need to assign the row number to a 32-bit integer attribute for a Core Data object. To do this, I am using this method: -(void)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView didSelectRow:(NSInteger)row inComponent:(NSInteger)component { object.integerValue = row; } This is giving me a warning: warning: passing argument 1 of 'setIntegerValue:' makes pointer from integer without a cast What am I mixing up here? --Edit 1-- Ok, so I can get rid of the warning by changing the method to do the following: NSNumber *number = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:row]; object.integerValue = rating; However, I still get a value of 0 for object.integerValue if I use NSLog to print it out. object.integerValue has a max value of 5, so I print out number instead, and then I'm getting a number above 62,000,000. Which doesn't seem right to me, since there are 5 rows. If I NSLog the row variable, I get a number between 0 and 5. So why do I end up with a completely different number after casting the number to NSNumber? --Edit 2-- Ok, so I'm realizing that there is some fundamental idea that I don't understand. I now understand that the 60 million + number can be cast back to the correct 0-5 number by using integerValue. So, it seems my question is how can I save an integer between 0-5 to the attribute if the NSNumber that is returned is over 60 million? Do I need to be using a different data type?

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  • validation properties by attribute

    - by netmajor
    I create class with two property - name,link(below). I use simple property validation by Required and StringLength attribute. I bind this class object to WPF ListBox(with textBoxs). But when I have textbox empty or write words longer than 8 sign nothing happens :/ What should I do to fires ErrorMessage? Or how to implement validation in other way ? I also try use : if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } But it only fires in debug mode :/ My class with implementation of attribute validation: public class RssInfo : INotifyPropertyChanged { public RssInfo() { } public RssInfo(string _nazwa, string _link) { nazwa = _nazwa; link = _link; } private string nazwa; [Required(ErrorMessage = "To pole jest obowiazkowe nAZWA")] public string Nazwa { get { return nazwa; } set { if (value != nazwa) { nazwa = value; onPropertyChanged("Nazwa"); } if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } } } private string link; [Required(ErrorMessage="To pole jest obowiazkowe link")] [StringLength(8, ErrorMessage = "Link cannot be longer than 8 characters")] public string Link { get { return link; } set { if (value != link) { link = value; onPropertyChanged("Link"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

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  • Hudson plugin, Java error "... disagree on InnerClasses attribute"

    - by StackedCrooked
    I am trying to be able to step through the code of a Hudson plugin called SVNPublisher. I checked out the code for SVNPublisher, used Netbeans to open the project, and clicked "Debug Main project". This results in a Firefox window opening address http://localhost:8080 which shows the Hudson main page. Clicking the "New Job" link results in an error page: HTTP ERROR: 500 jar:file:/home/francis/svn/svnpublisher/target/work/webapp/WEB-INF/lib/hudson-core-1.319.jar!/lib/hudson/newFromList/form.jelly:43:47: <j:forEach> hudson.scm.SubversionTagAction and hudson.scm.SubversionTagAction$DescriptorImpl disagree on InnerClasses attribute RequestURI=/newJob Caused by: org.apache.commons.jelly.JellyTagException: jar:file:/home/francis/svn/svnpublisher/target/work/webapp/WEB-INF/lib/hudson-core-1.319.jar!/lib/hudson/newFromList/form.jelly:43:47: hudson.scm.SubversionTagAction and hudson.scm.SubversionTagAction$DescriptorImpl disagree on InnerClasses attribute at org.apache.commons.jelly.impl.TagScript.handleException(TagScript.java:713) at org.apache.commons.jelly.impl.TagScript.run(TagScript.java:282) at org.apache.commons.jelly.impl.ScriptBlock.run(ScriptBlock.java:95) ... I am very new to Hudson and not very experienced with Java so I'm pretty much clueless on the meaning of this error. Can anyone help?

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  • How does virtual inheritance solve the diamond problem?

    - by cambr
    class A { public: void eat(){ cout<<"A";} }; class B: virtual public A { public: void eat(){ cout<<"B";} }; class C: virtual public A { public: void eat(){ cout<<"C";} }; class D: public B,C { public: void eat(){ cout<<"D";} }; int main(){ A *a = new D(); a->eat(); } I understand the diamond problem, and above piece of code does not have that problem. How exatly does virtual inheritance solve the problem? What I understand: When I say A *a = new D();, the compiler wants to know if an object of type D can be assigned to a pointer of type A, but it has two paths that it can follow, but cannot decide by itself. So, how does virtual inheritance resolve the issue (help compiler take the decision)?

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  • Rails: unable to set any attribute of child model

    - by Bryan Roth
    I'm having a problem instantiating a ListItem object with specified attributes. For some reason all attributes are set to nil even if I specify values. However, if I specify attributes for a List, they retain their values. Attributes for a List retain their values: >> list = List.new(:id => 20, :name => "Test List") => #<List id: 20, name: "Test List"> Attributes for a ListItem don't retain their values: >> list_item = ListItem.new(:id => 17, :list_id => 20, :name => "Test Item") => #<ListItem id: nil, list_id: nil, name: nil> UPDATE #1: I thought the id was the only attribute not retaining its value but realized that setting any attribute for a ListItem gets set to nil. list.rb: class List < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :list_items, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :list_items, :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:name].blank? }, :allow_destroy => true end list_item.rb: class ListItem < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :list validates_presence_of :name end schema.rb ActiveRecord::Schema.define(:version => 20100506144717) do create_table "list_items", :force => true do |t| t.integer "list_id" t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "lists", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end end

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  • question regarding templatization of virtual function

    - by jan
    Hi, I am new to this forum and sorry If I am repeating this question. I know that you cannot templatize the virtual function and I do understand the concept behind it. But I still need a way to get across some errors I am getting it. I am able to make my stuff work but it doesn't look to me. Here's the deal, I have class called System, #include "Vector.h" class System { virtual void VectorToLocal(Vector<T>& global_dir,const Vector<T>* global_pos = 0) const = 0; }; class UnresolvedSystem : public System { virtual void VectorToLocal(Vector<T>& global_dir,const Vector<T>* global_pos = 0) const { //do something } }; In Vector.h tenplate<typename T> class Vector { //some functions }; See now I want to templatize VectorToLocal in system.h to take just Vector, but I cannot do it as it is a virtual function. I want a work around. I know I can have VectorToLocal take Vector, Vector etc as arguments. But I do not want to do it. Any help would be really appreciated. Thanks in advance, Jan

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  • Spring bean's DESTROY-METHOD attribute and web-application "prototype"d bean

    - by EugeneP
    Can get work the attribute "destroy-method". First, even if I type non-existing method name into "destroy-method" attribute, Spring initialization completes fine (already strange!). Next, when a bean has a "prototype" scope, then I suppose it must be destroyed before the application is closed. That not happens, it is simply never called in my case. Though, after extracting this bean I can call this method explicitly and it does its job. Could you explain why this method is never called in my Spring 2.5 case? p.s. The method exists, it is public and has no arguments. It seems to be a more difficult task then I thought. The problem is that this destroy method is called whenever the context is closed, and this is a rare case. My question is this: I have a web app. I have a "prototype"-scoped bean. What I need is when the current session is closed, this destroy method was automatically called by Spring. I can do it by hand, but is there any solution how to make Spring do this job? It destroys the bean after the session is destroyed, it might be possible for Spring to call a method on that bean before destroying it?

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  • Can I do my own HTTP header attribute?

    - by wokena
    Hi, can I make my own headers in HTTP request? e.g. This is normal HTTP request GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: google.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT x.x; xx; rv:x.x.x.x) xxx Firefox/3.0.10 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: xx,en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1250,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive and this is header with my "attribute" GET / HTTP/1.1 Host: google.com User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT x.x; xx; rv:x.x.x.x) xxx Firefox/3.0.10 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: xx,en-us;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1250,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Name: John and I will have "attribute" in server response. I'll use "attrubutes" in HTTP headers instead of sessions attributes... BTW.Sorry for my english... ;)

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  • Use Lambda in Attribute constructor to get method's parameters

    - by Anthony Shaw
    I'm not even sure if this is possible, but I've exhausted all of my ideas trying to figure this out, so I figured I'd send this out to the community and see what you thought. And, if it's not possible, maybe you'd have some ideas as well. I'm trying to make an Attribute class that I can add to a method that would allow me to use a lambda expression to get each parameter of the method public ExampleAttribute : Attribute { public object Value { get; set; } public ExampleAttribute(--something here to make the lambda work--, object value) { Value = value; } } I'd like to be able to something like this below: [Example(x=x.Id, 4)] [Example(x=x.filter, "string value")] public ActionResult Index(int Id, string filter) { return View(); } I understand that I might be completely dreaming with this idea. I'm basically trying to write a model to allow for self-documenting REST API Documentation. In a recent project here at work we wrote a dozen or so services with 5 to 15 methods on each, I figure it's easier to write something to do this, than to hand code a documentation page for each. I would plan to eventually release this as an open-source project once I have it in a place that I feel it's releasable.

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  • IHttpModule not being applied to virtual directory

    - by arthurdent510
    I have a network folder that is mapped to my iis app as a virtual directory and I'm trying to do some authentication for files that are located there with an ihttpmodule. I've verified that the ihttpmodule is firing properly for anything else in my app, just not the files located in virtual directory. Most of what I've found is that the directory can't be listed as an application (which it isn't), and everything should work. The other solution that I found was to add the the module tag to the tag, but that didn't seem to help either. Everything that I've found talks about stopping this from happening. So my question is what could be set that is causing this to not work? Is there a certain execute permission that needs to be set? Any other iis settings that could cause this? It is an mvc app, and this is how my directory structure is laid out: server/app <- my application folder server/app/content/downloads <- downloads is the virtual directory Do I have to add the virtual directory directly under my app directory? Is that part of the problem? I don't have direct control of the server my code is running on, so testing things out is a bit of a pain... so I was looking for some more thoughts before starting to send emails off to my operations people. Thanks!

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