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  • Versioning SharePoint binary Workflow ASPX task forms

    - by Janis Veinbergs
    Hello. As noted by some developers, workflow versioning is somekind of headache in SharePoint. I`m wondering is there a way I can version my aspx forms? For sure, i can version code behind assemblies, but if markup changes for any of my files in LAYOUTS folder? Is there versioning available for files or do i have to choose new filename for my form? Sorry, i should have been more specific. Yes, i have files under version control (i can restore previous versions etc), but i`m not talking about this kind of version control. But by deploying new Workflow Version, i must not delete old one, because it is still running on many items in SharePoint, but rather , as noted in previous links, deploy new one so i don't break execution of workflows. But workflows will still break if i don't preserve old aspx forms used by users to interact with workflows. So i must ensure that Assemblies with old version numbers used by old workflow exists (this one is ok, i just changed assembly version number and deployed to GAC) I must ensure that old workflow still uses old aspx form used users to interact with workflow, but new workflow version should use new aspx form with more options (how to do this?).

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  • Data sharing amongst JPA Entities

    - by Nick
    Setup: I have a simple web app that has a handfull of forms, each on a separate page. These forms represent patient data. There is a one-to-one relationship between patient and all these forms/entities. Each form maps directly to a db table and a JPA entity, maybe not the best architecture but it works and is simple. Question: If form/entity A and form/entity B share a common chunk of data (one of more fields), what is the best way to handle that in JPA. I.E. - If the data gets inserted via form A, I need it to show up in form B as existing data and vice versa. In other words its logical for both entities to contain that data. I believe I will have to move the common data into its own entity and define the relationships that way, but I have tried many different ways and none gets me all the way, at least with basic JPA. Can this be done through pure JPA relationships or will I have to write a bunch of code to make this happen manually. Not looking for code specifically, just the correct way to model this data. Thanks.

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  • Extract wrong data from a frame in C?

    - by ipkiss
    I am writing a program that reads the data from the serial port on Linux. The data are sent by another device with the following frame format: |start | Command | Data | CRC | End | |0x02 | 0x41 | (0-127 octets) | | 0x03| ---------------------------------------------------- The Data field contains 127 octets as shown and octet 1,2 contains one type of data; octet 3,4 contains another data. I need to get these data. Because in C, one byte can only holds one character and in the start field of the frame, it is 0x02 which means STX which is 3 characters. So, in order to test my program, On the sender side, I construct an array as the frame formatted above like: char frame[254]; frame[0] = 0x02; // starting field frame[1] = 0x41; // command field which is character 'A' ..so on.. And, then On the receiver side, I take out the fields like: char result[254]; // read data read(result); printf("command = %c", result[1]); // get the command field of the frame // get other field's values the command field value (result[1]) is not character 'A'. I think, this because the first field value of the frame is 0x02 (STX) occupying 3 first places in the array frame and leading to the wrong results on the receiver side. How can I correct the issue or am I doing something wrong at the sender side? Thanks all. related questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2500567/parse-and-read-data-frame-in-c http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2531779/clear-data-at-serial-port-in-linux-in-c

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  • jQuery - Not sure which method to use, closest() and parent() don't work.

    - by Nike
    Hello, again. :) God i feel like i'm spamming stackoverflow, this is my 3rd post for today. Sorry, heh. I even posted a question regarding this before, kind of, but i've changed the code a bit since so i thought it was better to post a new question. $('.pmlist ul li h4 .toggle').click(function() { $(this).closest('.meddel').toggle(250); }); That's what i've got now. The reason why the closest() method isn't working is because the div .meddel is just next to the h4 element. And closest() only crawls right up the DOM tree, ignoring other child elements. Right? parent() works almost the same and doesn't work either. And as i only want to toggle the closest .meddel div in the element, i need something that, yeah justs grabs the nearest one, and not all of them. To clear it up a bit, here's the HTML for one list item: <li class="item"> <h4><a class="toggle">ämne</a><small>2010-04-17 kl 12:54 by <u>nike1</u></small></h4> <div class="meddel"> <span> <img style="max-width: 70%; min-height: 70%;" src="profile-images/nike1.jpg" alt="" /> <a href="account.php?usr=47">nike1</a> </span> <p>text</p> </div> </li> I have several items like that, and if i click one toggle link, i just want the nearest .meddel to be toggled, as mentioned before. Thanks. -Nike

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  • Custom CheckBoxList in ASP.NET

    - by Rick
    Since ASP.NET's CheckBoxList control does not allow itself to be validated with one of the standard validation controls (i.e., RequiredFieldValidator), I would like to create a UserControl that I can use in my project whenever I need a checkbox list that requires one or more boxes to be checked. The standard CheckBoxList can be dragged onto a page, and then you can manually add <asp:ListItem> controls if you want. Is there any way I can create a UserControl that lets me manually (in the markup, not programmatically) insert ListItems from my page in a similar manner? In other words, can I insert a UserControl onto a page, and then from the Designer view of the Page (i.e., not the designer view of the UserControl), can I manually add my ListItems like so: <uc1:RequiredCheckBoxList> <asp:ListItem Text="A" value="B"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="X" value="Y"></asp:ListItem> </uc1:RequiredCheckBoxList> If a UserControl is not the appropriate choice for the end result I'm looking for, I'm open to other suggestions. Please note that I am aware of the CustomValidator control (which is how I plan to validate within my UserControl). It's just a pain to write the same basic code each time I need one of these required checkbox lists, which is why I want to create a re-usable control.

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  • Which knowledge base/rule-based inference engine to choose for real time Runway incursion prevention

    - by Piligrim
    Hello, we are designing a project that would listen to dialog between airport controllers and pilots to prevent runway incursions (eg. one airplane is taking off while other is crossing the runway). Our professor wants us to use Jena for knowledge base (or anything else but it should be some sort of rule-based engine). Inference is not the main thing in Jena and there's not much documentation and examples of this. So we need an engine that would get messages from pilots as input and output possible risks of incursion or any other error in message protocol. It should be easy to write rules, and should be easy to provide engine with real time data. I image it something like this: A pilot sends a message that he lands on some runway, the system remembers that the runway is busy and no one should cross it If someone is given an instruction to cross this runway, the engine should fire a rule that something is wrong When the pilot sends a message that he left the runway and goes to the gate, the system clears the runway and lets other planes to use it. So is Jena, or prolog or any other rules engine suitable for this? I mean it is suitable, but do we really need to use it? I asked the prof. if we could just keep state of the runway and use some simple checks based on messages we receive and he said that it is not scalable and we need the knowledge base. Can someone give me any advise on which approach to use for this system? If you recommend k.b., then which one should we use? The project is written in java. Thank you.

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  • CSS background image being downloaded more than once

    - by Nick Clarke
    I noticed in my current project that Firefox (3.5.4) downloads the background image (set in CSS) for my divs more than once. I've checked with both firebug and wireshark and it really does appear that it does not wait for the first request to finish and then simply use the cached version. Wireshark also confirms that Chrome and IE8 do as expected and only request the image once. Any ideas what might be causing this? Here is a small test: Sample Page or <html> <head> <style> #one { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #two { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #three { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } </style> </head> <body> <div id="one"></div> <div id="two"></div> <div id="three"></div> </body> EDIT I opened up a bug request as I could not find one already on bugzilla, but it turns out to be an old bug with 3.5. https://bugzilla.mozilla.org/show_bug.cgi?id=497665

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  • How to launch multiple Internet Explorer windows/tabs from batch file?

    - by TheZenker
    I would like a batch file to launch two separate programs then have the command line window close. Actually, to clarify, I am launching Internet Explorer with two different URLs. So far I have something like this: start "~\iexplore.exe" "url1" start "~\iexplore.exe" "url2" What I get is one instance of Internet Explorer with only the second URL loaded. Seems the second is replacing the second. I seem to remember a syntax where I would load a new command line window and pass the command to execute on load, but can't find the reference. As a second part of the question: what is a good reference URL to keep for the times you need to write a quick batch file? Edit: I have marked an answer, because it does work. I now have two windows open, one for each URL. (thanks!) The funny thing is that without the /d approach using my original syntax I get different results based on whether I have a pre-existing Internet Explorer instance open. If I do I get two new tabs added for my two URLs (sweet!) If not I get only one final tab for the second URL I passed in.

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  • Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

    - by KlasE
    Hi, We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions. In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request. The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance? This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment. We get the following stacktrace: "[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method) java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198) java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:269) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111) weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Any help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

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  • Namespaces combined with TFS / Source Control explanation

    - by Christian
    As an ISV company we slowly run into the "structure your code"-issue. We mainly develop using Visual Studio 2008 and 2010 RC. Languages c# and vb.net. We have our own Team Foundation Server and of course we use Source Control. When we started developing based on the .NET Framework, we also begun using Namespaces in a primitive way. With the time we 'became more mature', i mean we learned to use the namespaces and we structured the code more and more, but only in the solution scope. Now we have about 100 different projects and solutions in our Source Safe. We realized that many of our own classes are coded very redundant, i mean, a Write2Log, GetExtensionFromFilename or similar Function can be found between one and 20 times in all these projects and solutions. So my idea is: Creating one single kind of root folder in Source Control and start an own namespace-hierarchy-structure below this root, let's name it CompanyName. A Write2Log class would then be found in CompanyName.System.Logging. Whenever we create a new solution or project and we need a log function, we will 'namespace' that solution and place it accordingly somewhere below the CompanyName root folder. To have the logging functionality we then import (add) the existing project to the solution. Those 20+ projects/solutions with the write2log class can then be maintained in one single place. To my questions: - is that a good idea, the philosophy of namespaces and source control? - There must be a good book explaining the Namespaces combined with Source Control, yes? any hints/directions/tips? - how do you manage your 50+ projects?

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  • Project with multiple binaries in Eclipse CDT

    - by Robert Schneider
    I think it is quite normal to have more than one binary in a project. However, with Eclipse CDT I don't know how to set up the IDE to get things done. I know I can create several projects - one per binary. And I know I can set the dependencies per project. However, I cannot regard them as one project in Eclipse. If I'd like to share the code with a version control system (like svn), each developer has to import the projects separately. What I miss is something like the Solution (sln file) in Visual Studio. Should I create a single project and create the make files by myself? I haven't tried it out yet, but there is this 'project set' which can be ex- and imported. Is this the solution? Can this be put into version control? My goal it to put everything under version control, not only subprojects. I cannot imagine that CDT makes only sense for single-binary applications. How can I work properly?

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  • USE case to Class Diagram - How do I?

    - by 01010011
    Hi, I would like your guidance on how to create classes and their relationships (generalization, association, aggregation and composition) accurately from my USE case diagram (please see below). I am trying to create this class diagram so I can use it to create a simple online PHP application that allows the user to register an account, login and logout, and store, search and retrieve data from a MySQL database. Are my classes correct? Or should I create more classes? And if so, what classes are missing? What relationships should I use when connecting the register, login, logout, search_database and add_to_database to the users? I'm new to design patterns and UML class diagrams but from my understanding, the association relationship relates one object with another object; the aggregation relationship is a special kind of association that allows "a part" to belong to more than one "whole" (e.g. a credit card and its PIN - the PIN class can also be used in a debit card class); and a composition relationship is a special form of aggregation that allows each part to belong to only one whole at a time. I feel like I have left out some classes or something because I just can't seem to find the relationships from my understanding of relationships. Any assistance will be really appreciated. Thanks in advance. USE CASE DIAGRAM CLASS DIAGRAM

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  • SSIS Lookup with Lookup Component Vs Script Component.

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, I need to load Dimensions from EDW Tables (which does maintain historical records) and is of type Key-Value-Parameter. My scenario is ok if got a record in EDW as below Key1 Key2 Code Value EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 100 555 01 AAA 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y 100 555 02 BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y This need to be loaded into DM by pivoting it as key1 and key2 combinations makes Natural key for DM SK NK 01 02 EffectiveDate EndDate CurrentFlag 1 100-555 AAA BBB 2010-01-01 11.00.00 9999-12-31 Y My ssis package does this all good pivoting... looking up the incoming NK in DIM.. if new will insert .. else with further lookup with effective date and determine if the incoming for same natural key got any new (change) in attribute.. if so updates the current record byy setting its end date and insert the new one with new attribute value and pulling the recent records values for other attributes. My problem is if the same natural key comes twice with same attribute in single extract my first lookup which on natural key .. will let both records pass and try to insert.. where its fails. If i get distinct records on NK the second is not picked and need to run package again. So my question how can i configure lookup or alernative way to handle this scenario when same NK comes twice in single extract, would be able to insert first record if not exists in Dim table and for second one should be able to updated with the changes with reference to one inserted above. Not sure this makes sense what am trying to explain. Will attached the screenshot once back to work desk (on monday). Thanks

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  • WinForms and ShowDialog problem.

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a borderless WinForms app. The main window creates other forms (simple dialogs where I can click yes or no) with ShowDialog(). Every created dialog is not visible in the taskbar, my app has only one taskbar entry that focuses my app (and if a dialog is open that one is focused). If I use ALT+TAB to cycle to all open windows I only see one entry, too. However, If the dialog is created while my app doesn't have the focus (for example the user starts a long running task, starts to work on something else and while being in the background, my app shows a dialog "Task done...") and I want to go back to my app, things are getting strange. If I click on the taskbar to focus my app, the main window is focused (not the dialog). I can't use the main window (because there is still an open modal dialog). Windows 7 ALT-TAB preview shows the Dialog while taskbar mouseover preview shows the main window (In normal behavior both show the dialog in front of the main window). The only way to make my app usable again is to ALT-TAB to the entry and close the modal dialog. If I use ALT-TAB only the dialog is brought to the front and the main window is still in the background Is there a way to prevent that from happening? I know what to do, but most customers think the app crashed since the main window doesn't respond.

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  • Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

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  • Safe to update separate regions of a BufferedImage in separate threads?

    - by finnw
    I have a collection of BufferedImage instances, one main image and some subimages created by calling getSubImage on the main image. The subimages do not overlap. I am also making modifications to the subimage and I want to split this into multiple threads, one per subimage. From my understanding of how BufferedImage, Raster and DataBuffer work, this should be safe because: Each instance of BufferedImage (and its respective WritableRaster) is accessed from only one thread. The shared ColorModel is immutable The DataBuffer has no fields that can be modified (the only thing that can change is elements of the backing array.) Modifying disjoint segments of an array in separate threads is safe. However I cannot find anything in the documentation that says that it is definitely safe to do this. Can I assume it is safe? I know that it is possible to work on copies of the child Rasters but I would prefer to avoid this because of memory constraints. Otherwise, is it possible to make the operation thread-safe without copying regions of the parent image?

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  • Append a dynamically changing watermark to a PDF in SharePoint

    - by ccomet
    This is primarily a question of possibilities more than instructions. I'm a programming consultant working on a WSS project site system for my client. We have a document library in which files are uploaded to go through a complex approval process. With multiple stages in this process, we have an extra field which dictates what the current status of the document is. Now, my client has become enamored with the idea of PDF watermarking. He wants the document (which is already a PDF) to be affixed with a watermark corresponding to the current status, such that with each stage of the approval process the watermark will change. One method, the traditional method for PDF watermarking, of accomplishing this is to have one "clean" copy of the document somewhere hidden on the site, and create a new PDF from it that has the watermark at each stage of the approval process. Since the filename will never change, this new PDF can be uploaded continually to a public library, always overwriting the old version and simulating a "dynamically changing watermark". However, in the various stages there will also be people uploading clean copies with corrections and suggestions, nevermind the complex nature of juggling around two libraries and the fact we double the number of files stored. My client and I agree that this is not a practical path to choose. What we would like to do is be able to "modify" the watermark in a PDF, so that we only have to keep one copy of the file. Unfortunately, from what I've seen, in most cases when you make something like a watermark, which in its nature is supposed to be "unmodifyable", you won't be able to edit it later. So, is it possible to have a part of a PDF which cannot be changed by anyone who downloads the file, but can be changed as part of a workflow or other object model process? Thanks in advance!

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  • Frame Showing Problem

    - by Nitz
    Hey Guys I have made one project which is showing the inventory of the stock of one store. In that inventory the software should store data of the products with their images. There is one problem... Bcz of the lots of stock, the screen on which is image is loading taking a lot of time. So, i thought i should give the frame in which there will be on label which will show the "Loading Software". But now when i am setting visible = true for that frame, but bcz of that images screen class loading problem my frame is not showing correctly. I have put screen shot, now my code. JFrame f; try{ f = new JFrame("This is a test"); f.setSize(300, 300); Container content = f.getContentPane(); content.setBackground(Color.white); content.setLayout(new FlowLayout()); JLabel jl = new JLabel(); jl.setText("Loading Please Wait...."); content.add(jl); f.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); f.setVisible(true); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } initComponents(); try { addInverntory = new AddInventoryScreen(); showstock = new showStock(); // this class will take big time. mf = new mainForm(); f.setVisible(false); }catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } How Can show some message that, other class is loading or "Loading Software" kind of thing in this situation. Just For the know....this class is not screen on which the image will load.

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  • Using jQuery delay() with separate elements

    - by boomturn
    I want to fake a simple animation on page load by sequentially revealing several pngs, each appearing instantly but with unique, precisely timed delay before the next one. Using the latest version of jQuery (1.4.2 at writing), which provides a delay method. My first (braindead) impulse was: $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800); $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200); $('#image3').show('fast'); Of course all come up simultaneously. jQuery doc examples refer to a single item being chained, not handling multiple items. OK... try again using nested callbacks from show(): $('#image1').show('fast', function() { $('#image2').show('fast', function() { $('#image3').show('fast', function() { }); }); }); Looks ugly (imagine doing 10, also wonder what processor hit would be) but hey, it works sequentially! Without delay though. So... chain delay() after show() using a callback function from it (not even sure if it supports one): $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800, function() { $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200, function() { $('#image3').show('fast'); }); }); Hm. Opposite result of what I thought might happen: the callback works, but still no delay. So... should I be using some combination of queue and delay instead of nested callbacks? jQuery doc examples for queue again only use one element for example. Guessing this would involve using a custom queue, but am uncertain how to implement this. Or maybe I'm missing a simple way? (For a simple problem!)

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  • WPF DataTemplate - Overlay

    - by David Ward
    I have a class that I need to provide the datatemplate for. Currently I have two datatemplates, one for when Enabled == true and one for when Enabled == false. The datatemplate for the class is actually the one below which changes the template used based on a trigger: <DataTemplate x:Key="ActionNodeTemplateSelector"> <ContentPresenter Content="{Binding}" Name="cp" /> <DataTemplate.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Enabled}" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="cp" Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource ActionNodeTemplate}" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Enabled}" Value="False"> <Setter TargetName="cp" Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource ActionNodeDisabledTemplate}" /> </DataTrigger> </DataTemplate.Triggers> </DataTemplate> This all works well. However, now I want to also display an image overlay if the "Completed" property is true and a different image if it is incomplete. I could easily carry on using my approach to trigger on the Completed property as well but this would double the number of templates and feels wrong. Is there a way that I could have a trigger on my DataTemplate that will allow me to overlay the correct image over the existing template which is based on the Enabled property?

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  • Setting article properties for a publication using RMO in C# .NET

    - by Pavan Kumar
    I am using transaction replication with push subscription. I am developing a UI for replication using RMO in C#.NET between different instances of the same database within same machine holding similar schema and structure. I am using Single subscriber and multiple publisher topology. During creation of publication i want to set a few article properties such as Keep the existing object unchanged ,allow schema changes at subscriber to false a,copy foriegn key constarint and copy check constraints to true. How do i set the article properties using RMO in C# .NET. I am using Visual Studio 2008 SP1.I also want to know as how we can select all the objects including Tables,Views,Stored Procedures for publishing at one stretch. I could do it for one table but i want to select all the tables at one stretch. This is the code snippet i used for selecting single table for publishing. TransArticle ta = new TransArticle(); ta.Name = "Article_1"; ta.PublicationName = "TransReplication_DB2"; ta.DatabaseName = "DB2"; ta.SourceObjectName = "person"; ta.SourceObjectOwner = "dbo"; ta.ConnectionContext = conn; ta.Create();

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  • HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

    - by Paul Smith
    My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

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  • How can I coordinate code review tool and RCS (specifically git)

    - by Chris Nelson
    We're committed to git for code management. We're trying to find a tool that will help us systematize code reviews. We're considering Gerrit and Code Collaborator but would welcome other suggestions. We're having a problem answering the question, "How do we know every commit was reviewed?" (Or "What commits have yet to be reviewed?") One answer would be to submit every commit or every push for review and track incomplete reviews in the review tool. I'm not entirely happy with relying on a another tool -- especially if it's not open source -- to tell us this. What seems to be a better answer is to rely on sign offs in git (e.g., "Signed-off-by: Chris Nelson") and use a hook in the review tool to sign off commits on behalf of the reviewer. And advantage of this is if we use some other review mechanism for some commits, we have just one place to look for results. One problem with this is that we can't require review before push because the review tool is unlikely to have access to the developer's private repository clone to add the sign-off. Any ideas on integrating code review with code management to achieve ease of use and high visibility of unreviewed changes?

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  • VMWare steals IP addresses [closed]

    - by Ishan Amin
    I'm having a peculiar problem, that I think I have narrowed down to VMware. For the past one year, every once in a while we lose internet connection and not all users (about 10 users) go down at the same time, its usually one-by-one. First someone will call me and say "Internet is down" and then we would go reset the router and modem and switch and it would be working again for a while, then go down again without any pattern or replicatable sequence. We'd go repeat the steps again to get everyone in the office running again. We called our Internet Service Provider and they constantly say, We see your modem and we see your router and from thier end everything is OK. we replaced our router and switch and modem, twice! Last friday, it dawned upon me, that everytime we turn on a VMware machine, this sequence of taking everyone down starts, which also explains the message that my users get for "IP Conflict Found" So we do alot of VMware testing and lo and behold, it takes my Internet down. My Yahoo and Gtalk would continue working but www is down when the VMware machines are started. I do use bridged networking to all the VMware machines, but I dont know what else to set it at. now, sorry for this long rambling but anyone have any clue on how to stop this? thanks IA

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