Search Results

Search found 17593 results on 704 pages for 'wmi query'.

Page 640/704 | < Previous Page | 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646 647  | Next Page >

• SOAP Messages on iPhone

  - by CocoaNewBee

  Hello everyone !! I have to use several SOAP messages to get data from a web service. I got some examples how to do that but they all have the XML (http://icodeblog.com/2008/11/03/iphone-programming-tutorial-intro-to-soap-web-services/) // ---- LOGIN ----- NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap12:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap12=\"http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope\">\n" "<soap12:Body>\n" "<Login xmlns=\"http://tempuri.org/\">\n" "<sUserID>USER</sUserID>\n" "<sUserPw>PASSWORD</sUserPw>\n" "<sDomain>SERVER</sDomain>\n" "</Login>\n" "</soap12:Body>\n" "</soap12:Envelope>\n" ]; NSString *urlToSend = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"http://SERVER/DIRECTORY/WSDL_FILE.ASMX"]; NSString *callTOMake = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"http://WEBSERVER/Login"]; TWO questions: 1) Does it make sense to read the SOAP Message from a class or a file into xcode?? or sould I just define them thru the code ?? 2) I used SOAPUI & .NET to query the service. It works fine... but when I do it from the iphone simulator it returns the following: 2010-03-10 15:13:54.773 Hello_SOAP[91204:207] soap:ClientServer did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: http://WEBSERVER/DIRECTORY/Login How can I figure out what the issue is that's causing the said error on the simulator??

  Read the article

• Prevent two users from editing the same data

  - by Industrial

  Hi everyone, I have seen a feature in different web applications including Wordpress (not sure?) that warns a user if he/she opens an article/post/page/whatever from the database, while someone else is editing the same data simultaneously. I would like to implement the same feature in my own application and I have given this a bit of thought. Is the following example a good practice on how to do this? It goes a little something like this: 1) User A enters a the editing page for the mysterious article X. The database tableEvents is queried to make sure that no one else is editing the same page for the moment, which no one is by then. A token is then randomly being generated and is inserted into a database table called Events. 1) User B also want's to make updates to the article X. Now since our User A already is editing the article, the Events table is queried and looks like this: | timestamp | owner | Origin | token | ------------------------------------------------------------ | 1273226321 | User A | article-x | uniqueid## | 2) The timestamp is being checked. If it's valid and less than say 100 seconds old, a message appears and the user cannot make any changes to the requested article X: Warning: User A is currently working with this article. In the meantime, editing cannot be done. Please do something else with your life. 3) If User A decides to go on and save his changes, the token is posted along with all other data to update the database, and toggles a query to delete the row with token uniqueid##. If he decides to do something else instead of committing his changes, the article X will still be available for editing in 100 seconds for User B Let me know what you think about this approach! Wish everyone a great weekend!

  Read the article

• Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

  - by user193655

  I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

  Read the article

• how to split a very large database on sql server

  - by ken jackson

  I have a 90 GB SQL Server database that I want to make more manageable. It stores stock data from 50+ different stocks from 2009 and 2010, and each stock is a separate table. Some tables have hundreds of millions of rows, and other have just a few million. What I want to do is somehow split the database, so that I don't have a single database file that is 90 GB. What I want is to be able to somehow magically split all the tables so that I can backup the 2009 data once and not have to keep on including it in the backup every time I backup the entire database, however, I would like the 2009 data to be included whenever I do a query. Is partitioning the database the way to go? Will it do the above for me, or will I need some other solution? I research partitioning, but I wasn't sure if that would solve all my problems. I wasn't able to find anything that would tell me whether or not it would migrate prexisting data, or whether it only worked for newly inserted data. Any help or pointers would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance, Ken

  Read the article

• Using application roles with DataReader

  - by Shahar

  I have an application that should use an application role from the database. I'm trying to make this work with queries that are actually run using Subsonic (2). To do this, I created my own DataProvider, which inherits from Subsonic's SqlDataProvider. It overrides the CreateConnection function, and calls sp_appsetrole to set the application role after the connection is created. This part works fine, and I'm able to get data using the application role. The problem comes when I try to unset the application role. I couldn't find any place in the code where my provider is called after the query is done, so I tried to add my own, by changing SubSonic code. The problem is that Subsonic uses a data reader. It loads data from the data reader, and then closes it. If I unset the application role before the data reader is closed, I get an error saying: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. If I unset the application role after the data reader is closed, I get an error saying ExecuteNonQuery requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is closed. I can't seem to find a way to close the data reader without closing the connection.

  Read the article

• How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

  - by froadie

  I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

  Read the article

• Pls help working with Dropdownlist in scroll window.

  - by Rahul

  Hi all, Data is stored in the database table with the field document type and document id. And displayed in the scrollwindow, scrollwindow is editable. Data displayed like this: In scrollwindow dropdown items are quote, order, invoice etc. And suppose for Quote type document id is QTE100, and for order is ORD100 etc. In this format data is displayed in the scrollwindow. Here my query is at run time when user change the document type say for Quote to Order warning message should display like “This range is not valid”. And since the scrollwindow editable when user select any new document type from dropdown list system should allow to add that new document type and should not display any message. Pls somebody help me how can I achieve this???pls………pls…......pls For this I have written this code in dropdown document change event. Document Type Site_Scroll Document Type_CHG: warning "The range entered isn't valid."; clear window 'Document Type Site_Scroll'; fill window 'Document Type Site_Scroll' table sop_site_line_temp; But whenever I am changing any document from existing one getting the warning message like “This range is not valid” this is expected, but after changing when the window is filled again by temp table focus is setting to document type dropdown list. One more thing whenever I am going to select any new document type from document type I am getting the same warning message which is not expected, system should allow user to select new document type without giving any warning message. Pls….somebody give me some idea or pls modify my code….

  Read the article

• SQL Server Collation / ADO.NET DataTable.Locale with different languages

  - by Turro

  Hi all, we have WinForms app which stores data in SQL Server (2000, we are working on porting it in 2008) through ADO.NET (1.1, working on porting to 4.0). Everything works fine if I read data previsouly written in Western-European locale (E.g.: "test", "test ù"), but now we have to be able to mix Western and non-Western alphabets as well (E.g.: "test - ???" - these are just random arabic chars). On the SQL Server side, database has been set with the Latin1_General collation, the field is a nvarchar(80). If I run a SQL SELECT statement (E.g.: "SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE field = 'test - ???'", don't mind about the "*" or the actual names) from Query Analyzer, I get no results; the same happens if I pass the Sql statement to an ADO.NET DataAdapter to fill a DataTable. My guess is that it has something to do with collation, but I don't know how to correct this: do I have to change to collation (SQL Server) to a different one? Or do I have to set the locale on the DataAdaoter/DataTable (ADO.NET)? Thanks in advance to anyone who will help

  Read the article

• pass other form elements to ajax suggestion box script

  - by Alex Calder

  I paid somebody to build me a jQuery AJAX suggestion box script a while back. It works great. Now I'm trying to learn about it enough to modify it to do something different. Right now, the script that generates the suggestions just takes the query text and does the same check every time. Now, I want to be able to pass along additional info so different things are looked for with each instance of a search box. The HTML... simple, obvious. input class="suggest" name="q" type="text" autocomplete="off" / The jQuery looks like this: jQuery(document).ready(function() { $('.suggest').autocomplete( { source:'output.php', minLength:3, focus: function (event, ui) { $(event.target).val(ui.item.label); return false; } } ); [snip] } Instead of: source:'output.php', minLength:3, I'd like: source:'output.php?arg1=blah1&arg2=blah2', minLength:3, where arg1 and arg2 are passed along in the form... input class="suggest" name="q" type="text" autocomplete="off" / input type="hidden" name="arg1" value="blah1" input type="hidden" name="arg2" value="blah2" Does this make sense? Thanks guys. I know just about "this much" about OOL's and javascript, so I'm learning... Alex

  Read the article

• Postgres error with Sinatra/Haml/DataMapper on Heroku

  - by sevennineteen

  I'm trying to move a simple Sinatra app over to Heroku. Migration of the Ruby app code and existing MySQL database using Taps went smoothly, but I'm getting the following Postgres error: PostgresError - ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...d_at", "post_id" FROM "comments" WHERE ("post_id" IN (4, 17,... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. It's evident that the problem is related to a type mismatch in the query, but this is being issued from a Haml template by the DataMapper ORM at a very high level of abstraction, so I'm not sure how I'd go about controlling this... Specifically, this seems to be throwing up on a call of p.comments from my Haml template, where p represents a given post. The Datamapper models are related as follows: class Post property :id, Serial ... has n, :comments end class Comment property :id, Serial ... belongs_to :post end This works fine on my local and current hosted environment using MySQL, but Postgres is clearly more strict. There must be hundreds of Datamapper & Haml apps running on Postgres DBs, and this model relationship is super-conventional, so hopefully someone has seen (and determined how to fix) this. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How can I automatically generate sql update scripts when some data is updated ?

  - by Brann

  I'd like to automatically generate an update script each time a value is modified in my database. In other words, if a stored procedure, or a query, or whatever updates column a with value b in table c (which as a pk column (i,j...k), I want to generate this : update c set a=b where i=... and j=... and k=... and store it somewhere (for example as a raw string in a table). To complicate things, I want the script to be generated only if the update has been made by a specific user. Good news is that I've got a primary key defined for all my tables. I can see how to do this using a trigger, but I would need to generate specific triggers for each table, and to update them each and every-time my schema changes. I guess there are some built-in ways to do this as SQL server sometimes need to store this kind of things (while using transactional replication for example), but couldn't find anything so far ... any ideas ? I'm also interested in ways to automatically generate triggers (probably using triggers - meta triggers, huh? - since I will need to update triggers automatically when the schema change)

  Read the article

• MySQL 1064 error, works in command line and phpMyAdmin; not in app

  - by hundleyj

  Here is my query: select * from (select *, 3956 * 2 * ASIN(SQRT(POWER(SIN(RADIANS(45.5200077 - lat)/ 2), 2) + COS(RADIANS(45.5200077)) * COS(RADIANS(lat)) * POWER(SIN(RADIANS(-122.6942014 - lng)/2),2))) AS distance from stops order by distance, route asc) as p group by route, dir order by distance asc limit 10 This works fine at the command line and in PHPMyAdmin. I'm using Dbslayer to connect to MySQL via my JavaScript backend, and the request is returning a 1064 error. Here is the encoded DBSlayer request string: http://localhost:9090/db?{%22SQL%22:%22select%20*%20from%20%28select%20*,%203956%20*%202%20*%20ASIN%28SQRT%28POWER%28SIN%28RADIANS%2845.5200077%20-%20lat%29/%202%29,%202%29%20+%20COS%28RADIANS%2845.5200077%29%29%20*%20COS%28RADIANS%28lat%29%29%20*%20POWER%28SIN%28RADIANS%28-122.6942014%20-%20lng%29/2%29,2%29%29%29%20AS%20distance%20from%20%60stops%60%20order%20by%20%60distance%60,%20%60route%60%20asc%29%20as%20p%20group%20by%20%60route%60,%20%60dir%60%20order%20by%20%60distance%60%20asc%20limit%2010%22} And the response: {"MYSQL_ERRNO" : 1064 , "MYSQL_ERROR" : "You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '(RADIANS(45.5200077)) * COS(RADIANS(lat)) * POWER(SIN(RADIANS(-122.6942014 - lng' at line 1" , "SERVER" : "trimet"} Thanks!

  Read the article

• Who to select value from DropDown list in PHP???Problem

  - by sandy

  Hello .. I want to know the error in this code The following code retrieves the names of the members of the database query in the dropdownlist But how do I know who you selected.... I want to send messages only to the members that selected form dropdown list <?php include ("connect.php"); $name = $_POST['sector_list']; echo $name ; ?> <form method="POST" action="" > <input type="hidden" name="sector" value="sector_list"> <select name="sector_list" class="inputstandard"> <option size ="40" value="default">send to </option> <?php $result = mysql_query('select * from members ') or die (mysql_error()); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo '<option size ="40" value=" '. $row['MemberID'] . '" name="' . $row['MemberName']. '">' . $row['MemberName']. '</option>'; } ?> </select> </form> I hope somebody can help me

  Read the article

• Custom Detail in Linq-to-SQL Master-Detail DataGridViews

  - by Andres

  Hi, looking for a way to create Linq-to-SQL Master-Detail WinForms DataGridViews where the Detail part of the Linq query is a custom one. Can do fine this: DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(".\\SQLExpress"); var myQuery = from o in db.Orders select o; dataGridView1.DataSource = new BindingSource() { DataSource = myQuery }; dataGridView2.DataSource = new BindingSource() { DataSource = dataGridView1.DataSource, DataMember = "OrderDetails" }; but I'd like to have the Detail part under my precise control, like var myQuery = from o in db.Orders join od in db.OrderDetails on o.ID equals od.OrderID into MyOwnSubQuery select o; and use it for the second grid: dataGridView2.DataSource = new BindingSource() { DataSource = dataGridView1.DataSource, DataMember = "MyOwnSubQuery" // not working... }; the real reason I want it is a bit more complex (I'd like to have the Detail part to be some not-pre-defined join actually), but I'm hoping the above conveyed the idea. Can I only have the Detail part as a plain sub-table coming out of the pre-defined relation or can I do more complex stuff with the Detail part? Does anyone else feel this is kind of limited (if the first example is the best we can do)? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Switching languajes on a website with PHP

  - by jnkrois

  Hello everybody, I'm just looking for some advice. I'm creating a website that offers (at least) 2 languages. The way I'm setting it up is by using XML files for the language, PHP to retrieve the values in the XML nodes. Say you have any XML file, being loaded as follows: <?php $lang = "en"; $xmlFile = simplexml_load_file("$lang/main.xml"); ?> Once the file contents are available, I just output each node into an HTML tag like so: <li><?php echo $xmlFile->navigation->home; ?></li> which in turn is equal to : <li><a href="#">Home</a></li> as a nav bar link. Now, the way in which I'm switching languages is by changing the value of the "$lang" variable, through a "$_POST", like so: if(isset($_POST['es'])){ $lang = "es"; }elseif(isset($_POST['en'])){ $lang = "en"; } The value of the "$lang" variable is reset and the new file is loaded, loading as well all the new nodes from the new XML file, hence changing the language. I'm just wondering if there is another way to reset the "$lang" variable using something else, other than "$_POST" or "$_GET". I don't want to use query string either. I know I could use JavaScript or jQuery to achieve this, but I'd like to make the site not too dependable on JavaScript. I'd appreciate any ideas or advice. Thanks

  Read the article

• KODO: how set up fetch plan for bidirectional relationships?

  - by BestPractices

  Running KODO 4.2 and having an issue inefficient queries being generated by KODO. This happens when fetching an object that contains a collection where that collection has a bidrectional relationship back to the first object. Class Classroom { List<Student> _students; } Class Student { Classroom _classroom; } If we create a fetch plan to get a list of Classrooms and their corresponding Students by setting up the following fetch plan: fetchPlan.addField(Classroom.class,”_students”); This will result in two queries (get the classrooms and then get all students that are in those classrooms), which is what we would expect. However, if we include the reference back to the classroom in our fetch plan in order for the _classroom field to get populated by doing fetchPlan.addField(Student.class, “_classroom”), this will result in X number of additional queries where X is the number of students in each classroom. Can anyone explain how to fix this? KODO already has the original Classroom objects at the point that it's executing the queries to retrieve the Classroom objects and set them in each Student object's _classroom field. So I would expect KODO to simply set those objects in the _classroom field on each Student object accordingly and not go back to the database. Once again, the documentation is sorely lacking with Kodo/JDO/OpenJPA but from what I've read it should be able to do this more efficiently. Note-- EAGER_FETCH.PARALLEL is turned on and I have tried this with caching (query and data caches) turned on and off and there is no difference in the resultant queries.

  Read the article

• Redirecting users after destroy

  - by mathee

  I have 3 models: Questions, Answers, and Profiles (I know, it should be called "Users"). When you view a question Q, I query the database for the answers to Q. (They are linked by id.) In the view, the current user has the option to delete his answer by clicking on the destroy link displayed next to his answer: %table %tr %td Answers: - @answers.each do |a| %tr %td - @provider = Profile.find(a.provider) %i #{h @provider.username} said: %br #{h a.description} %td = link_to 'View full answer', a %td - if a.provider == @profile.id #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete} The problem is that when the user clicks on the destroy link, it redirects to the /answers/index. I want it to redirect to /questions/Q. What's the best way to do this? I know that there's a redirect_to method, but I don't know how to implement it when I want to redirect to an action for a different controller. It also needs to remember the question from which the answer is being deleted. I tried passing something like :question_id in link_to as: #{link_to 'Delete my answer', a, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :question_id => @question.id, :method => :delete} In AnswersController#destroy: def destroy @answer = Answer.find(params[:id]) @answer.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to(answers_url) } format.xml { head :ok } end @question = Question.find(params[:question_id]) redirect_to question_path(@question) end The :question_id information is not passed to the destroy method, so I get this error: Couldn't find Question without an ID To confirm, I added a puts call before Question.find, and it returned nil.

  Read the article

• Getting the name of a child class in the parent class (static context)

  - by Benoit Myard

  Hi everybody, I'm building an ORM library with reuse and simplicity in mind; everything goes fine except that I got stuck by a stupid inheritance limitation. Please consider the code below: class BaseModel { /* * Return an instance of a Model from the database. */ static public function get (/* varargs */) { // 1. Notice we want an instance of User $class = get_class(parent); // value: bool(false) $class = get_class(self); // value: bool(false) $class = get_class(); // value: string(9) "BaseModel" $class = __CLASS__; // value: string(9) "BaseModel" // 2. Query the database with id $row = get_row_from_db_as_array(func_get_args()); // 3. Return the filled instance $obj = new $class(); $obj->data = $row; return $obj; } } class User extends BaseModel { protected $table = 'users'; protected $fields = array('id', 'name'); protected $primary_keys = array('id'); } class Section extends BaseModel { // [...] } $my_user = User::get(3); $my_user->name = 'Jean'; $other_user = User::get(24); $other_user->name = 'Paul'; $my_user->save(); $other_user->save(); $my_section = Section::get('apropos'); $my_section->delete(); Obviously, this is not the behavior I was expecting (although the actual behavior also makes sense).. So my question is if you guys know of a mean to get, in the parent class, the name of child class.

  Read the article

• AJAX contact form in CodeIgniter

  - by Ross

  Few questions: I'm using CI and JQuery AJAX. In my code below, I assemble dataString, which by default, is appended to the URL as a query string. I've changed the AJAX "type" to POST, so my question is - how do I access dataString in my CI app? It would seem I still have to use $name=$this->input->post('name') Which to me, makes setting dataString redundant? -- I've tried searching but can't really find anything concrete. Would it be possible to still make use of CIs validation library and AJAX? if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { // what can i return so that my CI app shows errors? } Normally you would reload the contact form or redirect the user. In an ideal world I would like the error messages to be shown to the user. Jquery: $(document).ready(function($){ $("#submit_btn").click(function(){ var name = $("input#name").val(); var company = $("input#company").val(); var email = $("input#email").val(); var phone = $("input#phone").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); var dataString = 'name=' + name + '&message=' + message + '&return_email=' + email + '&return_phone=' + phone + '&company=' + company; var response = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "newsite/contact_ajax/", data: dataString }).responseText; //$('#contact').hide(); //$('#contact').html('<h5>Form submitted! Thank you!</h5><h4>We will be in touch with you soon.</h4>'); //$('#contact').fadeIn('slow'); return false; }); }); hope i've been clear enough - if anyone has a decent example of a CI contact form that would be great. there's mixed stuff on the internet but nothing that hits all the boxes. thanks

  Read the article

• Unexpected $end in PHP file

  - by mattbd

  I'm working on a PHP contact form, but I can't get it to work. I get the following error in the Apache server log, running on an Ubuntu Server VM: PHP Parse error: syntax error, unexpected $end in /home/matthew/Sites/contactFormResponse.php on line 75, referer: http://192.168.1.4/contactForm.php From googling this error, it sounds like it's normally caused by either using the short PHP tag when the server's not set up to recognise them, or by having a block of code that isn't closed correctly. But as far as I can see that isn't the case here - as far as I can see it's all closed correctly. Here's the PHP code: <?php error_reporting(E_ALL); // Define variables to hold the name, email address and message, and import the information into the variables $name = $_POST['NameInput']; $email = $_POST['EmailAddress']; $telno = $_POST['ContactNumber']; $querytype = $_POST['QueryType']; $bookingstartdate = $_POST['BookingStartDay'] . $_POST['BookingStartMonth'] . $_POST['BookingStartYear']; $bookingenddate = $_POST['BookingEndDay'] . $_POST['BookingEndMonth'] . $_POST['BookingEndYear']; $message = $_POST['QueryText']; // Validate the inputs - send it if it's OK if(3 < strlen($name) && 3 < strlen($email)) { $email_message = <<< EMAIL Message from contact form at holidaychalet.co.uk Name: $name Email: $email Contact Number: $telno Query Type: $querytype Booking Start Date: $bookingstartdate Booking End Date: $bookingenddate The message: $message EMAIL; $headers = "cc:[email protected]\r\n"; if(mail('matthew@localhost','Contact form email', $email_message, $headers)) { echo "Thanks for completing the form! I'll be in touch shortly!"; } else { echo "Something went wrong - please use the back button and try again"; } } else { echo "You didn't complete the form fully enough! Please use go back using your web browser's back button"; } ?>

  Read the article

• Jquery and PHP rating function problem

  - by Sergio

  I know that I was already posted similar question but I just can't find the answer and figure it out how to solve this problem. I'm trying to customize Jquery Star Rating plugin (link text) but I do not know what to do to show the message based on response of PHP script. Jquery script successfully send rating data to PHP scripts that query the database and based on that echo message of proper or improper rating. What should I add to an existing JS code so I can get echo from PHP and base on that write a message on some DIV beside rating star? Jquery: $('#gal').rating('gl.php?gal_no=<?=$gal_no;?>&id=<?=$id;?>', {maxvalue:10,increment:.5, curvalue: <?=$cur;?>}); Simplified PHP code: $br=mysql_query("SELECT count(gal) as total FROM ...") if ... { echo '0'; } else echo '1'; } Jquery code successfully transmitted data to PHP script and when the PHP done with checking data echo the result ('1' or '0'). How can I get this PHP result back to Jquery and based on them write a message? Something like: if(data=="1") { $("#error").show("fast").html('not correct').css({'background-color':'#F5F5F5','border-color' : '#F69'}); }else{ $("#error").show("fast").html('correct').css({'background-color' : '#FFF','border-color' : '#3b5998'}); } If someone has an idea...I would appreciate it.

  Read the article

• Easily (as in WYSIWYG) customize the docbook output

  - by Sukima

  I've used DocBook in the past and I love the idea behind the separation of content from presentation. I am very comfortable editing XML directly. In my extensive search to find the best documenting solution for my needs I am always coming back to this one solution: DocBook - Build system (ant, make, etc.) - Output I have seen lots of information concerning the best WYSIWYG, XML, Text editors for writing DocBook including alternative markup languages like asciidoc. All these solutions focus on the creation of DocBook or the nightmare of the DocBook tool chain. No one ever addresses the Output side other then to say "Just use XSL" or "Custom scripts" When tasked to make a document or manual I don't want to worry about spending countless hours attempting to reprogram, customize, and modify the XSL, CSS, and shell scripts (i.e. O'Riely books). That is a very arduous task. My query: is there a tool that makes the customizing easier? And is there anything that could be similar to say Pages or Word in that the user creates a template and the tool chain does the rest? Attempting to do a visual task like pretty logos and fixing all the broken layouts that the default XSL comes up with (pagination is a mess) is very difficult from a text editor. Content is easy. Editing DocBook XSL was truly a nightmare when I did it in the past. I've searched and I find lots of info on XML editors but nothing on XSL editors. Or am I lacking a key understanding of the process. Thanks.

  Read the article

• ColdFusion 9 ORM - Securing an object at a low level...

  Hiya: I wonder if anybody has an idea on this... I'm looking at securing a low level object in my model (a "member" object) so by default only certain information can be accessed from it. Here's a possible approach (damn sexy if it would work!): 1) Add a property called "locked" - defaulting to "true" to the object itself. It appears that the only option to do this, and not tie it to a db table column, is to use the formula attribute that takes a query. So to default locked to TRUE I've got: <cfproperty name="locked" formula="select 1" /> 2) Then, I overwrite the existing set-ers and get-ers to use this: e.g. <cffunction name="getFullname" returnType="string"> <cfscript> if (this.getLocked()) { return this.getScreenName(); } else { return this.getFullname(); } </cfscript> </cffunction> 3) When i use it like this: <p> #oMember.getFullName()# </p> shows the ScreenName (great!) but... When I do this: <cfset oMember.setLocked(false)> <p> #oMember.getFullName()# </p> Just hangs!!! It appears that attempting to set a property that's been defined using "formula" is a no-no. Any ideas? Any other way we can have properties attached to an ORM object that are gettable and settable without them being present in the db? Ideas appreciated!

  Read the article

• wordpress extended_valid_elements for script tag?

  - by John

  Can someone tell me how to tell Wordpress' tinymce editor to NOT strip out script tags? I looked in wp-admin/includes/post.php and added 'extended_valid_elements'=>'script[charset|defer|language|src|type]', to the $initArray. When I do a view source on the CMS post editor, I see taht it does show up like so: <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ tinyMCEPreInit = { base : "http://dev.esolar.ca/wp-includes/js/tinymce", suffix : "", query : "ver=327-1235", mceInit : {mode:"specific_textareas", editor_selector:"theEditor", width:"100%", theme:"advanced", skin:"wp_theme", theme_advanced_buttons1:"bold,italic,strikethrough,|,bullist,numlist,blockquote,|,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright,|,link,unlink,wp_more,|,spellchecker,fullscreen,wp_adv", theme_advanced_buttons2:"formatselect,underline,justifyfull,forecolor,|,pastetext,pasteword,removeformat,|,charmap,|,outdent,indent,|,undo,redo,wp_help", theme_advanced_buttons3:"", theme_advanced_buttons4:"", language:"en", spellchecker_languages:"+English=en,Danish=da,Dutch=nl,Finnish=fi,French=fr,German=de,Italian=it,Polish=pl,Portuguese=pt,Spanish=es,Swedish=sv", theme_advanced_toolbar_location:"top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align:"left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location:"bottom", theme_advanced_resizing:"1", theme_advanced_resize_horizontal:"", dialog_type:"modal", relative_urls:"", remove_script_host:"", convert_urls:"", apply_source_formatting:"", remove_linebreaks:"1", gecko_spellcheck:"1", entities:"38,amp,60,lt,62,gt", accessibility_focus:"1", tabfocus_elements:"major-publishing-actions", media_strict:"", paste_remove_styles:"1", paste_remove_spans:"1", paste_strip_class_attributes:"all", wpeditimage_disable_captions:"", plugins:"safari,inlinepopups,spellchecker,paste,wordpress,media,fullscreen,wpeditimage,wpgallery,tabfocus"}, load_ext : function(url,lang){var sl=tinymce.ScriptLoader;sl.markDone(url+'/langs/'+lang+'.js');sl.markDone(url+'/langs/'+lang+'_dlg.js');} }; /* ]]> */ </script> But for some reason ,my editor still doesn't save <script> tags. What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Using complex where clause in NHibernate mapping layer

  - by JLevett

  I've used where clauses previously in the mapping layer to prevent certain records from ever getting into my application at the lowest level possible. (Mainly to prevent having to re-write lots of lines of code to filter out the unwanted records) These have been simple, one column queries, like so this.Where("Invisible = 0"); However a scenario has appeared which requires the use of an exists sql query. exists (select ep_.Id from [Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4 In the above case I would usually reference the parent table Event with a short name, i.e. event_.Id however as Nhibernate generates these short names dynamically it's impossible to know what it's going to be. So instead I tried using just Id, from above ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId When the code is run, because of the dynamic short names the EventPart table short name ep_ is has another short name prefixed to it, event0_.ep_ where event0_ refers to the parent table. This causes an SQL error because of the . in between event0_ and ep_ So in my EventMap I have the following this.Where("(exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart ep_ where Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4)"); but when it's generated it creates this select cast(count(*) as INT) as col_0_0_ from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].Event event0_ where (exists (select ep_.Id from [isnapshot.Warehouse].[dbo].EventPart event0_.ep_ where event0_.Id = ep_.EventId and ep_.DataType = 4) It has correctly added the event0_ to the Id Was the mapping layer where clause built to handle this and if so where am I going wrong?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646 647  | Next Page >