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  • ASP.NET MVC Creating a impersonated user.

    - by Malcolm
    Hi, I have a MVC app where I have a User class and the user can also impersonate another user(Admin users only). So I have this code below that authenticates the request and instantiates my version of a User class. It then tries to get the impersonated user from the Session object but Session is not available in this method in the global.asax. Hope this makes sense. How else could I do this? protected void Application_OnAuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { IMylesterService service = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(); if (Context.User != null) { if (Context.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { User user = service.GetUser(Context.User.Identity.Name); if (user == null) throw new ApplicationException("Context.user.Identity.name is not a recognized user"); User impersonatedUser = (User)this.Session["ImpersonatedUser"]; if (impersonatedUser == null) user.ImpersonatedUser = user; else user.ImpersonatedUser = impersonatedUser; System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal = Context.User = user; return; } } User guest = service.GetGuestUser(); guest.ImpersonatedUser = guest; System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal = Context.User = guest; }

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  • I need to implement C# deep copy constructors with inheritance. What patterns are there to choose fr

    - by Tony Lambert
    I wish to implement a deepcopy of my classes hierarchy in C# public Class ParentObj : ICloneable { protected int myA; public virtual Object Clone () { ParentObj newObj = new ParentObj(); newObj.myA = theObj.MyA; return newObj; } } public Class ChildObj : ParentObj { protected int myB; public override Object Clone ( ) { Parent newObj = this.base.Clone(); newObj.myB = theObj.MyB; return newObj; } } This will not work as when Cloning the Child only a parent is new-ed. In my code some classes have large hierarchies. What is the recommended way of doing this? Cloning everything at each level without calling the base class seems wrong? There must be some neat solutions to this problem, what are they? Can I thank everyone for their answers. It was really interesting to see some of the approaches. I think it would be good if someone gave an example of a reflection answer for completeness. +1 awaiting!

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  • Thread safe lazy contruction of a singleton in C++

    - by pauldoo
    Is there a way to implement a singleton object in C++ that is: Lazily constructed in a thread safe manner (two threads might simultaneously be the first user of the singleton - it should still only be constructed once). Doesn't rely on static variables being constructed beforehand (so the singleton object is itself safe to use during the construction of static variables). (I don't know my C++ well enough, but is it the case that integral and constant static variables are initialized before any code is executed (ie, even before static constructors are executed - their values may already be "initialized" in the program image)? If so - perhaps this can be exploited to implement a singleton mutex - which can in turn be used to guard the creation of the real singleton..) Excellent, it seems that I have a couple of good answers now (shame I can't mark 2 or 3 as being the answer). There appears to be two broad solutions: Use static initialisation (as opposed to dynamic initialisation) of a POD static varible, and implementing my own mutex with that using the builtin atomic instructions. This was the type of solution I was hinting at in my question, and I believe I knew already. Use some other library function like pthread_once or boost::call_once. These I certainly didn't know about - and am very grateful for the answers posted.

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  • Bi-directional view model syncing with "live" collections and properties (MVVM)

    - by Schneider
    I am getting my knickers in a twist recently about View Models (VM). Just like this guy I have come to the conclusion that the collections I need to expose on my VM typically contain a different type to the collections exposed on my business objects. Hence there must be a bi-directional mapping or transformation between these two types. (Just to complicate things, on my project this data is "Live" such that as soon as you change a property it gets transmitted to other computers) I can just about cope with that concept, using a framework like Truss, although I suspect there will be a nasty surprise somewhere within. Not only must objects be transformed but a synchronization between these two collections is required. (Just to complicate things I can think of cases where the VM collection might be a subset or union of business object collections, not simply a 1:1 synchronization). I can see how to do a one-way "live" sync, using a replicating ObservableCollection or something like CLINQ. The problem then becomes: What is the best way to create/delete items? Bi-directinal sync does not seem to be on the cards - I have found no such examples, and the only class that supports anything remotely like that is the ListCollectionView. Would bi-directional sync even be a sensible way to add back into the business object collection? All the samples I have seen never seem to tackle anything this "complex". So my question is: How do you solve this? Is there some technique to update the model collections from the VM? What is the best general approach to this?

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  • How to access a superclass's class attributes in Python?

    - by Brecht Machiels
    Have a look at the following code: class A(object): defaults = {'a': 1} def __getattr__(self, name): print('A.__getattr__') return self.get_default(name) @classmethod def get_default(cls, name): # some debug output print('A.get_default({}) - {}'.format(name, cls)) try: print(super(cls, cls).defaults) # as expected except AttributeError: #except for the base object class, of course pass # the actual function body try: return cls.defaults[name] except KeyError: return super(cls, cls).get_default(name) # infinite recursion #return cls.__mro__[1].get_default(name) # this works, though class B(A): defaults = {'b': 2} class C(B): defaults = {'c': 3} c = C() print('c.a =', c.a) I have a hierarchy of classes each with its own dictionary containing some default values. If an instance of a class doesn't have a particular attribute, a default value for it should be returned instead. If no default value for the attribute is contained in the current class's defaults dictionary, the superclass's defaults dictionary should be searched. I'm trying to implement this using the recursive class method get_default. The program gets stuck in an infinite recursion, unfortunately. My understanding of super() is obviously lacking. By accessing __mro__, I can get it to work properly though, but I'm not sure this is a proper solution. I have the feeling the answer is somewhere in this article, but I haven't been able to find it yet. Perhaps I need to resort to using a metaclass?

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  • Saving HttpResponse/Request to file system

    - by chrisjlong
    Here is my scenario. User fills out this large page which is dynamically created based off DB values. Those values can change. When the user fills out the page and hits submit we want to save a copy of the page as html on the server, this way if the text or wording changes, when they go back to view their posted information, it is historically accurate. So I basically need to do this protected void buttonSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //collect information into an object to save it in the db bool result = BusinessLogic.Save(myBusinessObject); if (result) //!!! Here is where I need to save this page as an html file on my servers IFS!!!! else //whatever Response.Redirect("~/SomeOtherPage.aspx"); } Any help is greatly apprciated. Also I CANNOT just request the data from the url because query string parameters are a big no no in this case. The key to pull the database info up (at its highest level) is all in session so I cant just request a url and save it. Thanks!

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  • Can the Singleton be replaced by Factory?

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone There are already quite some posts about the Singleton-Pattern around, but I would like to start another one on this topic since I would like to know if the Factory-Pattern would be the right approach to remove this "anti-pattern". In the past I used the singleton quite a lot, also did my fellow collegues since it is so easy to use. For example, the Eclipse IDE or better its workbench-model makes heavy usage of singletons as well. It was due to some posts about E4 (the next big Eclipse version) that made me start to rethink the singleton. The bottom line was that due to this singletons the dependecies in Eclipse 3.x are tightly coupled. Lets assume I want to get rid of all singletons completely and instead use factories. My thoughts were as follows: hide complexity less coupling I have control over how many instances are created (just store the reference I a private field of the factory) mock the factory for testing (with Dependency Injection) when it is behind an interface In some cases the factories can make more than one singleton obsolete (depending on business logic/component composition) Does this make sense? If not, please give good reasons for why you think so. An alternative solution is also appreciated. Thanks Marc

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  • How to select the first property with unknown name and first item from array in JSON

    - by Oscar Godson
    I actually have two questions, both are probably simple, but for some odd reason I cant figure it out... I've worked with JSON 100s of times before too! but here is the JSON in question: {"69256":{ "streaminfo":{ "stream_ID":"1025", "sourceowner_ID":"2", "sourceowner_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/sourceowner_avatar2.jpg", "sourceownertype_ID":"1", "stream_name":"Twitter", "streamtype":"Social media" "appsarray":[] }, "item":{ "headline":"Charboy", "main_image":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg", "summary":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner...", "nozzl_captured":"2010-05-12 23:02:12", "geoarray":[{ "state":"OR", "county":"Multnomah", "city":"Portland", "neighborhood":"Downtown", "zip":"97205", "street":"462 SW 11th Ave", "latitude":"45.5219", "longitude":"-122.682" }], "full_content":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.", "body_text":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.", "author_name":"Charboy", "author_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg", "fulltext_url":"http:\/\/twitter.com\/charboy\/statuses\/13889868936", "leftovers":{ "twitter_id":"tag:search.twitter.com,2005:13889868936", "date":"2010-05-13T02:59:59Z", "location":"iPhone: 45.521866,-122.682262" }, "wordarray":{ "0":"ate", "1":"tomato", "2":"avocado", "3":"dinner", "4":"tonight", "5":"tasty", "6":"foods", "7":"just", "8":"enjoyable", "9":"Charboy", "11":"Twitter", "13":"state:OR", "14":"county:Multnomah, OR", "15":"city:Portland, OR", "16":"neighborhood:Downtown", "17":"zip:97205" } } } } Question 1: How do I loop through each item (69256) when the number is random? e.g. item 1 is 123, item2 is 646? Like, for example, a normal JSON feed would have something like: {'item':{'blah':'lorem'},'item':{'blah':'ipsum'}} the JS would be like console.log(item.blah) to return lorem then ipsum in a loop How do I do it when i dont know the first item of the object? Question 2: How do I select items from the geoarray object? I tried: json.test.item.geoarray.latitude and json.test.item.geoarray['latitude']

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  • desing pattern for related inputs

    - by curiousMo
    My question is a design question : let's say i have a data entry web page with 4 drop down lists, each depending on the previous one, and a bunch of text boxes. country (ddl), state (ddl), city (ddl), boro (ddl), address (txtBox), zipcode(txtbox). and an object that represents a datarow with a value for each. naturally the country, state, city and boro values will be values of primary keys of some lookup tables. when the user chooses to edits that record, i would load it from database and load it into the page. the issue that I have is how to streamline loading the ddls. i have some code that would grab the object, look thru its values and move them to their corresponding input controls in one shot. but in this case i will have to load possible values of country, then assign values, then load values of state, then assign value ans so on. I guess i am looking for an elegant solution. i am using asp.net, but i think it is irrelevant to the question. i am looking more into a design pattern. thanks

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  • stuck with enable session state

    - by Shrewd Demon
    hi i have an application wherein i am accessing the Session object in the CommonCode.cs file that resides in the App_Code folder. But when the session object is accessed the application throws me an error: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. Now i have already enabled the session state property in the web.config file, here is my code from the web.config file: <pages enableSessionState="true" autoEventWireup="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> I dont understand why am i still getting that error !! please help ! thanks a lot.

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  • WCF JSON Service returns XML on Fault

    - by Anthony Johnston
    I am running a ServiceHost to test one of my services and all works fine until I throw a FaultException - bang I get XML not JSON my service contract - lovely /// <summary> /// <para>Get category by id</para> /// </summary> [OperationContract(AsyncPattern = true)] [FaultContract(typeof(CategoryNotFound))] [FaultContract(typeof(UnexpectedExceptionDetail))] IAsyncResult BeginCategoryById( CategoryByIdRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state); CategoryByIdResponse EndCategoryById(IAsyncResult result); Host Set-up - scrummy yum var host = new ServiceHost(serviceType, new Uri(serviceUrl)); host.AddServiceEndpoint( serviceContract, new WebHttpBinding(), "") .Behaviors.Add( new WebHttpBehavior { DefaultBodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, DefaultOutgoingResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, FaultExceptionEnabled = true }); host.Open(); Here's the call - oo belly ache var request = WebRequest.Create(serviceUrl + "/" + serviceName); request.Method = "POST"; request.ContentType = "application/json; charset=utf-8"; request.ContentLength = 0; try { // receive response using (var response = request.GetResponse()) { var responseStream = response.GetResponseStream(); // convert back into referenced object for verification var deserialiser = new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof (TResponseData)); return (TResponseData) deserialiser.ReadObject(responseStream); } } catch (WebException wex) { var response = wex.Response; using (var responseStream = response.GetResponseStream()) { // convert back into fault //var deserialiser = new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(FaultException<CategoryNotFound>)); //var fex = (FaultException<CategoryNotFound>)deserialiser.ReadObject(responseStream); var text = new StreamReader(responseStream).ReadToEnd(); var fex = new Exception(text, wex); Logger.Error(fex); throw fex; } } the text var contains the correct fault, but serialized as Xml What have I done wrong here?

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  • Subclassing NSArrayController in order to limit size of arrangedObjects

    - by Simone Manganelli
    I'm trying to limit the number of objects in an array controller, but I still want to be able to access the full array, if necessary. A simple solution I came up with was to subclass NSArrayController, and define a new method named "limitedArrangedObjects", that returns a limited number of objects from the real set of arranged objects. (I've seen http://stackoverflow.com/questions/694493/limiting-the-number-of-objects-in-nsarraycontroller , but that doesn't address my problem.) I want this property to be observable via bindings, so I set a dependency to arrangedObjects on it. Problem is, when arrangedObjects is updated, limitedArrangedObjects seems not to be observing the value change in arrangedObjects. I've hooked up an NSCollectionView to limitedArrangedObjects, and zero objects are being displayed. (If I bind it to arrangedObjects instead, all the objects show up as expected.) What's the problem? Here's the relevant code: @property (readonly) NSArray *limitedArrangedObjects; - (NSArray *)limitedArrangedObjects; { NSArray *arrangedObjects = [super arrangedObjects]; NSUInteger upperLimit = 10000; NSUInteger count = [arrangedObjects count]; if (count > upperLimit) count = upperLimit; arrayToReturn = [arrangedObjects subarrayWithRange:NSMakeRange(0, count)]; return arrayToReturn; } + (NSSet *)keyPathsForValuesAffectingValueForKey:(NSString *)key; { NSSet *keyPaths = [super keyPathsForValuesAffectingValueForKey:key]; if ([key isEqualToString:@"limitedArrangedObjects"]) { NSSet *affectingKeys = [NSSet setWithObjects:@"arrangedObjects",nil]; keyPaths = [keyPaths setByAddingObjectsFromSet:affectingKeys]; } return keyPaths; }

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  • Generate an ID via COM interop

    - by Erik van Brakel
    At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

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  • Getting "[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Incorrect syntax near 'Microsoft.'

    - by brohjoe
    Hi Experts, I'm getting an error, "[Microsoft][ODBC SQL Server Driver][SQL Server]Incorrect syntax near 'Microsoft.' Here is the code: Dim conn As ADODB.Connection Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim stSQL As String Public Sub loadData() 'This was set up using Microsoft ActiveX Data Components version 6.0. 'Create ADODB connection object, open connection and construct the connection string object which is the DSN name. Set conn = New ADODB.Connection conn.ConnectionString = "sql_server" conn.Open 'conn.Execute (strSQL) On Error GoTo ErrorHandler 'Open Excel and run query to export data to SQL Server. strSQL = "SELECT * INTO SalesOrders FROM OPENDATASOURCE(Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;" & _ "Data Source=C:\Workbook.xlsx;" & _ "Extended Properties=Excel 12.0; [Sales Orders])" conn.Execute (strSQL) 'Error handling. ErrorExit: 'Reclaim memory from the cntection objects Set rst = Nothing Set conn = Nothing Exit Sub ErrorHandler: MsgBox Err.Description, vbCritical Resume ErrorExit 'clean up and reclaim memory resources. conn.Close If CBool(cnt.State And adStateOpen) Then Set rst = Nothing Set conn = Nothing End If End Sub

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  • Index out of bounds exception while iterating through a List<string>.

    - by Sergio Tapia
    I have a List of the location of images on a folder. I have five pictureBoxes that emulate a coverflow type area for users to skim through the images of a given folder. I know that the error is fired because the first image in the collection is set to the first picturebox, then if I click on cycleLeft(), there is a negative number. How can I account for this? For example, if the first image in the List is already set to the farthest left and someone clicks flip left, have that first image put on the last position of the list. Any guidance? private void leftArrow_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cycleImagesLeft(); } private void rightArrow_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { cycleImagesRight(); } public void cycleImagesLeft() { //imageThree is the center image, that's why I use it as a frame of reference. int currentImage = pictures.IndexOf(imageThree.ImageLocation); imageOne.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 3]; imageTwo.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 2]; imageThree.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 1]; imageFour.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage]; imageFive.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 1]; } public void cycleImagesRight() { int currentImage = pictures.IndexOf(imageThree.ImageLocation); imageOne.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage - 1]; imageTwo.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage]; imageThree.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 1]; imageFour.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 2]; imageFive.ImageLocation = pictures[currentImage + 3]; }

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  • Ninject problem binding to constant value in MVC3 with a RavenDB session

    - by Jim
    I've seen a lot of different ways of configuring Ninject with ASP.NET MVC, but the implementation seems to change slightly with each release of the MVC framework. I'm trying to inject a RavenDB session into my repository. Here is what I have that's almost working. public class MvcApplication : NinjectHttpApplication { ... protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { base.OnApplicationStarted(); AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterGlobalFilters(GlobalFilters.Filters); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { return new StandardKernel(new MyNinjectModule()); } public static IDocumentSession CurrentSession { get { return (IDocumentSession)HttpContext.Current.Items[RavenSessionKey]; } } ... } public class MyNinjectModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<IUserRepository>().To<UserRepository>(); Bind<IDocumentSession>().ToConstant(MvcApplication.CurrentSession); } } When it tries to resolve IDocumentSession, I get the following error. Error activating IDocumentSession using binding from IDocumentSession to constant value Provider returned null. Activation path: 3) Injection of dependency IDocumentSession into parameter documentSession of constructor of type UserRepository Any ideas on how to make the IDocumentSession resolve?

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  • GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

    - by Ian Kelly
    I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

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  • Weird .net 4.0 exception when running unit tests

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I am receiving the following exception when trying to run my unit tests using .net 4.0 under VS2010 with moq 3.1. Attempt by security transparent method 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test.Specs_for_Core.When_using_base.Can_create_mapper()' to access security critical method 'Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.UnitTesting.Assert.IsNotNull(System.Object)' failed. Assembly 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is marked with the AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, and uses the level 2 security transparency model. Level 2 transparency causes all methods in AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers assemblies to become security transparent by default, which may be the cause of this exception. The test I am running is really straight forward and looks something like the following: [TestMethod] public void Can_create_mapper() { this.SetupTest(); var mockMapper = new Moq.Mock<IMapper>().Object; this._Resolver.Setup(x => x.Resolve<IMapper>()).Returns(mockMapper).Verifiable(); var testBaseDa = new TestBaseDa(); var result = testBaseDa.TestCreateMapper<IMapper>(); Assert.IsNotNull(result); //<<< THROWS EXCEPTION HERE Assert.AreSame(mockMapper, result); this._Resolver.Verify(); } I have no idea what this means and I have been looking around and have found very little on the topic. The closest reference I have found is this http://dotnetzip.codeplex.com/Thread/View.aspx?ThreadId=80274 but its not very clear on what they did to fix it... Anyone got any ideas?

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  • MVC: model of type Nullable<T>

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    I have a partial view that inherits from ViewUserControl<Guid?> - i.e. it's model is of type Nullable<Guid>. Very simple view, nothing special, but that's not the point. Somewhere else, I do Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", someGuid ), where someGuid is of type Nullable<Guid>. Everything's perfectly legal, should work OK, right? But here's the gotcha: the second argument of Html.RenderPartial is of type object, and therefore, Nullable<Guid> being a value type, it must be boxed. But nullable types are somehow special in the CLR, so that when you box one of those, you actually get either a boxed value of type T (Nullable's argument), or a null if the nullable didn't have a value to begin with. And that last case is actually interesting. Turns out, sometimes, I do have a situation when someGuid.HasValue == false. And in those cases, I effectively get a call Html.RenderPartial( "MyView", null ). And what does the HtmlHelper do when the model is null? Believe it or not, it just goes ahead and takes the parent view's model. Regardless of it's type. So, naturally, in those cases, I get an exception saying: "The model item passed into the dictionary is of type 'Parent.View.Model.Type', but this dictionary requires a model item of type 'System.Guid?'" So the question is: how do I make MVC correctly pass new Nullable<Guid> { HasValue = false } instead of trying to grab the parent's model? Note: I did consider wrapping my Guid? in an object of another type, specifically created for this occasion, but this seems completely ridiculous. Don't want to do that as long as there's another way. Note 2: now that I've wrote all this, I've realized that the question may be reduced to how to pass a null for model without ending up with parent's model?

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  • javascript pausing consistently. How do I find what is causing it to pause?

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a fairly ajax heavy site and I'm trying to tune the performance. I have a function that runs between 20 & 200 times, depending on the user. I'm outputting the time the function takes to execute via console.time in firefox. The function takes about 4-6ms to complete. The strange thing is that on my larger test with 200 or runs through that function, it runs through the first 31, then seems to pause for almost a second before completing the last 170 or so. However, that 'pause' doesn't show up in the console.time logs, and I'm not running any other functions, and the object that gets passed to the function looks the same as all other objects that get passed in. The function is called like this for (var s in thisGroup.events){ showEvent(thisGroup.events[s]) } so, I don't see how or why it would suddenly pause near the beginning. but only pause once and then continue through. The pause ALWAYS happens on the 31st time through the function. I've taken a close look at the 'thisGroup.events[s]' that it is being run through, and it looks like this for #31 "eventId":"5106", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"70","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" The event immediately after the pause, #32 looks like this "eventId":"5111", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"71","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"6:00 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"5", "durationTime":"5:00", "note":"", "desc":"event" another event that runs through no problem looks like this "eventId":"5113", "sid":"68", "gid":"29", "uid":"72","type":"event", "startDate":"2010-03-22","startTime":"4:30 PM","endDate":"2010-03-22","endTime":"11:00 PM","durationLength":"6.5", "durationTime":"6:30", "note":"", "desc":"event" From the console outputs, it doesn't appear as there is anything hanging or taking up time in the function itself, as the console.time for each event including #31,32 is 4ms. Another strange thing here is that the total time running the for loop across the entire object is coming out as 1014ms which is right for 200 events at 4-6ms each. Any suggestions on how to find this 'pause'? I find it very interesting that it is consistently happening between #31 & #32 only!

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  • How to download .exe file with progress bar - VB 2012

    - by user2839828
    I am trying to create an updater for my program which automatically download's the latest version of my program from the web. Now I want this process to be done using a progress bar (so when the download progress is at 50% the progress bar is half-way through). This is my code: Private Sub client_ProgressChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As DownloadProgressChangedEventArgs) Dim bytesIn As Double = Double.Parse(e.BytesReceived.ToString()) Dim totalBytes As Double = Double.Parse(e.TotalBytesToReceive.ToString()) Dim percentage As Double = bytesIn / totalBytes * 100 client.Value = Int32.Parse(Math.Truncate(percentage).ToString()) End Sub Private Sub Button1_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim url As String = "MY DOWNLOAD LINK" 'Download Dim client As WebClient = New WebClient AddHandler client.DownloadProgressChanged, AddressOf client_ProgressChanged AddHandler client.DownloadFileCompleted, AddressOf client_DownloadCompleted client.DownloadFileAsync(New Uri(url), "C:\Users\User\Desktop\BACKUP\TESTING\New folder\1.exe") End Sub End Class Now I know that the place where the file is saved has been inputed manually by me , but I will change that later. My problem currently is that the file is not being downloaded. However when I change the DownloadFileAsync method to DownloadFile , my program downloads the file. However with the DownloadFile method I will not be able to use the progress bar to track the download progress. Any help is much appreciated :-)

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  • NHibernate, legacy database, foreign keys that aren't

    - by Joe
    The project I'm working on has a legacy database with lots of information in it that's used to alter application behavior. Basically I'm stuck with something that I have to be super careful about changing. Onto my problem. In this database is a table and in this table is a column. This column contains integers and most of the pre-existing data have a value of zero for this column. The problem is that this column is in fact a foreign key reference to another entity, it was just never defined as such in the database schema. Now in my new code I defined my Fluent-NHibernate mapping to treat this column as a Reference so that I don't have to deal with entity id's directly in my code. This works fine until I come across an entity that has a value of 0 in this column. NHibernate thinks that a value of 0 is a valid reference. When my code tries to use that referenced object I get an ObjectNotFoundException as obviously there is no object in my database with an id of 0. How can I, either through mapping or some kind of convention (I'm using Fluent-nhibernate), get NHibernate to treat id's that are 0 the same as if it was NULL?

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  • jQuery error when aborting an ajax call only in Internet Explorer

    - by Rob Crowell
    When mousing over an image in a jcarousel, my site displays a popup whose contents are loaded via ajax. I'm doing what I thought was fairly straightforward; keeping a handle to the xhrRequest object, and aborting the existing one before making a new request. It works great in all browsers except IE, where I receive an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" Here's the code that is triggering it: function showPopup { // ... code snipped ... // cancel the existing xhr request if (showPopup.xhrRequest != null) { showPopup.xhrRequest.abort(); showPopup.xhrRequest = null; } showPopup.xhrRequest = $.ajax({url: url, type: "GET", success:function(data) { $("#popup-content").html(data); } }); // ... code snipped ... } showPopup.xhrRequest = null; Works great in Firefox and Chrome. I traced the error down to this bit of code in jquery.js inside the ajax function (line 5233 in my copy of jQuery): // Override the abort handler, if we can (IE doesn't allow it, but that's OK) // Opera doesn't fire onreadystatechange at all on abort try { var oldAbort = xhr.abort; xhr.abort = function() { if (xhr ) { oldAbort.call( xhr ); } onreadystatechange( "abort" ); } catch(e) { } The specific error occurs on the oldAbort.call( xhr ) line. Any ideas?

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  • Using multiple named outlets and a wrapper view with no content in Emberjs

    - by user1889776
    I'm trying to use multiple named outlets with Ember.js. Is my approach below correct? Markup: <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="application"> <div id="mainArea"> {{outlet main_area}} </div> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="home"> <ul id="sections"> {{outlet sections}} </ul> <ul id="categories"> {{outlet categories}} </ul> </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="sections"> {{#each section in controller}} <li><img {{bindAttr src="section.image"}}></li> {{/each}} </script> <script type="text/x-handlebars" data-template-name="categories"> {{#each category in controller}} <img {{bindAttr src="category.image"}}> {{/each}} </script>? JS Code: Here I set the content of the various controllers to data grabbed from a server and connect outlets with their corresponding views. Since the HomeController has no content, set its content to an empty object - a hack to get the rid of this error message: Uncaught Error: assertion failed: Cannot delegate set('categories' ) to the 'content' property of object proxy : its 'content' is undefined. App.Router = Ember.Router.extend({ enableLogging: false, root: Ember.Route.extend({ index: Ember.Route.extend({ route: '/', connectOutlets: function(router){ router.get('sectionsController').set('content',App.Section.find()); router.get('categoriesController').set('content', App.Category.find()); router.get('applicationController').connectOutlet('main_area', 'home'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('home', {}); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('categories', 'categories'); router.get('homeController').connectOutlet('sections', 'sections'); } }) }) });

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  • Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

    - by Ophidian
    I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

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