Search Results

Search found 1906 results on 77 pages for 'confirm'.

Page 65/77 | < Previous Page | 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72  | Next Page >

• SharedObject (Flex 3.2) behaving unexpectedly when query string present in URL

  - by rhtx

  Summary: The behavior detailed below seems to indicate that if your app at www.someplace.com sets/retrieves data via a SharedObject, there is some sort of .sol collision if the user hits your app at someplace.com, and then later at someplace.com?name=value. Can anyone confirm or refute this? I'm working on a Flex web app that presents the user with a login page. When the user has logged in, he/she is presented with a 'room' which is associated with a 'group'. We store the last-visited room/group combination in a SharedObject - so when a given user logs in, they are taken into the most recent room in which they were active. That works fine, but we also have an auto-login system which involves the user clicking on a link to the app url with a query string attached. There are two types of these links. 1) the query string includes username, groupId, and roomId 2) the query string includes only the username Because we are working fast and have only a few developers, the auto-login system is built on the last-vist system. During the auto-login process, the url is inspected and if groupId and roomId values are found in the query string, the SharedObject is opened and the last-visit group/room id values are overwritten by the param values. That works fine, also, when the app is hit with a query string of the second type (no groupId and roomId params), the app goes to the SharedObject to get the stored room and group id values, as it normally would. And here's the problem: The values it comes back with are whatever the last room/group param values were, not whatever the last last-visit room/group values are. And if the given user has never hit the app with query string that included group and room id values, the app gets null values from the SharedObject. It took some digging around, but what it looks like is happening is that a second set of data is being stored/expected in the SharedObject if a query string is present in the URL. Looking at the .sol file in a text editor I see more untranslated code, and additional group and room values, once I've hit the app with URLs that contain query strings. I'm not finding anything on the web about this, but that may just be due to a lack of necessary search skills. Has anyone else run into anything similar? Or do you know how to address this? I've tried setting Security.exactSettings to false, already - was really hoping that was going to work.

  Read the article

• Troubleshooting Multiple Endpoints Problem in WCF

  - by omatase

  I have been using WCF for a few years now and am fairly comfortable with it, however there is one simple WCF concept that I have yet to employ and am having difficulties with it. Following this article about WCF addressing as it specifically relates to multiple endpoints in IIS I see these two excerpts: "Suppose you have a file named calc.svc and you place it in a virtual directory that corresponds to (http://localhost:8080/calcservice). The base address for this service will be (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc)." and "Now, consider the endpoint configuration found in the virtual directory’s web.config file (in Figure 3). In this case, the address of the first endpoint becomes the same as the base address (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc) since I left the endpoint address empty. The address of the second endpoint becomes the combination of the base address appended with "secure", like this: (http://localhost:8080/calcservice/calc.svc/secure)." Now in my application I'm trying to create two endpoints for the same service (shown below). The service name is MainService.svc. For endpoint one I have address="" and endpoint two has address="Soap11". Bringing the site up in IIS I can successfully hit this URL: (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc). This is the base address for the service according to all the documentation I can find. According to this article and others I have seen that confirm its information I should have the second endpoint at (https://localhost:444/MainService.svc/Soap11) but if I navigate to that URL I get a .Net exception indicating the resource is not found. Is there a tool I can use to see where my different endpoints will be available? Maybe some IIS or aspnet_isapi.dll logging I can turn on? My web.config section defining my endpoints follows. Thanks in advance for your help <service behaviorConfiguration="MyService.MainServiceBehavior" name="MyService.MainService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSBindingConfig" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="Soap11" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicBindingWithCredentials" contract="MyService.IMainService"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service>

  Read the article

• problem with ajax post

  - by zurna

  For some weird reason, the codes below are first working, then website is redirecting to the url. I used this code many times before without any problems, please please advise! Test page: http://www.refinethetaste.com/FLPM/?Section=myaccount&SubSection=signup <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("[name='submit']").click(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: $(".form-signup").serialize(), url: "http://www.refinethetaste.com/FLPM/content/myaccount/signup.cs.asp?Process=Add2Member", success: function(output) { $('.form-signup').html(output) }, error: function(output) { $('.form-signup').html(output); } }); }); }); </script> <form method="post" action="http://www.refinethetaste.com/FLPM/content/myaccount/signup.cs.asp?Process=Add2Member" class="form-signup"> <div class="clearfix"> <label for="MembersFullName">Full Name *:</label> <div class="username form-height"> <input id="modlgn_username" type="text" name="MembersFullName" value="" class="inputbox" size="18" /> </div> <label for="MembersEmailAddress">Email Address *:</label> <div class="username form-height"> <input id="modlgn_username" type="text" name="MembersEmailAddress" value="" class="inputbox" size="18" /> </div> <label for="MembersPassword">Password *:</label> <div class="password form-height"> <input id="modlgn_passwd" type="password" name="MembersPassword" class="inputbox" size="18" /> </div> <label for="MembersPasswordc">Password (confirm) *:</label> <div class="password form-height"> <input id="modlgn_passwd" type="password" name="MembersPasswordc" class="inputbox" size="18" /> </div> <div id="inputs"> <input type="checkbox" name="agree" class="checkbox" value="1" /> <label for="agree" class="agree">I agree to User Agreement and Privacy Policy.</label> </div> <div class="clear"> <input type="submit" name="submit" class="button-login png" value="Sign Up" /> </div> </div> <div id="form-login-remember"> <div class="form-indent-top"> <span class="login-text-1">Already Have Account?</span> <a href="?Section=myaccount&SubSection=signin"> Sign In</a> </div> </div> </form>

  Read the article

• How do I set libavcodec to use 4:2:2 chroma when encoding MPEG-2 4:2:2 profile?

  - by Mike Pollitt

  I have a project using libavcodec (ffmpeg). I'm using it to encode MPEG-2 video at 4:2:2 Profile, Main Level. I have the pixel format PIX_FMT_YUV422P selected in the AVCodecContext, however the video output I'm getting has all the colours wrong, and looks to me like the encoder is incorrectly reading the buffers as though it thinks it is 4:2:0 chroma rather than 4:2:2. Here's my codec setup: // // AVFormatContext* _avFormatContext previously defined as mpeg2video // // // Set up the video stream for output // AVVideoStream* _avVideoStream = av_new_stream(_avFormatContext, 0); if (!_avVideoStream) { err = ccErrWFFFmpegUnableToAllocateStream; goto bail; } _avCodecContext = _avVideoStream->codec; _avCodecContext->codec_id = CODEC_ID_MPEG2VIDEO; _avCodecContext->codec_type = CODEC_TYPE_VIDEO; // // Set up required parameters // _avCodecContext->rc_max_rate = _avCodecContext->rc_min_rate = _avCodecContext->bit_rate = src->_avCodecContext->bit_rate; _avCodecContext->flags = CODEC_FLAG_INTERLACED_DCT; _avCodecContext->flags2 = CODEC_FLAG2_INTRA_VLC | CODEC_FLAG2_NON_LINEAR_QUANT; _avCodecContext->qmin = 1; _avCodecContext->qmax = 1; _avCodecContext->rc_buffer_size = _avCodecContext->rc_initial_buffer_occupancy = 2000000; _avCodecContext->rc_buffer_aggressivity = 0.25; _avCodecContext->profile = 0; _avCodecContext->level = 5; _avCodecContext->width = f->GetWidth(); // f is a private Frame class with width, height properties etc. _avCodecContext->height = f->GetHeight(); _avCodecContext->time_base.den = 25; _avCodecContext->time_base.num = 1; _avCodecContext->gop_size = 12; _avCodecContext->max_b_frames = 2; _avCodecContext->pix_fmt = PIX_FMT_YUV422P; if (_avFormatContext->oformat->flags & AVFMT_GLOBALHEADER) { _avCodecContext->flags |= CODEC_FLAG_GLOBAL_HEADER; } if (av_set_parameters(_avFormatContext, NULL) < 0) { err = ccErrWFFFmpegUnableToSetParameters; goto bail; } // // Set up video codec for encoding // AVCodec* _avCodec = avcodec_find_encoder(_avCodecContext->codec_id); if (!_avCodec) { err = ccErrWFFFmpegUnableToFindCodecForOutput; goto bail; } if (avcodec_open(_avCodecContext, _avCodec) < 0) { err = ccErrWFFFmpegUnableToOpenCodecForOutput; goto bail; } A screengrab of the resulting video frame can be seen at http://ftp.limeboy.com/images/screen_grab.png (the input was standard colour bars). I've checked by outputting debug frames to TGA format at various points in the process, and I can confirm that it is all fine and dandy up until the point that libavcodec encodes the frame. Any assistance most appreciated! Cheers, Mike.

  Read the article

• Java - Is Set.contains() broken on OpenJDK 6?

  - by Peter

  Hey, I've come across a really strange problem. I have written a simple Deck class which represents a standard 52 card deck of playing cards. The class has a method missingCards() which returns the set of all cards which have been drawn from the deck. If I try and compare two identical sets of missing cards using .equals() I'm told they are different, and if I check to see if a set contains an element that I know is there using .contains() I am returned false. Here is my test code: public void testMissingCards() { Deck deck = new Deck(true); Set<Card> drawnCards = new HashSet<Card>(); drawnCards.add(deck.draw()); drawnCards.add(deck.draw()); drawnCards.add(deck.draw()); Set<Card> missingCards = deck.missingCards(); System.out.println(drawnCards); System.out.println(missingCards); Card c1 = null; for (Card c : drawnCards){ c1 = c; } System.out.println("C1 is "+c1); for (Card c : missingCards){ System.out.println("C is "+c); System.out.println("Does c1.equal(c) "+c1.equals(c)); System.out.println("Does c.equal(c1) "+c.equals(c1)); } System.out.println("Is c1 in missingCards "+missingCards.contains(c1)); assertEquals("Deck confirm missing cards",drawnCards,missingCards); } (Edit: Just for clarity I added the two loops after I noticed the test failing. The first loop pulls out a card from drawnCards and then this card is checked against every card in missingCards - it always matches one, so that card must be contained in missingCards. However, missingCards.contains() fails) And here is an example of it's output: [5C, 2C, 2H] [2C, 5C, 2H] C1 is 2H C is 2C Does c1.equal(c) false Does c.equal(c1) false C is 5C Does c1.equal(c) false Does c.equal(c1) false C is 2H Does c1.equal(c) true Does c.equal(c1) true Is c1 in missingCards false I am completely sure that the implementation of .equals on my card class is correct and, as you can see from the output it does work! What is going on here? Cheers, Pete

  Read the article

• javascript simple object creation test: opera leaks?

  - by joe

  Hi, I am trying to figure out certain memory leak conditions in javascript on a few browsers. Currently I'm only testing FF 3.6, Opera 10.10, and Safari 4.0.3. I've started with a fairly simple test, and can confirm no memory leaks in Firefox and Safari. But Opera just takes memory and never gives it back. What gives? Here's the test: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = init; //window.onunload = cleanup; var a=[]; function init() { var d = document.createElement('div'); d.innerHTML = "page loading..."; document.body.appendChild(d); for (var i=0; i<400000; i++) { a[i] = new Obj("xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx"); } d.innerHTML = "PAGE LOADED"; } function cleanup() { for (var i=0; i<400000; i++) { a[i] = null; } } function Obj(msg) { this.msg=msg; } </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I shouldn't need the cleanup() call on window.unload, but tried that also. No luck. As you can see this is simple JS, no circular DOM links, no closures. I monitor the memory usage using 'top' on Mac 10.4.11. Memory usage spikes up on page load, as expected. In FF and Safari reloading the page does not use any further memory, and all memory is returned when the window (tab) is closed. In Opera, memory spikes on load, and seems to also spike further on each reload (but not always...). But regardless of reload, memory never goes back down below the initial load spike. I had hoped this was a no-brainer test that all browsers would pass, so I could move on to more "interesting" conditions. Am I doing something wrong here? Or is this a known Opera issue? Thanks! -joe

  Read the article

• a4j:support within a rich:modalPanel

  - by Andy Deighton

  Hi all, I've hit a wall. I know the a4j and rich tags pretty well (I use Seam 2.2.0 and Richfaces 3.3.1). However, I'm trying to do something quite simple, but in a rich:modalPanel. It seems that rich:modalPanels do not allow Ajax events to be fired. Here's a simple breakdown: I have a h:selectOneMenu with some items in it and whose value is attached to a backing bean. Attached to that h:selectOneMenu is a a4j:support tag so that whenever the change event is fired, the backing bean should get updated. Truly simple stuff eh? However, when this h:selectOneMenu is in a rich:modalPanel the onchange event doesn't update the backing bean until the rich:modalPanel closes. I can confirm this because I'm running it in Eclipse debug mode and I have a breakpoint on the setter of the property that's hooked up to the h:selectOneMenu. This is driving me mad! This is vanilla stuff for Ajax, but rich:modalPanels don't seem to allow it. So, the question is: can I do Ajax stuff within a rich:modalPanel? I'm basically trying to use the rich:modalPanel as a form (I've tried a4j:form and h:form to no avail) that reacts to changes to the drop down (e.g. when the user changes the drop down, a certain part of the form should get reRendered). Am I trying to do something that's not possible? Here's a simplified version of the modalPanel: <rich:modalPanel id="quickAddPanel"> <div> <a4j:form id="quickAddPaymentForm" ajaxSubmit="true"> <s:decorate id="paymentTypeDecorator"> <a4j:region> <h:selectOneMenu id="paymentType" required="true" value="#{backingBean.paymentType}" tabindex="1"> <s:selectItems label="#{type.description}" noSelectionLabel="Please select..." value="#{incomingPaymentTypes}" var="type"/> <s:convertEnum/> <a4j:support ajaxSingle="true" event="onchange" eventsQueue="paymentQueue" immediate="true" limitToList="true" reRender="paymentTypeDecorator, paymentDetailsOutputPanel, quickAddPaymentForm"/> </h:selectOneMenu> </a4j:region> </s:decorate> </fieldset> <fieldset class="standard-form"> <div class="form-title">Payment details</div> <a4j:outputPanel id="paymentDetailsOutputPanel"> <h:outputText value="This should change whenever dropdown changes: #{backingBean.paymentType}"/> </a4j:outputPanel> </fieldset> </a4j:form> </div> </rich:modalPanel> Regards, Andy

  Read the article

• An AuthLogic form is giving me incorrect validation errors -- why?

  - by sscirrus

  Hi everyone, I set up AuthLogic for Rails according to the AuthLogic example: http://github.com/binarylogic/authlogic_example. I can log on successfully to the system, but when accessing users/new.html.erb to register a new user, the form returns the following validation errors: Email is too short (minimum is 6 characters) Email should look like an email address. Login is too short (minimum is 3 characters) Login should use only letters, numbers, spaces, and .-_@ please. Password is too short (minimum is 4 characters) Password confirmation is too short (minimum is 4 characters) None of these errors exist in the data I am entering. # new.html.erb <%= form.label :login, nil, :class => "label" %><br /> <%= form.text_field :login, :class => "inputBox", :name => "login", :type => "text" %><br /> <%= form.label :password, form.object.new_record? ? nil : "Change password", :class => "label" %><br /> <%= form.password_field :password, :class => "inputBox", :name => "password", :type => "text" %><br /> <%= form.label "Confirm password", nil, :class => "label" %><br /> <%= form.password_field :password_confirmation, :class => "inputBox", :name => "password_confirmation", :type => "text" %><br /> <%= form.label :email, nil, :class => "label" %><br /> <%= form.text_field :email, :class => "inputBox", :name => "email", :type => "text" %><br /> # Users controller def new @user = User.new render :layout => "forms" end I think the problem is that the data isn't being transferred somehow and therefore AuthLogic doesn't think the inputs are sufficient. Do you have any idea why AuthLogic is telling me the data doesn't satisfy its validation?

  Read the article

• Weird javascript problem...

  - by Silvio Iannone

  Hi there, i'm building a page that is dinamically loaded with ajax. This is what the '$.get' jQuery function calls (this is located on an external HTML page): <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('button').sb_animateButton(); $('input').sb_animateInput(); $('#settings_security_error').hide(); }); function check_passwords(password, password_confirm) { $('#settings_security_error').show(); alert('I\'m in funcion!'); // This works... if(password.length < 4) // ... this doesn't { $('#settings_security_error').innerHTML = 'Password too short'; } else { password = hex_md5(password); password_confirm = hex_md5(password_confirm); $.get('/engine/ajax/check_password.php?password=' + password + '$password_confirm=' + password_confirm, {language: "php", version: 5}, function(result) { $('#settings_security_error').innerHTML = result; }, 'html'); } } </script> <div class="title">Security</div> <table class="sub_container"> <tr> <td><label>Old password</label></td> <td class="td_input"><input type="password" name="old_password"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td><label>New password</label></td> <td class="td_input"><input type="password" name="new_password" id="settings_security_new_password" onkeyup="check_passwords(this.value, getElementById('settings_security_password_confirm').value)"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td><label>Confirm password</label></td> <td class="td_input"><input type="password" name="new_password_confirm" id="settings_security_password_confirm" onkeyup="check_passwords(getElementById('settings_security_new_password').value, this.value)"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="td_error" id="settings_security_error"></td> </tr> </table> And this is where the external HTML is placed...: <div id="settings_appearance"> </div> ... from this javascript snippet: function get_page_content(page, target_id) { $.get('engine/ajax/get_page_content.php?page=' + page, null, function(result) { $("#"+target_id).html(result); // Or whatever you need to insert the result }, 'html'); } Well... the problem is that the javascript in the first snippet is executed when it's loaded by the $.get function, but i still can't understand the reason why when i type into the input boxes nothing happen. It should write the output of the javascript function check_passwords(password, password_confirm) in <td class="td_error" id="settings_security_error"></td>. Thanks for helping. Silvio

  Read the article

• Using IOperationBehavior to supply a WCF parameter

  - by Chris Kemp

  This is my first step into the world of stackoverflow, so apologies if I cock anything up. I'm trying to create a WCF Operation which has a parameter that is not exposed to the outside world, but is instead automatically passed into the function. So the world sees this: int Add(int a, int b) But it is implemented as: int Add(object context, int a, int b) Then, the context gets supplied by the system at run-time. The example I'm working with is completely artificial, but mimics something that I'm looking into in a real-world scenario. I'm able to get close, but not quite the whole way there. First off, I created a simple method and wrote an application to confirm it works. It does. It returns a + b and writes the context as a string to my debug. Yay. [OperationContract] int Add(object context, int a, int b); I then wrote the following code: public class SupplyContextAttribute : Attribute, IOperationBehavior { public void Validate(OperationDescription operationDescription) { if (!operationDescription.Messages.Any(m => m.Body.Parts.First().Name == "context")) throw new FaultException("Parameter 'context' is missing."); } public void ApplyDispatchBehavior(OperationDescription operationDescription, DispatchOperation dispatchOperation) { dispatchOperation.Invoker = new SupplyContextInvoker(dispatchOperation.Invoker); } public void ApplyClientBehavior(OperationDescription operationDescription, ClientOperation clientOperation) { } public void AddBindingParameters(OperationDescription operationDescription, BindingParameterCollection bindingParameters) { // Remove the 'context' parameter from the inbound message operationDescription.Messages[0].Body.Parts.RemoveAt(0); } } public class SupplyContextInvoker : IOperationInvoker { readonly IOperationInvoker _invoker; public SupplyContextInvoker(IOperationInvoker invoker) { _invoker = invoker; } public object[] AllocateInputs() { return _invoker.AllocateInputs().Skip(1).ToArray(); } private object[] IntroduceContext(object[] inputs) { return new[] { "MyContext" }.Concat(inputs).ToArray(); } public object Invoke(object instance, object[] inputs, out object[] outputs) { return _invoker.Invoke(instance, IntroduceContext(inputs), out outputs); } public IAsyncResult InvokeBegin(object instance, object[] inputs, AsyncCallback callback, object state) { return _invoker.InvokeBegin(instance, IntroduceContext(inputs), callback, state); } public object InvokeEnd(object instance, out object[] outputs, IAsyncResult result) { return _invoker.InvokeEnd(instance, out outputs, result); } public bool IsSynchronous { get { return _invoker.IsSynchronous; } } } And my WCF operation now looks like this: [OperationContract, SupplyContext] int Amend(object context, int a, int b); My updated references no longer show the 'context' parameter, which is exactly what I want. The trouble is that whenver I run the code, it gets past the AllocateInputs and then throws an Index was outside the bounds of the Array. error somewhere in the WCF guts. I've tried other things, and I find that I can successfully change the type of the parameter and rename it and have my code work. But the moment I remove the parameter it falls over. Can anyone give me some idea of how to get this to work (or if it can be done at all).

  Read the article

• How can I ignore an http request without clearing the browser?

  - by Timid Developer

  To prevent duplicate requests (i.e. pressing F5 right after clicking a command button), I've setup my page base class to ignore the request if it's detected as a duplicate. When I say 'ignore' I mean Response.End() Now I thought I've seen this work before, where there's an issue, I just Response.End() and the users page just does nothing. I don't know the exact circumstance in which this worked, but I'm unable to repeat it now. Now when I call Response.End(), I just get an empty browser. More specifically, I get this html. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML><HEAD> <META http-equiv=Content-Type content="text/html; charset=utf-8"></HEAD> <BODY></BODY></HTML> I setup the following test app to confirm the problem is not elsewhere in my app. Here it is: Add the following to an aspx form <asp:Label ID="lbl" Text="0" runat="server" /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd1" Text="Add 1" runat="server" /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd2" Text="Add 2" runat="server" /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btnAdd3" Text="Add 3" runat="server" /><br /> And here's the code behind file using System; namespace TestDupRequestCancellation { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { btnAdd1.Click += btnAdd1_Click; btnAdd2.Click += btnAdd2_Click; btnAdd3.Click += btnAdd3_Click; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) CurrentValue = 0; else if (Int32.Parse(lbl.Text) != CurrentValue) Response.End(); } protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { lbl.Text = CurrentValue.ToString(); } protected int CurrentValue { get { return Int32.Parse(Session["CurrentValue"].ToString()); } set { Session["CurrentValue"] = value.ToString(); } } void btnAdd3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentValue += 3; } void btnAdd2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentValue += 2; } void btnAdd1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentValue += 1; } } } When you load the page, clicking any button does what is expected, but if you press F5 at any time after pressing one of the buttons, it will detect it as a duplicate request and call Response.End() which promptly ends the task. Which leaves the user with an empty browser. Is there anyway to leave the user with the page as it was, so they can just click a button? Also; please note that this code is the simplest code I could come up with to demonstrate my problem. It's not meant to demonstrate how to check for dup requests.

  Read the article

• Ajax problem after deleting a div, then creating a new one

  - by Matt Nathanson

  I'm building a custom CMS where you can add and delete clients using ajax and jquery 1.4.2. My problem lies after I delete a div. The ajax is used to complete this and refresh automatically.. But when I go to create a new div (without a hard refresh) it puts it back in the slot of the div I just deleted. How can I get this to completely forget about the div i just deleted and place the new div in the next database table? link for reference: http://staging.sneakattackmedia.com/cms/ //Add New client // function AddNewClient() { dataToLoad = 'addClient=yes'; $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: '/clients/controller.php', datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, target: ('#clientssidebar'), async: false, success: function(html){ $(this).click(function() {reInitialize()}); //$('#clientssidebar').html(html); $('div#' + clientID).slideDown(800); $(this).click(function() { ExpandSidebar()});}, error: function() { alert('An error occured! 222');} });}; //Delete Client // function DeleteClient(){ var yes = confirm("Whoa there chief! Do you really want to DELETE this client?"); if (yes == 1) { dataToLoad = 'clientID=' + clientID + '&deleteClient=yes', $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: '/clients/controller.php', datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, success: function(html) { alert('Client' + clientID + ' should have been deleted from the database.'); $(this).click(function() {reInitialize()}); $('div#' +clientID).slideUp(800); }, error: function() { alert('error'); }});};}; //Re Initialize // function reInitialize() { $('#addnew').click(function() {AddNewClient()}); $('.deletebutton').click(function() {clientID = $(this).parent().attr('id'); DeleteClient()}) $('.clientblock').click(function() {clientID = $(this).attr('id'); ExpandSidebar()});}; //Document Ready // $(document).ready(function(){ if ($('isCMS')){ editCMS = 1; $('.deletebutton').click(function() {clientID = $(this).parent().attr('id'); DeleteClient()}); $('#addnew').click(function() {AddNewClient()}); $('.clientblock').click(function() {clientID = $(this).attr('id'); ExpandSidebar()}); $('.clientblock').click(function() {if (clickClient ==true) { $(this).css('background-image', 'url(/images/highlightclient.png)'); $(this).css('margin-left' , '30px'); }; $(this).click(function(){ $(this).css('background-image', ''); }); $('.uploadbutton').click(function(){UploadThings()}); }); } else ($('#clientscontainer')) { $('#editbutton').css('display', 'none'); }; }); Please help!!!

  Read the article

• Self updating app, wont overwrite existing app, using Android packagemanager?

  - by LokiSinclair

  I know there are plenty of questions about this on here, but I've tried everything (but the correct 'thing', obviously!) and nothing seems to shine any light on the problem I'm having. I've written an app (for a customer), which is designed to be hosted on their own server. The app references a simple text file with the latest version code in it and checks it against it's own version. If it's out of date it goes off and downloads the update. Everything is working as intended up to this point. I use the: Intent i = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); i.setDataAndType(Uri.fromFile(outputFile), "application/vnd.android.package-archive"); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); ...code to start the install process of the newly downloaded .apk file. And that all starts as I would expect. I click on "Install" - when I'm prompted to confirm the overwriting of the current app, with the new. It starts, and then displays: App not installed. And existing package by the same name with a conflicting signature is already installed. Now I'm aware that Android can't have multiple applications sharing the same package name, which is fine, but nothing comes up in LogCat and I can only assume that the OS is annoyed at me attempting to 'update' my app, even though I'm going through all the correct channels and using the inbuilt package manager to do it for me! Can anyone tell me what the OS is moaning about? I'm not attempting to install two apps side by side, I want it to update it, which it starts to do, and then gets really confused. Is it something to do with me using the same keystore for signing the packages? I highly doubt it as I've used the same keystores previously to handle updates to games and the like, but I just can't figure out what it's complaining about. Hopefully someone out there has had this issue and solved it, and can point me in the right direction. I'm flying a bit blind with the limited information it's giving me :( Cheers.

  Read the article

• dijit/form/Select broken in Internet Explorer using Esri Javascript 3.7

  - by disuse

  After developing a web map app in Firefox, I tested my code in Internet Explorer (company standard) to discover that the dijit/form/Select is misbehaving using the latest Esri JavaScript v3.7. The issue I am seeing is that the Select will not update/change from the first option in the list when using v3.7. If I bump the version down to 3.6, it works as expected. I've tried IE browser modes from 7 to 10 and am experiencing the same behavior between all of them. Can someone confirm they are experiencing the same thing? Example in 3.7 - http://jsbin.com/aVIsApO/1/edit Example in 3.6 - http://jsbin.com/odIxETu/7/edit Codeblock var url = "http://services.arcgis.com/V6ZHFr6zdgNZuVG0/ArcGIS/rest/services/Street_Trees/FeatureServer/0"; var frmTrees; require([ "esri/tasks/query", "esri/tasks/QueryTask", "dojo/dom-construct", "dijit/form/Select", "dojo/parser", "dijit/registry", "dojo/on", "dojo/ready", "dojo/_base/connect", "dojo/domReady!" ], function( Query, QueryTask, domConstruct, Select, parser, registry, on, ready, connect ) { ready(function() { frmTrees = registry.byId("trees"); var qt = new QueryTask(url); var query = new Query(); query.where = "FID < 25"; query.orderByFields = ["qSpecies"]; query.returnGeometry = false; query.outFields = ["qSpecies", "TreeID"]; query.groupByFieldsForStatistics = ["qSpecies"]; //query.returnDistinctValues = true; qt.execute(query, function(results) { //var frm_domain_area = dom.byId("domain_area"); var testVals = {}; for (var i = 0; i < results.features.length; i++) { var id = results.features[i].attributes.TreeID; var desc = results.features[i].attributes.qSpecies; if (!testVals[id]) { testVals[id] = true; var selectElem = domConstruct.create("option",{ label: desc + " (" + id + ")", value: id }); frmTrees.addOption(selectElem); } } }); frmTrees.on("change", function() { console.debug(frmTrees.get("value")); }); }); });

  Read the article

• ASP.NET Elements are null when assigning data source

  - by deccks

  For some reason, all of the objects in my ASP.NET markup are now null when I try to assign values to their properties in the code behind. My project was going fine and then now when I try to assign a data source to a GridView, I get a null reference error. I have no idea why it's doing this. I am not doing nothing special. I am just trying to assign a value to a property to an asp.net element in on the page. The intellisense knows that the element is there and I get no errors when I build the project. It's just when I am running the website I get the null reference. I have been trying to fix this issue for a couple weeks now. Please Help. Thanks. Here is the code: protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoadData(); } private void LoadData() { Entities context = new Entities(); var types = (from t in context.CustomerTypes select t).OrderBy(t => t.TypeName); gvCustomerTypes.DataSource = types; gvCustomerTypes.DataBind(); } and on in the markup the gridview looks like this: <asp:GridView ID="gvCustomerTypes" runat="server" ShowHeader="true" GridLines="Both" AutoGenerateColumns="false" AlternatingRowStyle-BackColor="AliceBlue" Width="100%"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Customer Type Name" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="Left" ItemStyle-HorizontalAlign="Left"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblType" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("TypeName") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Edit" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center" ItemStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HyperLink ID="HyperLink1" NavigateUrl='<%#Eval("CustomerTypeID", "CreateEditCustomerType.aspx?ID={0}") %>' Text="Edit" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Delete" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center" ItemStyle-HorizontalAlign="Center"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName='<%#Eval("CustomerTypeID") %>' OnClientClick="javascript:return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this Customer Type?');" OnCommand="DeleteCustomerType" Text="Delete" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView>

  Read the article

• embed a jquery script after jquery is loaded by widget

  - by matthew k

  http://stackoverflow.com/a/6065421 was helpful to see how to confirm jquery has been loaded. my widget will need a class that was written using jquery. may i have some assistance on embedding this other class built using jquery? thank you, below is the snippet from the above link with my code added in the final portion as noted in the code comments: (function(window, document, version, callback) { var j, d; var loaded = false; if (!(j = window.jQuery) || version > j.fn.jquery || callback(j, loaded)) { var script = document.createElement("script"); script.type = "text/javascript"; script.src = "/media/jquery.js"; script.onload = script.onreadystatechange = function() { if (!loaded && (!(d = this.readyState) || d == "loaded" || d == "complete")) { callback((j = window.jQuery).noConflict(1), loaded = true); j(script).remove(); } }; document.documentElement.childNodes[0].appendChild(script) } })(window, document, "1.3", function($, jquery_loaded) { //my code added below var script_tag = document.createElement('script'); script_tag.setAttribute("type","text/javascript"); script_tag.setAttribute("src", "http://mysite.com/widget/slides.jquery.js"); (document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0] || document.documentElement).appendChild(script_tag); $('#slides').slides({}); //this line gives an error. }); right now, i am trying the following based on the response(s) provided to this question (line that throws error is noted with a comment): //this function is called after jquery being embedded has been confirmed. {mysite} placeholder is nonexistent in actual code. function main() { jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var css_link = $("<link>", { rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: "http://mysite/widget/widget.css" }); css_link.appendTo('head'); $('#crf_widget').after('<div id="crf_widget_container"></div>'); /******* Load HTML *******/ var jsonp_url = "http://mysite/widget.php?callback=?"; $.getJSON(jsonp_url, function(data) { $('#crf_widget_container').html(data); $('#category_sel').change(function(){ alert(this.value); }); $.getScript("http://mysite/widget/slides.jquery.js", function(data, textStatus, jqxhr) { alert(1); //fires ok $('#slides').slides({}); //errors }); }); }); }

  Read the article

• Problems with MYSQL database

  - by shinjuo

  I have a database that worked fine until I decided to add a log onto the page. here is what I have now: <body> <?php if($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'] == 'POST') { require("serverInfo.php"); mysql_query("UPDATE `cardLists` SET `AmountLeft` = `AmountLeft` + ".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['Add'])." WHERE `cardID` = '".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['Cards'])."'"); echo "\"" .$_POST['Add'] ."\" has been added to the inventory amount for the card \"". $_POST['Cards']. "\""; mysql_query("INSERT INTO `log` (`changes`, `amount`, `cardID`, `person`, Date)VALUES('ADDED','$_POST['Add']','$_POST['Cards']', '$_POST['Person']', NOW())"); mysql_close($link); } ?> <form action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>" method="post"> <?php require("serverInfo.php"); ?> <?php $res = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM cardLists order by cardID") or die(mysql_error()); echo "<select name = 'Cards'>"; while($row=mysql_fetch_assoc($res)) { echo "<option value=\"$row[cardID]\">$row[cardID]</option>"; } echo "</select>"; ?> Amount to Add: <input type="text" name="Add" maxlength="8" /> Changes Made By: <select name="Person"> <option value="justin">Justin</option> <option value="chris">Chris</option> <option value="matt">Matt</option> <option value="dan">Dan</option> <option value="tim">Tim</option> <option value="amanda">Amanda</option> </select> <input type="submit" name ="submit" onClick= "return confirm( 'Are you sure you want to add this amount?');"> </form> <br /> <input type="button" name="main" value="Return To Main" onclick="window.location.href='index.php';" /> </body> </html> it works fine until I added the: mysql_query("INSERT INTO `log` (`changes`, `amount`, `cardID`, `person`, Date)VALUES('ADDED','$_POST['Add']','$_POST['Cards']', '$_POST['Person']', NOW())"); mysql_close($link); Can anyone see what is going on?

  Read the article

• I need help converting a C# string from one character encoding to another?

  - by Handleman

  According to Spolsky I can't call myself a developer, so there is a lot of shame behind this question... Scenario: From a C# application, I would like to take a string value from a SQL db and use it as the name of a directory. I have a secure (SSL) FTP server on which I want to set the current directory using the string value from the DB. Problem: Everything is working fine until I hit a string value with a "special" character - I seem unable to encode the directory name correctly to satisfy the FTP server. The code example below uses "special" character é as an example uses WinSCP as an external application for the ftps comms does not show all the code required to setup the Process "_winscp". sends commands to the WinSCP exe by writing to the process standardinput for simplicity, does not get the info from the DB, but instead simply declares a string (but I did do a .Equals to confirm that the value from the DB is the same as the declared string) makes three attempts to set the current directory on the FTP server using different string encodings - all of which fail makes an attempt to set the directory using a string that was created from a hand-crafted byte array - which works Process _winscp = new Process(); byte[] buffer; string nameFromString = "Sinéad O'Connor"; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + nameFromString + "\""); buffer = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer) + "\""); buffer = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer) + "\""); byte[] nameFromBytes = new byte[] { 83, 105, 110, 130, 97, 100, 32, 79, 39, 67, 111, 110, 110, 111, 114 }; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.Default.GetString(nameFromBytes) + "\""); The UTF8 encoding changes é to 101 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. The ASCII encoding changes é to 63 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. When I represent é as value 130 (decimal) the FTP server is happy, except I can't find a method that will do this for me (I had to manually contruct the string from explicit bytes). Anyone know what I should do to my string to encode the é as 130 and make the FTP server happy and finally elevate me to level 1 developer by explaining the only single thing a developer should understand?

  Read the article

• Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

  - by 4herpsand7derpsago

  I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• jquery ui is not scaling text properly!

  - by Stephen Belanger

  I'm trying use jquery ui to scale a div that I'm dragging around to make it easier to see what's behind it, but any text inside it is scaling strangely. The text itself becomes smaller, but it seems to have a bunch of padding around it and is floating now. The text extends past the bottom of the div even though it should be contained properly by the div. I put a red border around the lines of text and the borders are the same size as the original text. I'm not really sure what to do to get this to work... HTML: <div class="item draggable" id="item-1'"> <div class="image-block"> <a class="delete-button" title="delete me!" href="/remove/1" onclick="return $(this).confirm(\'Really remove this image?\');">X</a> <a class="image" href="/edit/1"><img src="/someimage.jpg" /></a> <div class="clear-block"></div> </div> <h3>Some title</h3> </div> CSS: div.image-list div.item { float:left; background:#fff; width:150px; padding:5px; margin:4px; border:1px solid #d3d5d6; } div.image-list div.item h3 { margin:0; padding:0; border:solid 1px #F00; } div.image-list div.item div.image-block a.delete-button { float:right; position:relative; background:#fff; display:none; top:0.8em; margin-bottom:-20.0em; width:3em; height:1.8em; padding:0.2em 1em; } div.image-list div.item div.image-block a.image { float:left; display:block; } .clear-block { clear:both; } jquery: $(".draggable").draggable({ helper: 'clone', start: function(ev, ui) { $(ui.helper).effect( "scale", { percent: 50 }, 200 ); } });

  Read the article

• SAX parser does not resolve filename

  - by phantom-99w

  Another day, another strange error with SAX, Java, and friends. I need to iterate over a list of File objects and pass them to a SAX parser. However, the parser fails because of an IOException. However, the various File object methods confirm that the file does indeed exist. The output which I get: 11:53:57.838 [MainThread] DEBUG DefaultReactionFinder - C:\project\trunk\application\config\reactions\TestReactions.xml 11:53:57.841 [MainThread] ERROR DefaultReactionFinder - C:\project\trunk\application\config\reactions\null (The system cannot find the file specified) So the problem is obviously that null in the second line. I've tried nearly all variations of passing the file as a parameter to the parser, including as a String (both from getAbsolutePath() and entered by hand), as a URI and, even more weirdly, as a FileInputStream (for this I get the same error, except that the entire relative path gets reported as null, so C:\project\trunk\null). All that I can think of is that the SAXParserFactory is incorrectly configured. I have no idea what is wrong, though. Here is the code concerned: SAXParserFactory factory = SAXParserFactory.newInstance(); factory.setValidating(true); try { parser = factory.newSAXParser(); } catch (ParserConfigurationException e) { throw new InstantiationException("Error configuring an XML parser. Given error message: \"" + e.getMessage() + "\"."); } catch (SAXException e) { throw new InstantiationException("Error creating a SAX parser. Given error message: \"" + e.getMessage() + "\"."); } ... for (File f : fileLister.getFileList()) { logger.debug(f.getAbsolutePath()); try { parser.parse(f, new ReactionHandler(input)); //FileInputStream fs = new FileInputStream(f); //parser.parse(fs, new ReactionHandler(input)); //fs.close(); } catch (IOException e) { logger.error(e.getMessage()); throw new ReactionNotFoundException("An error occurred processing file \"" + f + "\"."); } ... } I have made no special provisions to provide a custom SAX parser implementation: I use the system default. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• Rendering problem with UITableview

  - by Spider-Paddy

  I have a very strange problem with a UITableview within a navigation controller on the iPhone simulator. Of the cells displayed, only some are correctly rendered. They are all supposed to look the same but the majority are missing the accessory I've set, scrolling the view changes which cell has the accessory so I suspect it's some sort of cell caching happening, although the contents are correct for each cell. I also set an image as the background and that was also only displaying sporadically but I fixed that by changing cell.backgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; (which also only rendered a random cell with the background) to cell.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; I now need to fix the problem with the accessory only showing on a random cell. I tried moving the code from cellForRowAtIndex to willDisplayCell but it made no difference. I put in a log command to confirm that it is running through each frame. Basically it's a table view (UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle) that gets its info from a server & is then updated by a delegate method calling reload. Code is: -(void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(UITableViewCell *)cell forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { NSLog(@"%@", [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Setting colours for cell %i", indexPath.row]); // Set cell background // cell.backgroundView = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; cell.backgroundColor = [[UIColor alloc] initWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"yellow-bar_short.png"]]; cell.textLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; cell.detailTextLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; // detailTableViewAccessory is a view containing an imageview in this view's nib // i.e. nib <- view <- imageview <- image cell.accessoryView = detailTableViewAccessory; } // Called by data fetching object when done -(void)listDataTransferComplete:(ArticleListParser *)articleListParserObject { NSLog(@"Data parsed, reloading detail table"); self.currentTotalResultPages = (((articleListParserObject.currentArticleCount - 1) / 10) + 1); self.detailTableDataSource = [articleListParserObject.returnedArray copy]; // make a local copy of the returned array // Render table again with returned array data (neither of these 2 fixed it) [self.detailTableView performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(reloadData) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; // [self.detailTableView reloadData]; // Re-enable necessary buttons (including table cells) letUserSelectRow = TRUE; [btnByName setEnabled:TRUE]; [btnByPrice setEnabled:TRUE]; // Remove please wait message NSLog(@"Removing please wait view"); [pleaseWaitViewControllerObject.view removeFromSuperview]; } I only included code that I thought was relevant, can supply more if needed. I can't test it on an iPhone yet so I don't know if it's maybe just a simulator anomaly or a bug in my code. I've always gotten good feedback from questions, any ideas?

  Read the article

• IE7 and 8 Hangs Randomly on CSS Images

  - by BJ Safdie

  We have an ASP.NET 3.5 application that has been in production for over a year. Our last release was a couple of months ago. We use CSS for styling and application of background images to divs and such. The server is Windows 2003 with IIS. Suddenly, this week, we have had reports from some users that the page seems to hang up while loading. The status bar was showing the name of a background image used in the page main area (assigned in CSS). At our office, some of us could recreate the problem, while others could not. IE6 and Firefox do not seem to be affected, only IE7/8. Running Fiddler on an affected machine and trying to see what was happening with the requests seemed to make the problem go away (while running through Fiddler, it returned when not). Hitting Refresh on a hung load often made the page load just fine. I checked the background image, and even replaced it with an archived copy. No joy. We re-deployed the app from our production source. No Joy. We restarted IIS and eventually rebooted the whole server. There are no unusual entries in the event logs, the app logs or the IIS logs. Finally, I removed the image entirely and re-styled the page not to use a background image. That solved the problem at least for now. However, we have reports of other images "hanging." The images are PNGs, but I have heard some rumors that sometimes a GIF hangs, but I have no screenshot to confirm. This just started happening "out of the blue." There have been no releases or updates applied to the server recently. We even checked updates on clients to see if a recent Windows Update might have caused this on the client, but there was nothing updated within the last couple of weeks. If you have any information about this problem, I would love to hear from you. I would also greatly appreciate any recommendations on additional diagnostics we can try.

  Read the article

• Problem with Precision floating point operation in C

  - by Microkernel

  Hi Guys, For one of my course project I started implementing "Naive Bayesian classifier" in C. My project is to implement a document classifier application (especially Spam) using huge training data. Now I have problem implementing the algorithm because of the limitations in the C's datatype. ( Algorithm I am using is given here, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bayesian_spam_filtering ) PROBLEM STATEMENT: The algorithm involves taking each word in a document and calculating probability of it being spam word. If p1, p2 p3 .... pn are probabilities of word-1, 2, 3 ... n. The probability of doc being spam or not is calculated using Here, probability value can be very easily around 0.01. So even if I use datatype "double" my calculation will go for a toss. To confirm this I wrote a sample code given below. #define PROBABILITY_OF_UNLIKELY_SPAM_WORD (0.01) #define PROBABILITY_OF_MOSTLY_SPAM_WORD (0.99) int main() { int index; long double numerator = 1.0; long double denom1 = 1.0, denom2 = 1.0; long double doc_spam_prob; /* Simulating FEW unlikely spam words */ for(index = 0; index < 162; index++) { numerator = numerator*(long double)PROBABILITY_OF_UNLIKELY_SPAM_WORD; denom2 = denom2*(long double)PROBABILITY_OF_UNLIKELY_SPAM_WORD; denom1 = denom1*(long double)(1 - PROBABILITY_OF_UNLIKELY_SPAM_WORD); } /* Simulating lot of mostly definite spam words */ for (index = 0; index < 1000; index++) { numerator = numerator*(long double)PROBABILITY_OF_MOSTLY_SPAM_WORD; denom2 = denom2*(long double)PROBABILITY_OF_MOSTLY_SPAM_WORD; denom1 = denom1*(long double)(1- PROBABILITY_OF_MOSTLY_SPAM_WORD); } doc_spam_prob= (numerator/(denom1+denom2)); return 0; } I tried Float, double and even long double datatypes but still same problem. Hence, say in a 100K words document I am analyzing, if just 162 words are having 1% spam probability and remaining 99838 are conspicuously spam words, then still my app will say it as Not Spam doc because of Precision error (as numerator easily goes to ZERO)!!!. This is the first time I am hitting such issue. So how exactly should this problem be tackled?

  Read the article

• Preoblem with Precision floating point operation in C

  - by Microkernel

  Hi Guys, For one of my course project I started implementing "Naive Bayesian classifier" in C. My project is to implement a document classifier application (especially Spam) using huge training data. Now I have problem implementing the algorithm because of the limitations in the C's datatype. ( Algorithm I am using is given here, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bayesian_spam_filtering ) PROBLEM STATEMENT: The algorithm involves taking each word in a document and calculating probability of it being spam word. If p1, p2 p3 .... pn are probabilities of word-1, 2, 3 ... n. The probability of doc being spam or not is calculated using Here, probability value can be very easily around 0.01. So even if I use datatype "double" my calculation will go for a toss. To confirm this I wrote a sample code given below. #define PROBABILITY_OF_UNLIKELY_SPAM_WORD (0.01) #define PROBABILITY_OF_MOSTLY_SPAM_WORD (0.99) int main() { int index; long double numerator = 1.0; long double denom1 = 1.0, denom2 = 1.0; long double doc_spam_prob; /* Simulating FEW unlikely spam words */ for(index = 0; index < 162; index++) { numerator = numerator*(long double)PROBABILITY_OF_UNLIKELY_SPAM_WORD; denom2 = denom2*(long double)PROBABILITY_OF_UNLIKELY_SPAM_WORD; denom1 = denom1*(long double)(1 - PROBABILITY_OF_UNLIKELY_SPAM_WORD); } /* Simulating lot of mostly definite spam words */ for (index = 0; index < 1000; index++) { numerator = numerator*(long double)PROBABILITY_OF_MOSTLY_SPAM_WORD; denom2 = denom2*(long double)PROBABILITY_OF_MOSTLY_SPAM_WORD; denom1 = denom1*(long double)(1- PROBABILITY_OF_MOSTLY_SPAM_WORD); } doc_spam_prob= (numerator/(denom1+denom2)); return 0; } I tried Float, double and even long double datatypes but still same problem. Hence, say in a 100K words document I am analyzing, if just 162 words are having 1% spam probability and remaining 99838 are conspicuously spam words, then still my app will say it as Not Spam doc because of Precision error (as numerator easily goes to ZERO)!!!. This is the first time I am hitting such issue. So how exactly should this problem be tackled?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72  | Next Page >