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  • Server 2012 - transparent SMB failover without shared discs, possible?

    - by TomTom
    here is the scenario - there is a small set (200gb around) of data that I HAVE to keep available. Those are basically shared VHD images that serve as master images for a lot of our VM's - they then run in differential discs off those. The whole set is "mostly read only". In more detail: A file that IS there and IS used will NEVER change. I may delete files (when absolutely not in use) and add new files, but a file that is there once gets read protection set and that it is until it is retired. Obviously, I need as much uptime as possible. SO FAR we run that by having this directory local on every Hyper-V server. Now I think moving this into our storage fabric. Due to the "it HAS to be there" I pretty much want a share nothing architecture. DFS would be perfect for this - a file never changes, so replication would work nicely. Folders could be replicated to a number of servers, all would reference them from there. Now, that hyper-V supports SMB that could be a good idea to isolate these on a number of servers - we try to move into a scenario where the storage is more centralized. Server 2012 supports always on shares, but it seems that this only works with a clustered disc behind. Is there any way around this for read only file stores? All documentation points to stuff like a shared JBOD - but that would leave me open for file system corruption. I really plan to go quite separately here, vertically - 2 servers, both with SSD only for this, both with their own 2000W separate USV, both with enough bandwidth to handle everything thrown at them (note to everyone tinking this is 10G - this would be SLOW and EXPENSIVE compared to a nice Infiniband backbone). The real crux is that this is an edge case obviously - as the files are read only once in use.

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  • WP7 databinding displays int but not string?

    - by user1794106
    Whenever I test my app.. it binds the data from Note class and displays it if it isn't a string. But for the string variables it wont bind. What am I doing wrong? Inside my main: <Grid x:Name="ContentPanel" Grid.Row="1" Margin="12,0,12,0"> <ListBox x:Name="Listbox" SelectionChanged="listbox_SelectionChanged" ItemsSource="{Binding}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Border Width="800" MinHeight="60"> <StackPanel> <TextBlock x:Name="Title" VerticalAlignment="Center" FontSize="{Binding TextSize}" Text="{Binding Name}"/> <TextBlock x:Name="Date" VerticalAlignment="Center" FontSize="{Binding TextSize}" Text="{Binding Modified}"/> </StackPanel> </Border> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> </Grid> </Grid> in code behind: protected override void OnNavigatedTo(System.Windows.Navigation.NavigationEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("enters onNav Main"); DataContext = null; DataContext = Settings.NotesList; Settings.CurrentNoteIndex = -1; Listbox.SelectedIndex = -1; if (Settings.NotesList != null) { if (Settings.NotesList.Count == 0) { Notes.Text = "No Notes"; } else { Notes.Text = ""; } } } and public static class Settings { public static ObservableCollection<Note> NotesList; static IsolatedStorageSettings settings; private static int currentNoteIndex; static Settings() { NotesList = new ObservableCollection<Note>(); settings = IsolatedStorageSettings.ApplicationSettings; MessageBox.Show("enters constructor settings"); } notes class: public class Note { public DateTimeOffset Modified { get; set; } public string Title { get; set; } public string Content { get; set; } public int TextSize { get; set; } public Note() { MessageBox.Show("enters Note Constructor"); Modified = DateTimeOffset.Now; Title = "test"; Content = "test"; TextSize = 32; } }

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  • Using MySQL variables in a query

    - by Jon Tackabury
    I am trying to use this MySQL query: SET @a:=0; UPDATE tbl SET sortId=@a:=@a+1 ORDER BY sortId; Unfortunately I get this error: "Parameter '@a' must be defined" Is it possible to batch commands into 1 query like this, or do I need to create a stored procedure for this?

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  • Post parameters to a frame of new window

    - by st.stoqnov
    I have to modify an existing web search page. There is a page, where all the search filters are (form with name "searchform"). When the search button is pressed, results are shown in new window. Because the search takes up to 30 seconds, and while searching the window stays blank, I have to add a label "Searching. Please wait..." at the new created window with the results. So the search window is created, and I set it's location to a frameset. First frame will show the label, and the second will show the results. But i can't manage to update the second frame with the results. Result windows is created as: var left = (screen.width/2) - 750/2; var top = (screen.height/2) - 600/2-100; var styleStr = 'toolbar=no,location=no,directories=no,status=no,menubar=no,scrollbars=yes,resizable=yes,copyhistory=yes,width=750,height=600,left='+left+',top='+top+',screenX='+left+',screenY='+top; var msgWindow = window.open('ex_search_frameset.php', 'results_exi', styleStr); msgWindow.focus(); Than the search is requested: f = document.searchform; f.action = 'ex_search_results.php'; f.target = msgWindow.document.res_frame; // here i can't figure out what the target must be // or how to post the params from "f" to the second frame "res_frame" f.submit(); Here is the frameset. <frameset rows="200,*" border="1" name="SearchFrame"> <frame name="wait_frame" src="ex_search_wait.php" target="right"> <frame name="res_frame" src="ex_search_results.php" target="_self"> </frameset> Any idea how to do this?

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  • XML digital signature interface

    - by yeekang
    I am trying to call a WebService and it requires me to prepare an XML digital signature interface. I came across this website and it shows how to sign an XML document. My problem now is that I do not create the XML document myself. My code is as follows: string myResult; GenericWS.ServicesService a = new GenericWS.ServicesService(); GenericWS.Service2 b = new GenericWS.Service2(); b.Something = "3"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile("C:\\somepath\\somecert.cer"); a.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = delegate (object s, X509Certificate certificate, X509Chain chain, SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; }; myResult= a.WSRequest(b).WSReturnValue.ToString(); Label1.Text = myResult; Basically, the WSRequest() will generate the body of the SOAP message. However, in order to sign the SOAP message, I need to pass in the XML file that needs to be signed. I tried to serialize the object and cast it as XML and pass it into the signature interface but I do not have another method that I can invoke to call the webmethod. Is there any other solution?

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  • Problem with making a simple JS XmlHttpRequest call

    - by recipriversexclusion
    I have to create a very simple client that makes GET and POST calls to our server and parses the returned XML. I am writing this in JavaScript, problem is I don't know how to program in JS (started to look into this just this morning)! As n initial test, I am trying to ping to the Twitter API, here's the function that gets called when user enters the URL http://api.twitter.com/1/users/lookup.xml and hits the submit button: function doRequest() { var req_url, req_type, body; req_url = document.getElementById('server_url').value; req_type = document.getElementById('request_type').value; alert("Connecting to url: " + req_url + " with HTTP method: " + req_type); req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.open(req_type, req_url, false, "username", "passwd");// synchronous conn req.onreadystatechange=function() { if (req.readyState == 4) { alert(req.status); } } req.send(null); } When I run this on FF, I get a Access to restricted URI denied" code: "1012 error on Firebug. Stuff I googled suggested that this was a FF-specific problem so I switched to Chrome. Over there, the second alert comes up, but displays 0 as HTTP status code, which I found weird. Can anyone spot what the problem is? People say this stuff is easier to use with JQuery but learning that on top of JS syntax is a bit too much now.

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  • Perl Regular Expression [] for <>

    - by bmucklow
    So I am trying to read an XML file into a string in Perl and send it as part of a SOAP message. I know this is not ideal as there are methods for SOAP sending files, however, I am limited to having to use the SOAP that is set up, and it is not set up for sending with file support. Therefore I need to parse out the markup tags < and replace them with []. What is the best way to do this?

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  • Xml Conversion "Type mismatch" Error

    - by prema
    I am selecting a query in sql server 2005 SELECT 'Region' AS ELEMENT,(SELECT GeographyName,GeoID from @tmpTable FOR XML RAW, TYPE) FOR XML RAW('Root') This will give the output in xml as <Root ELEMENT="Region"> <row GeographyName="East" GeoID="2" /> <row GeographyName="West" GeoID="3" /> <row GeographyName="North" GeoID="4" /> <row GeographyName="South" GeoID="5" /> </Root> In aspx page, i want to get this function Populatedata(obj, val) { var xmlDom = new JXmlDom(obj, false); --> at this point i am getting error var nodeHeader = xmlDom.selectNodes("//row"); // my code goes here } function JXmlDom (xml,isFile) { this.load=load; this.loadXML=loadXML; this.selectNodes=selectNodes; this.text=text; this.selectSingleNode=selectSingleNode; this.documentElement=documentElement; this.transformNode=transformNode; if (isFile) { this.dom=this.load (xml); }else { this.dom=this.loadXML (xml); } function loadXML (xml) { if (window.ActiveXObject) { var dom=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLDOm"); dom.async=false; dom.loadXML (xml); } if (document.implementation && document.implementation.createDocument) { var domParser=new DOMParser(); var dom=domParser.parseFromString (xml,"text/xml"); } return dom; } But when i am calling this i am getting an error as Type mismatch.Can anyone help me

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  • XPath and XML: Multiple namespaces

    - by emragins
    So I have a document that looks like <a xmlns="uri1" xmlns:pre2="uri2"> <b xmlns:pre3="uri3"> <pre3:c> <stuff></stuff> <goes></goes> <here></here> </pre3:c> <pre3:d xmlns="uri4"> <under></under> <the></the> <tree></tree> </pre3:d> </b> </a> I want an xpath expression that will get me <under>. This has a namespaceURI of uri4. Right now my expression looks like: //ns:a/ns:b/pre3:d/pre4:under I have the namespace manager add 'ns' for the default namespace (uri1 in this case) and I have it defined with pre2, pre3, and pre4 for uri2, uri3, and uri4 respectively. I get the error "Expression must evaluate to a node-set." I know that the node exists. I know that everything up until the pre4:under in my xpath works fine as I use it in the rest of the document with no issues. It's the additional pre4:under that causes the error, and I'm not sure why. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Alert and if changes behaviour dom copying

    - by lowkey
    Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance!

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  • Asterisk with new functions

    - by MhdAboAhmad
    hi all , please need help for an asterisk I created a write func odbc list records files in sql table: [R] dsn=connector write=INSERT INTO ast_records (filename,caller,callee,dtime) VALUES ('${ARG1}','${ARG2}','${ARG3}','${ARG4}') prefix=M and set it in dialplan : exten = _0X.,n,Set( M_R(${MIXMONITOR_FILENAME}\,${CUSER}\,${EXTEN}\,${DTIME})= ) when I excute it I get an error : ast_func_write: M_R Function not registered:

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  • Wildcard subdomain setup ... want to change host IP throws off client A records... what to do...

    - by Joe
    Here is the current set up (in a nutshell). The site is set up with a wildcard subdomain, so *.website.com is accessible. Clients can then domain map their own domains with an A record to the server IP address and it will translate the to appropriate *.website.com with re directions and env variables in htaccess. Everything is working perfect... but now comes the problem. The site has grown larger than a single DQC Xeon server can handle at peak times. Looking at cloud options seems tempting, but clients are pointing their domains to a single IP address with the A record (our server). Now, this was probably bad planing from the start, but the question is, if this was to be done today, how would we set it up so that clients use a CNAME perhaps to point their domains to our server rather than an A record. And, if that is not possible for the root domain, how can we then use multiple IP addresses on our side to translate the incoming http request? Complex enough? Hope I've explained it well!

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  • RegEx expression or jQuery selector to NOT match "external" links in href

    - by TrueBlueAussie
    I have a jQuery plugin that overrides link behavior, to allow Ajax loading of page content. Simple enough with a delegated event like $(document).on('click','a', function(){});. but I only want it to apply to links that are not like these ones (Ajax loading is not applicable to them, so links like these need to behave normally): target="_blank" // New browser window href="#..." // Bookmark link (page is already loaded). href="afs://..." // AFS file access. href="cid://..." // Content identifiers for MIME body part. href="file://..." // Specifies the address of a file from the locally accessible drive. href="ftp://..." // Uses Internet File Transfer Protocol (FTP) to retrieve a file. href="http://..." // The most commonly used access method. href="https://..." // Provide some level of security of transmission href="mailto://..." // Opens an email program. href="mid://..." // The message identifier for email. href="news://..." // Usenet newsgroup. href="x-exec://..." // Executable program. href="http://AnythingNotHere.com" // External links Sample code: $(document).on('click', 'a:not([target="_blank"])', function(){ var $this = $(this); if ('some additional check of href'){ // Do ajax load and stop default behaviour return false; } // allow link to work normally }); Q: Is there a way to easily detect all "local links" that would only navigate within the current website? excluding all the variations mentioned above. Note: This is for an MVC 5 Razor website, so absolute site URLs are unlikely to occur.

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  • Timeperiod Setting

    - by Alvin G. Matunog
    I am running Nagios 3.2.3 on CentOS 5.7 32bit and I have a bit of a problem scheduling timeperiods. Please help me. Objective, to stop monitoring during server restart (since the server will be restarted and will be restarted automatically because of updates and system backup). The restart is scheduled every 1st Sunday of every month. My monitoring runs 24x7 but during restarts I want to stop the monitoring and resume after 30 mins. So every 1st Sunday I want my schedule to be 00:00-11:30,12:00-24:00. This means that it will stop at 11:30 and resumes on 12:00nn. If I set this on every Sunday there is no problem. But if I set this time on every 1st Sundays, it stops at 11:30 but resumes on the next day (Monday) and not on 12:00nn Sunday. I don't know what I am missing. If I set on regular weekdays there is no problem. But on Offset weekdays (1st Sunday) it doesn`t work the way it should have. Here is my definition; define timeperiod{ name 1st_sunday timeperiod_name 1st_sunday alias No monitoring every 1st Sunday thursday 1 00:00-11:30,12:00-24:00 } define timeperiod{ timeperiod_name irregular alias regular checking use 1st_sunday sunday 08:30-22:00 monday 08:30-22:00 tuesday 08:30-22:00 wednesday 08:30-22:00 thursday 08:30-19:10,19:20-22:00 friday 08:30-22:00 saturday 08:30-22:00 } Can anyone help me? Please? Thank you.

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  • Mysql Query - That Is Returning Blatanty Incorrect Result

    - by user866190
    I am building a VPS node that is running Ubuntu 10.10LTS, Apache2, Mysql 5.1 and php5. I could not log in to my website admin through the browser, even though I am using the correct login details. So I logged in from the command line to check the results. When I run this query I get expected results: mysql> select * from users; +----+----------+-----------------------+----------+ | id | username | email | password | +----+----------+-----------------------+----------+ | 1 | myUserName | [email protected] | myPassword | +----+----------+-----------------------+----------+ And the same goes for this query: mysql> select * from users where id = 1; +----+----------+-----------------------+----------+ | id | username | email | password | +----+----------+-----------------------+----------+ | 1 | myUserName | [email protected] | myPassword | +----+----------+-----------------------+----------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) But when I run this query I get this 'unexpected response': mysql> select * from users where username = 'myUserName' and password = 'myPassword'; Empty set (0.00 sec) I am not sure why this is happening. Any help would be greatly appreciated. BTW.. I will be encrypting the user details but for now I just want to get it set up. Please help, Thanks

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  • Slideshow in Javascript without framework, animation?

    - by aaron
    The issue I am having is fairly complicated to explain. I have written up a javascript that displays an image slideshow, and it works fairly well, despite using up more resources than I would like // imgArr[] is populated before var i = 0; var pageLoaded = 0; window.onload = function() {pageLoaded = 1;} function loaded(i,f) { if (document.getElementById(i) != null) f(); else if (!pageLoaded) setTimeout('loaded(\''+i+'\','+f+')',100); } } function displaySlideshow() { document.getElementById(destinationId).innerHTML = '<div id="slideWindow"><img src="'+imgArr[i]+'" />' + '<img src="'+imgArr[i + 1]+'" /></div>'; setTimeout('displaySlideshow()',1000*3); i++; if (i >= imgArr.length - 1) i = 0; } loaded(destinationId,displaySlideshow); So, this script dynamically adds two images to a HTML element, and it is wrapped in a div. The div is styled with the height and width of the image, with the overflow (the second image) hidden. The second image is below the first, and the slideshow is meant to go from RIGHT to LEFT. My inquiry is twofold: 1) Is there a more efficient way of doing this? 2) How would I animate the images? Would I need to put the second image on the right of the first with CSS somehow, and then set a timer to pull the images (via a style) leftward?

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  • controlling css with javascript works with mozilla but not with webkit based browsers

    - by GlassGhost
    Im having problems with applying css text variable in this javascript with webkit based browsers(Chrome & Safari) but it works in firefox 3.6 the function: function addGlobalStyle(sCss) { var head = document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; if( !head || head == null ) { return false; } var oStyle = document.createElement('style'); oStyle.type = 'text/css'; oStyle.rel = 'stylesheet'; oStyle.media = 'screen'; if ( is_gecko ) { // firefox WORKING !!! oStyle.href = 'FireFox.css'; oStyle.innerHTML = sCss; head.appendChild(oStyle); return true; } else {//nothing but firefox works oStyle.href = 'FireFox.css'; oStyle.innerHTML = sCss; head.appendChild(oStyle); return true; } } the use of the function: var NewSyleText = //The page styling "h1, h2, h3, h4, h5 {font-family: 'Verdana','Helvetica',sans-serif; font-style: normal; font-weight:normal;}" + "body, b {background: #fbfbfb; font-style: normal; font-family: 'Cochin','GaramondNo8','Garamond','Big Caslon','Georgia','Times',serif;font-size: 11pt;}" + "p { margin: 0pt; text-indent:2.5em; margin-top: 0.3em; }" + "a { text-decoration: none; color: Navy; background: none;}" + "a:visited { color: #500050;}" + "a:active { color: #faa700;}" + "a:hover { text-decoration: underline;}"; addGlobalStyle(NewSyleText);//inserts the page styling

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  • Issue with Usercontrol and Border Style

    - by Ram
    Hi, I have created a user control ( custom data grid view control). I have used the code specified at MSDN [site][1] [1]: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/316574 to set the border style . I am able to see the selected border style in designer. Like None, FixedSingle or Fixed3D. But when I set the border style to FixedSingle, the border does not appear at runtime. Do I need to draw it manually in the OnPaint method?

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  • jQuery code not executing when DOM is ready

    - by Ben
    I have written a simple jQuery script that changes the hash tag of a link. I do this because I am using IntenseDebate comments in Wordpress but the comment link still links replaced id of the old comments. I'm using jQuery so that if javascript is enabled, the user can click on the comments link and it will take them to the IntenseDebate comments. If its not enabled it will take them to the traditional comments (because IntenseDebate requires javascript to function). The issue I'm having lies in this script to change the hash tag at the end of the link. Currently the URL "someurl.com/#respond" but I need the script to change it to "someurl.com/#comments". What is happening is that the script doesn't work, however I believe my syntax is correct so I decided to try copying and pasting the code into Firebug's console and the code executed perfectly. I could see that the link I was trying to change was now correct, and I could click on it and it worked as I desired. So what I don't understand is why the code is not executing when it is supposed to. I am using $(document).ready() and I have other jQuery on the page that executes just fine. I even tested it on a simple HTML page away from all the problems that might be caused by Wordpress and I received the same result. Does anyone know why this might be happening? Here is my code (I am using noConflict because Wordpress makes use of other frameworks): jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("a[href$='respond']").each(function() { this.href = this.href.replace("respond", "comments"); }); })(jQuery); Thanks very much for your help!

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  • Hibernate Persistence problems with Bean Mapping (Dozer)

    - by BuffaloBuffalo
    I am using Hibernate 3, and having a particular issue when persisting a new Entity which has an association with an existing detached entity. Easiest way to explain this is via code samples. I have two entities, FooEntity and BarEntity, of which a BarEntity can be associated with many FooEntity: @Entity public class FooEntity implements Foo{ @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = BarEntity.class) @JoinColumn(name = "bar_id", referencedColumnName = "id") @Cascade(value={CascadeType.ALL}) private Bar bar; } @Entity public class BarEntity implements Bar{ @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "bar", targetEntity = FooEntity.class) private Set<Foo> foos; } Foo and Bar are interfaces that loosely define getters for the various fields. There are corresponding FooImpl and BarImpl classes that are essentially just the entity objects without the annotations. What I am trying to do is construct a new instance of FooImpl, and persist it after setting a number of fields. The new Foo instance will have its 'bar' member set to an existing Bar (runtime being a BarEntity) from the database (retrieved via session.get(..)). After the FooImpl has all of its properties set, Apache Dozer is used to map between the 'domain' object FooImpl and the Entity FooEntity. What Dozer is doing in the background is instantiating a new FooEntity and setting all of the matching fields. BarEntity is cloned as well via instantiation and set the FooEntity's 'bar' member. After this occurs, passing the new FooEntity object to persist. This throws the exception: org.hibernate.PersistentObjectException: detached entity passed to persist: com.company.entity.BarEntity Below is in code the steps that are occurring FooImpl foo = new FooImpl(); //returns at runtime a persistent BarEntity through session.get() Bar bar = BarService.getBar(1L); foo.setBar(bar); ... //This constructs a new instance of FooEntity, with a member 'bar' which itself is a new instance that is detached) FooEntity entityToPersist = dozerMapper.map(foo, FooEntity.class); ... session.persist(entityToPersist); I have been able to resolve this issue by either removing or changing the @Cascade annotation, but that limits future use for say adding a new Foo with a new Bar attached to it already. Is there some solution here I am missing? I would be surprised if this issue hasn't been solved somewhere before, either by altering how Dozer Maps the children of Foo or how Hibernate reacts to a detached Child Entity.

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  • PreparedStatement.setString() method without quotes

    - by Slavko
    I'm trying to use a PreparedStatement with code similar to this: SELECT * FROM ? WHERE name = ? Obviously, what happens when I use setString() to set the table and name field is this: SELECT * FROM 'my_table' WHERE name = 'whatever' and the query doesn't work. Is there a way to set the String without quotes so the line looks like this: SELECT * FROM my_table WHERE name = 'whatever' or should I just give it up and use the regular Statement instead (the arguments come from another part of the system, neither of those is entered by a user)?

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  • Two network adapters in one WindowsXP PC, how to make them work?

    - by Deele
    I have a need to set up network so I can use two ethernet cards inside one Windows (Windows XP SP2) based PC, one for internet connection, second, for internal LAN. How should I configure each NIC, with what IP's, subnet masks and gateways, so I can use inernet on my PC and get in touch with devices on my LAN? I have found that there are some sort of re routing nessesary inside my PC, but how does it work? I have already set up some configuration already, but I can't use it together with PC #1 NIC #1 connected. I need to disconnect, to access NIC WEB interface. Current configuration: Switch #1 and PC #1 NAS #2 are gigabit one's, so I could access NAS with gigabit speed. PC #1 NIC #1 IP XX.XXX.162.106 SN 255.255.255.248 GW XX.XXX.162.105 PC #1 NIC #2 IP 10.0.0.1 SN 255.255.0.0 GW 0.0.0.0 NAS #1 NIC #1 IP 10.0.0.12 SN 255.255.0.0 GW 0.0.0.0 My question is - what exact configuration should I do for every NIC in this LAN, so it would work? Is it possible to achieve internet access for Laptop, that is inside that NIC #2 LAN (should I just set up basic ICS)?

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  • What is the best WebControl to create this

    - by balexandre
    current output wanted output current code public partial class test : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) populateData(); } private void populateData() { List<temp> ls = new List<temp>(); ls.Add(new temp { a = "AAA", b = "aa", c = "a", dt = DateTime.Now }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "BBB", b = "bb", c = "b", dt = DateTime.Now }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "CCC", b = "cc", c = "c", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(1) }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "DDD", b = "dd", c = "d", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(1) }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "EEE", b = "ee", c = "e", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(2) }); ls.Add(new temp { a = "FFF", b = "ff", c = "f", dt = DateTime.Now.AddDays(2) }); TemplateField tc = (TemplateField)gv.Columns[0]; // <-- want to assign here just day gv.Columns.Add(tc); // <-- want to assign here just day + 1 gv.Columns.Add(tc); // <-- want to assign here just day + 2 gv.DataSource = ls; gv.DataBind(); } } public class temp { public temp() { } public string a { get; set; } public string b { get; set; } public string c { get; set; } public DateTime dt { get; set; } } and in HTML <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("a") %>' Font-Bold="true" /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("b") %>' Font-Italic="true" /><br /> <asp:Label ID="Label3" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("dt") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> What I'm trying to avoid is repeat code so I can only use one unique TemplateField I can accomplish this with 3 x GridView, one per each day, but I'm really trying to simplify code as the Grid will be exactly the same (as the HTML code goes), just the DataSource changes. Any help is greatly appreciated, Thank you.

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