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  • Samba server NETBIOS name not resolving, WINS support not working

    - by Eric
    When I try to connect to my CentOS 6.2 x86_64 server's samba shares using address \\REPO (NETBIOS name of REPO), it times out and shows an error; if I do so directly via IP, it works fine. Furthermore, my server does not work correctly as a WINS server despite my samba settings being correct for it (see below for details). If I stop the iptables service, things work properly. I'm using this page as a reference for which ports to use: http://www.samba.org/samba/docs/server_security.html Specifically: UDP/137 - used by nmbd UDP/138 - used by nmbd TCP/139 - used by smbd TCP/445 - used by smbd I really really really want to keep the secure iptables design I have below but just fix this particular problem. SMB.CONF [global] netbios name = REPO workgroup = AWESOME security = user encrypt passwords = yes # Use the native linux password database #passdb backend = tdbsam # Be a WINS server wins support = yes # Make this server a master browser local master = yes preferred master = yes os level = 65 # Disable print support load printers = no printing = bsd printcap name = /dev/null disable spoolss = yes # Restrict who can access the shares hosts allow = 127.0.0. 10.1.1. [public] path = /mnt/repo/public create mode = 0640 directory mode = 0750 writable = yes valid users = mangs repoman IPTABLES CONFIGURE SCRIPT # Remove all existing rules iptables -F # Set default chain policies iptables -P INPUT DROP iptables -P FORWARD DROP iptables -P OUTPUT DROP # Allow incoming SSH iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 22222 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 22222 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT # Allow incoming HTTP #iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 80 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT #iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 80 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT # Allow incoming Samba iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p udp --dport 137 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p udp --sport 137 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p udp --dport 138 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p udp --sport 138 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 139 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 139 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A INPUT -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 445 -m state --state NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT iptables -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 445 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT # Make these rules permanent service iptables save service iptables restart**strong text**

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  • AuthBasicProvider: failover not working when the first LDAP is down?

    - by quanta
    I've been trying to setup redundant LDAP servers with Apache 2.2.3. /etc/httpd/conf.d/authn_alias.conf <AuthnProviderAlias ldap master> AuthLDAPURL ldap://192.168.5.148:389/dc=domain,dc=vn?cn AuthLDAPBindDN cn=anonymous,ou=it,dc=domain,dc=vn AuthLDAPBindPassword pa$$w0rd </AuthnProviderAlias> <AuthnProviderAlias ldap slave> AuthLDAPURL ldap://192.168.5.199:389/dc=domain,dc=vn?cn AuthLDAPBindDN cn=anonymous,ou=it,dc=domain,dc=vn AuthLDAPBindPassword pa$$w0rd </AuthnProviderAlias> /etc/httpd/conf.d/authz_ldap.conf # # mod_authz_ldap can be used to implement access control and # authenticate users against an LDAP database. # LoadModule authz_ldap_module modules/mod_authz_ldap.so <IfModule mod_authz_ldap.c> <Location /> AuthBasicProvider master slave AuthzLDAPAuthoritative Off AuthType Basic AuthName "Authorization required" AuthzLDAPMemberKey member AuthUserFile /home/setup/svn/auth-conf AuthzLDAPSetGroupAuth user require valid-user AuthzLDAPLogLevel error </Location> </IfModule> If I understand correctly, mod_authz_ldap will try to search users in the second LDAP if the first server is down or OpenLDAP on it is not running. But in practice, it does not happen. Tested by stopping LDAP on the master, I get the "500 Internal Server Error" when accessing to the Subversion repository. The error_log shows: [11061] auth_ldap authenticate: user quanta authentication failed; URI / [LDAP: ldap_simple_bind_s() failed][Can't contact LDAP server] Did I misunderstand?

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  • Setting up DNS using VirtualMin/WebMin

    - by Nyxynyx
    I am moving from a cPanel server to one where I've installed VirtualMin. The LAMP stack and the website files have been setup properly and I can access the website by its IP address. Problem: Now its time to point my domain mydomain.com to my new server. After reading many sites describing setting up bind and master zones, I am pretty confused as to what to do, especially coming from a cPanel server where its really simple to set this up. Attempt Tried to register my nameservers ns1.mydomain.com and ns2.mydomain.com at my domain registrar, but I am missing the IPs I need to point these nameservers to. Should I set ns1.mydomain.com to the IP addres of my web server, and not register ns2.mydomain.com? When specifying the DNS for mydomain.com, the first one I've set it to ns1.apadment.com. On the manager/admin page of my webhost provider, I am given the option to create a secondary slave DNS, which I assigned to the IP address of my server. Though I am not sure how the slave DNS will copy the info from my web server? I have assigned this secondary DNS ns.hostprovider.com as the second DNS for mydomain.com I tried creating a Virtual Server under Virtualmin, but it seems to mess up Apache's DocumentRoot for the site by creating and enabling a new vhost file that ends with .conf. I edited the .conf file to point DocumentRoot back to where its supposed to be /var/www/mydomain instead of /user/mydomain.com I believe the next step is to setup the zone. Virtualmin has already created a Master Zone with 8 different addresses (www.mydomain.com, ftp.mydomain.com...). Under Nameservers, there are already 2 records. One is the hostname (random name given by hostprovider, ns12345.ip123-123.net), the other is the secondary slave DNS provided by the host provider. Does having BIND running on my web server makes the server the master DNS? Thank you!

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  • Why doesn't the Windows 7 volume mixer remember per-application levels for all applications?

    - by mdives
    If I have the device's master level set to 50, and then lower an application level to 25; Once I close that application and reopen it, the volume levels should persist. The master level should remain at 50 and the application's at 25. This does happen for most applications. However, for one in particular, Napster, it does not. I subscribe to Napster's streaming service. I use the Napster desktop application to connect to that service. Every time that I open the Napster app, I have to adjust the application's volume level down in the volume mixer. When I open the app again after closing it, I have to do the same thing, the volume mixer is not remembering the set level. In fact. The level is reset back to 50, the same level as the device's master level. Has anyone else experienced this, with Napster or any other application? Is there a solution or is this a known issue?

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  • Postfix does not work after setting server hostname from plesk

    - by Michael
    I have recently set my server hostname from localhost.localdomain to xx.mydomain.com from the plesk control panel. However after doing this change postfix has stopped working, I tried restarting and regenerating the config files but to no avail. I am not familiar with postfix but I believe there is a setting to be changed in main.cf. Here are the relevant errors I receive: postfix/postfix-script: starting the Postfix mail system postfix/master: daemon started -- version 2.8.4, configuration /etc/postfix postfix/cleanup: fatal: host/service localhost/12768 not found: Name or service not known postfix/pickup: warning: maildrop/E5559996219: error writing 4FA2C996217: queue file write error postfix/master: warning: process /usr/libexec/postfix/cleanup pid 15334 exit status 1 postfix/master: warning: /usr/libexec/postfix/cleanup: bad command startup -- throttling Any ideas? EDIT Setting it back to localhost.localdomain makes it work again. The only references to localhost/12768 I can find in main.cf are: smtpd_milters = inet:localhost:12768 non_smtpd_milters = inet:localhost:12768 Should something be changed here? These two lines stay the same when I change the hostname. EDIT If I comment out the two mail filter lines (the ones shown above) and restart, postfix works with the new hostname. However this is obviously not the ideal solution...

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  • Users database empty after Samba3 to Samba4 migration on different servers

    - by ouzmoutous
    I have to migrate a Samba 3 to a new Samba 4 server. My problem is that the database on the samba 3 server seems a bit empty. The secrets.dtb file is only 20K whereas the “pbedit -L |wc -l”command give me 16970 lines. On my Samba3 /var/lib/samba is 1,5M After I had migrate the databse (following instructions on http://dev.tranquil.it/index.php/SAMBA_-_Migration_Samba3_Samba4), “pdbedit -L” command on the new server give me only : SAMBA4$, Administrator, dns-samba4, krbtgt and nobody. So I tried to create a VM with a Samba3. I added some users, done the same things I did for the migration and now I can see the users created on the VM. It’s like users on the Samba 3 server are in a sort of cache. I already migrate the /etc/{passwd,shadow,group} files and I can see users with the “getent passwd” command. Any ideas why my users are present when I use pdbedit but the database is so empty ? The global part of my smb.conf on the Samba 3 server : [global] workgroup = INTERNET netbios name = PDC-SMB3 server string = %h server interfaces = eth0 obey pam restrictions = Yes passdb backend = smbpasswd passwd program = /usr/bin/passwd %u passwd chat = *new* %n\n *Re* %n\n *pa* username map = /etc/samba/smbusers unix password sync = Yes syslog = 0 log file = /var/log/samba/log.%U max log size = 1000 socket options = TCP_NODELAY SO_RCVBUF=8192 SO_SNDBUF=8192 add user script = /usr/sbin/useradd -s /bin/false -m '%u' -g users delete user script = /usr/sbin/userdel -r '%u' add group script = /usr/sbin/groupadd '%g' delete group script = /usr/sbin/groupdel '%g' add user to group script = /usr/sbin/usermod -G '%g' '%u' add machine script = /usr/sbin/useradd -s /bin/false -d /dev/null '%u' -g machines logon script = logon.cmd logon home = \\$L\%U domain logons = Yes os level = 255 preferred master = Yes local master = Yes domain master = Yes dns proxy = No ldap ssl = no panic action = /usr/share/samba/panic-action %d invalid users = root admin users = admin, root, administrateur log level = 2

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  • Permission / owner issue with pushing to git when editing directly from repo?

    - by Susan
    I have a web interface for deploying scripts from our repo at Github to our live server. The web interface just triggers a bash script with some git commands. If I make changes locally, push to repo, then run the bash script to pull from repo to live it works fine. However, if I make changes directly in the repo (via Github's web interface), I'm running into fast-forward / lock issues. These are the steps I'm taking: Make a change on a file at Github repo Run a bash script (as apache) via web from live server that attempts a git push / pull. Get these problems: PUSH To [email protected]:name/name.git ! [rejected] master - master (non-fast-forward) error: failed to push some refs to '[email protected]:name/name.git' To prevent you from losing history, non-fast-forward updates were rejected Merge the remote changes before pushing again. See the 'Note about fast-forwards' section of 'git push --help' for details. PULL From github.com:name/name branch master - FETCH_HEAD error: unable to unlink old 'includes/footer.inc' (Permission denied) Updating 8f6d922..d1eba9d Updating 8f6d922..d1eba9d SSH in as root, attempt a push / pull and it works fine. Ideas on why would this method not work from apache?

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  • Monitoring multiple sites on a single server using OpsView

    - by Kev
    We have several web servers. On each of these servers there can be ~250 web sites. I need to add a HTTP check for each site on each server. Each site has a reserved host header that we know can always be resolved in the format of: w10000.hostchecks.mycompany.com w10020.hostchecks.mycompany.com w11992.hostchecks.mycompany.com ..and so on.. What I want is for there to be a master ping check on the web server's main IP address and then separate HTTP checks for each of the sites on the server. If the master ping test fails then I want the HTTP tests to cease until the master ping check goes OK. I had a stab at this and tried do the following: Create a parent host that does a ping check on the server's main ip address (e.g. server is named WEB0001). For each of the sites that reside on WEB0001: Create a separate Host with a Primary Hostname of wXXXXX.hostchecks.mycompany.com Make WEB0001 the parent host Add a monitor (HTTP check to a special url that is mapped into each site using a virtual directory: H- $HOSTADDRESS$ -u /__hostcheck/IsAlive.aspx -w 5 -c 10 -p 80 However I find that if I down the parent server (WEB0001) the http checks seem to continue. Am I going about this completely the wrong way?

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  • Multiple LDAP servers with mod_authn_alias: failover not working when the first LDAP is down?

    - by quanta
    I've been trying to setup redundant LDAP servers with Apache 2.2.3. /etc/httpd/conf.d/authn_alias.conf <AuthnProviderAlias ldap master> AuthLDAPURL ldap://192.168.5.148:389/dc=domain,dc=vn?cn AuthLDAPBindDN cn=anonymous,ou=it,dc=domain,dc=vn AuthLDAPBindPassword pa$$w0rd </AuthnProviderAlias> <AuthnProviderAlias ldap slave> AuthLDAPURL ldap://192.168.5.199:389/dc=domain,dc=vn?cn AuthLDAPBindDN cn=anonymous,ou=it,dc=domain,dc=vn AuthLDAPBindPassword pa$$w0rd </AuthnProviderAlias> /etc/httpd/conf.d/authz_ldap.conf # # mod_authz_ldap can be used to implement access control and # authenticate users against an LDAP database. # LoadModule authz_ldap_module modules/mod_authz_ldap.so <IfModule mod_authz_ldap.c> <Location /> AuthBasicProvider master slave AuthzLDAPAuthoritative Off AuthType Basic AuthName "Authorization required" AuthzLDAPMemberKey member AuthUserFile /home/setup/svn/auth-conf AuthzLDAPSetGroupAuth user require valid-user AuthzLDAPLogLevel error </Location> </IfModule> If I understand correctly, mod_authz_ldap will try to search users in the second LDAP if the first server is down or OpenLDAP on it is not running. But in practice, it does not happen. Tested by stopping LDAP on the master, I get the "500 Internal Server Error" when accessing to the Subversion repository. The error_log shows: [11061] auth_ldap authenticate: user quanta authentication failed; URI / [LDAP: ldap_simple_bind_s() failed][Can't contact LDAP server] Did I misunderstand? AuthBasicProvider ldap1 ldap2 only means that if mod_authz_ldap can't find the user in ldap1, it will continue with ldap2. It doesn't include the failover feature (ldap1 must be running and working fine)?

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  • Multimaster Keepalived Configuration (Virtual IP with Load Balancing)

    - by Rad Akefirad
    Here are requirements: 1. High Availability 2. Load Balancing First configuration 1. Two linux servers have been configured with one static IP for each: 10.17.243.11, 10.17.243.12 2. Keepalived has been installed and configured with one VRRP instance to provide one virtual IP (10.17.243.10 as VIP, 10.17.243.11 as master and 10.17.243.12 as backup). 3. Everything works fine. The VIP is assigned to the master server (10.17.243.11) as long as it is up and running. As soon as it goes down, the VIP will be assigned to the backup server (10.17.243.12). 4. The problem here is all communication goes to the master server. Second configuration 1. I found active-active configuration for Keepalived which is possible by defining more than one VRRP instance. So that both server have two IPs (real 10.17.243.11 and virtual 10.17.243.10 for server #1 and real 10.17.243.12 and virtual 10.17.243.20 for server #2. 2. Everything works fine. we have two VIPs which are accessible (HA). But all communication coming to each IP still goes to one single machine (either server #1 or #2 depending on the IP). However I found some tricks on the DNS to overcome this limitation. But it's not acceptable in our case. Question: Is there any way to have one virtual IP which is assigned to both servers? By that I mean both servers are handling some part of workload (like the thing we do in web server load balancing)? By using either keepalived or some other tools? Thanks in advance.

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  • Procurve Primary VLAN

    - by fukawi2
    I'm trying to depreciate usage of VLAN 1 on my ProCurve switches; 1 is unused. I understand that VLAN 1 must exist, but I want to remove it from all ports, especially trunks between switches. The problem I have is that stacking does not seem to work without VLAN 1. I have changed the primary VLAN and management VLAN on all the switches: (config)# primary-vlan 42 (config)# management-vlan 42 (config)# no vlan 1 untagged 25 Port 25 is the link between the 2 switches I'm testing with; the stack master and a member switch; I only want tagged traffic between the switches, no untagged frames. show stacking on the master shows all members as "UP" but I can not telnet any of them: Telnet failed: Connection timed out. All switches have manually assigned (static) IP addresses on VLAN 42, and all exist in the same /25 subnet, as does my desktop. I can telnet the switches directly from my desktop to the individual switch IP addresses, just not from the master switch. Do I need to reboot the switches to have the primary-vlan change take effect? Or is there something else I'm missing?

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  • Replacing HD in an MacOS 10.6.8 server caused all shares to fail

    - by Cheesus
    I'm hoping someone might have a helpful suggestion about this problem. We have 2 MacOSX servers available for file sharing. (quad Xeons - 2GB RAM, both 10.6.8), No.1 is an Open Directory Master with 50+ user accounts, No.2 has only 2 local accounts (/local/Default) and looks at the OD Master for all user accounts (/LDAPv3/10.x.x.20/) Both servers have 3 internal HD's, The boot volume with only Server OS and minimal Apps. A 'DataShare' HD (500GB) and a backup drive (500GB). After upgrading the DataShare HD in Server No.2 from a small internal HD (500GB) to larger capacity (2TB) drive, users are unable to connect to shares on Server No.2. Users get an error "There are no shares available or you are not allowed to access them on the server" The process I followed was to use Carbon Copy Cloner to create an exact copy of the original data drive (keeps all ownership data, UID, permissions, last edit date and time). Everything booted up ok, no indication there was any issues. (Paths to the sharepoint look good) Notes during troubleshooting - Server1 is operating perfectly, all users can access shares and authenticate etc. - I've checked the SACL (Server Access Control List) settings is ok. - On Server2 in the Server Admin' app, I can see all the shares listed ok. The paths seem valid, I can disable / reenable the shares, no errors. - On Server2 'workgroup manager' lists all the accounts from the OD Master in the LDAP dir view. All seems fine from here. Basically everything looks normal but no file shares on Server2 can be accessed from regular users.

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  • HD working with IDE USB adapter but not recognised by bios

    - by Rajeeva
    I have a Windows XP Pentium III desktop with two hard drives. The first one has the OS and is luckily working. The second drive on the secondary master IDE channel few days back was unable to read some files and since then for some time it was failing and reviving intermittently and now it is always showing as failed on the IDE channel When the HD was intermittenly failing, I was able to copy some data from it to the other drive - also during that time if the system was running and the hard disk failed at that time, the system froze and then i had to reboot. then I got a new 80 gb hdd similar (same make - seagate barracuda) to the earlier failing one, a new data cable for the drive and an IDE to USB adapter. the new hard drive i installed in the previous drive's place (secondary master), formatted it and it worked for 1 day and then it also failed - simultaneously i connected the old hd to the IDE/USB adapter and i could view all the data - some of that data i was able to back up from the old hd to the new hd before the new hd failed the new hd i have tried connecting on the primary channel as the slave disk but when i do that then the bios does not detect either the OS drive or the new drive and the system does not boot surprisingly, the older (previously failed) hd and the new hd are both working fine on the usb channel with the IDE/USB adapter. i have ruled out any problem with the secondary channel since the dvd rom i was earlier using as primary slave have now connected to secondary master and it works fine. i am really confused by this behavior on my system. please can anybody try to solve this for me. thanks.

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  • Are these hardwares compatible?

    - by Tom Kaufmann
    I am trying to upgrade my new machine but I want to do it myself. This is my 1st attempt at building system. After carefully reading reviewing feedback and my budget I have decided to select the below listed components. Can anybody let me know are they compatible or not? Transcend 64 GB 2.5" SATA Solid State Drive Asus GeForce GTX550 1GB DDR5 ENGTX550 TI DI/1GD5 Graphics Card Seagate Barracuda 1 TB HDD Internal Hard Drive Cooler Master eXtreme Power Pro 600 Power Supply Intel Core i5 2500K Sandy Bridge 3.30 GHz 95 W 4 Core Desktop Processor Intel DX79TO Motherboard Corsair CMZ8GX3M2A1600C9 8 GB DDR3 SDRAM 1600 MHz Dual Channel Kit Desktop Memory Sony AD-7260S-ZS Internal DVD Writer - Black Cooler Master Hyper TX3 EVO Intel CPU Cooler Cooler Master Elite 335U Cabinet LG E2051T 20.1 Inch SuperSlim Monitor Is any of these hardware components incompatible with I5 2500K? If you have any other suggestions for selecting any other harwdware that can boost up my performance or lower my cost while having the same performance, please suggest. But my primary questions is whether they are compatible or not! Any help is appreciated. Thank you.

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  • What method of MySQL mirroring should I use for this?

    - by user45745
    I'm running an web application hosting service (basically hosting forums for free), and I have two remote servers at my disposal. The code for the application is stored on both servers and isn't a problem, but I'm wondering how to deal with the databases. When someone goes onto a site *.example-host.com, they are sent to one of the two servers and both must be capable of loading the forums from a database. The database must also have write access, for when new members register or post topics etc. The main requirement is speed, but uptime is also important (if a server goes out, the site should still work). I have a few options, but I'm inexperienced and not sure which to go with: 1) [PHP] Split the forum records 50:50 between the two servers. If a server does not have the record for a forum requested, it can request it from the other by remote MySQL and load it. This idea sounded okay, until I realised that 50% of the time, users would be waiting significantly longer for pages to load. I also realised that if one of the servers went down, half the forums would be inaccessible and registrations would have to be disabled. 2) [MySQL] Dual master replication. This would attempt to mirror the two databases and sounds perfect, but I've heard that it can be very problematic. I don't know how fast this is. 3) [MySQL] Use a standard replication, distribute read only queries on both nodes and read/write queries to the master. This sounds like a good option, but again, I'm not sure on speed. I also don't know what would happen if the master server went down. If you have any other suggestions, please post them :)

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  • RadGrid nestedview sort makes nestedview disappear?

    - by lance
    When I click on the header of my detail table, it disappears entirely, leaving empty white space in the browser where it used to be. The Ajax postback caused by my clicking on the header does fire FooGridNeedDataSource and FooGridItemCommand, but I've used the debugger to skip the code inside those handlers (after clicking the header of the column I'm trying to sort, in the detail table), and I still get the same behavior. I'm hoping someone can tell me what I'm doing wrong? The MasterTableView sorts just fine (my real markup enables that with AllowSorting="true" on MasterTableView). <telerik:RadGrid ID="FooGrid" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" OnNeedDataSource="FooGridNeedDataSource" OnItemCommand="FooGridItemCommand" > <MasterTableView ClientDataKeyNames="FooData" DataKeyNames="FooData"> <Columns> <telerik:GridBoundColumn DataField="FooData" HeaderText="Foo"></telerik:GridBoundColumn> </Columns> <DetailTables> <telerik:GridTableView AllowSorting="true"> <Columns> <telerik:GridBoundColumn DataField="FooDetailData" HeaderText="Foo Detail" ></telerik:GridBoundColumn> </Columns> </telerik:GridTableView> </DetailTables> </MasterTableView> </telerik:RadGrid>

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  • Confused with an ASP.NET/WCF WSDL Parsing Error

    - by Vaccano
    I have a WCF Web Service that my ASP.NET app uses. It has been working fine for quite some time. I just added in a Dev Express Grid (and the Dev Express DLLs) and a new page that uses them and now I am getting parsing errors on the WSDL. But the weird part is that it works fine on my machine but fails on the web server machine. (Both are connecting to the same web services WSDL.) Here is the error message I am getting: Server Error in '/MyWebAppWebDev' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Reference.svcmap: Failed to generate code for the service reference 'MyWebAppService'. Cannot import wsdl:portType Detail: An exception was thrown while running a WSDL import extension: System.ServiceModel.Description.DataContractSerializerMessageContractImporter Error: Referenced type 'WebClientApp.MyWebAppService.ReferenceUpdatesDataContract, WebClientApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' with data contract name 'ReferenceUpdatesDataContract' in namespace 'http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/MyWebAppServiceLibrary.DataContracts' cannot be used since it does not match imported DataContract. Need to exclude this type from referenced types. XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='IMyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib'] Cannot import wsdl:binding Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:portType that the wsdl:binding is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:portType: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:portType[@name='IMyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] Cannot import wsdl:port Detail: There was an error importing a wsdl:binding that the wsdl:port is dependent on. XPath to wsdl:binding: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:binding[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] XPath to Error Source: //wsdl:definitions[@targetNamespace='http://tempuri.org/']/wsdl:service[@name='MyWebAppReferenceDataServiceLib']/wsdl:port[@name='MyWebAppServicesDefaultEndpoint'] Source Error: [No relevant source lines] Source File: /MyWebAppWebDev/App_WebReferences/MyWebAppService/ Line: 1 I am completely stumped on this. I have checked my web.config endpoint address and it is spot on (and notably is not in the error message above). Any ideas would be welcomed.

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  • UIView Controller mysteriously getting deallocated

    - by Dan Ray
    I have a UINavigation scheme with a "welcome" page, a middle page, and a detail page. In the middle page, there's a segmented controller that can swap the main body of that page between a table, a calendar, and a MKMapView, each implemented with their own view controller classes. Today I implemented the MapView and its annotations and all of that. It's nice. And a detail disclosure on each callout takes you to the detail page just the same way as if you'd gotten there via the table. Lovely. I also have a right-button-bar button that pushes in a "search" view. From there you can search the data I'm navigating. When it's done filtering the data (an array of objects I'm keeping in a data singleton), it makes the table reload its data, and calls my annotation-clearer-and-builder methods on the map view, and then pops itself out, so the "middle" page (including whatever view was in the guts of it) is back on the screen. Problem is, if I go back and forth between the map and the search a couple times, any mention of the table view causes us to crash with: *** -[CALayer retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x710b810. (I obviously have NSZombies turned on.) I put an NSLog in the dealloc method of my table view controller. That thing's never getting called. I don't know if we're ditching it behind the scenes for memory purposes, or if I'm leaking it and can't get my hands back on it, or what. I'm sort of at a loss about where to look. Any hints?

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  • Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

    - by Collin Allen
    The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

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  • How can you trigger the viewWillAppear of a UITableView AFTER its UINavigationController?

    - by Troy Sartain
    I have a situation where I use a tab bar set up but with nav bar controllers on a couple tabs. Those tabs have table views on them. Everything works great, I can pick a tab and get a different table in a nav bar structure. The other tabs are non-nav controllers. Fine. I want to use the same table view controller and even the same detail screen since they are essentially the same format. I have two-dimensional arrays and a couple of vars tracking which tab and which table row so when I get to the detail it's all good. Now to the problem. It all seems to work just fine until I return to a tab that has already been visited. At that point, I do indeed get a viewWillAppear for both the view controller of that specific tab and the table view controller. However, I get the table view one first! It doesn't know which tab was tapped on; the other one does but that's too late to dynamically change the table! Any suggestions? Am I being too greedy about code duplication? I mean I could just make separate controllers for for each table view and then separate detail view controllers but I thought I had a good solution.

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  • OO model for nsxmlparser when delegate is not self

    - by richard
    Hi, I am struggling with the correct design for the delegates of nsxmlparser. In order to build my table of Foos, I need to make two types of webservice calls; one for the whole table and one for each row. It's essentially a master-query then detail-query, except the master-query-result-xml doesn't return enough information so i then need to query the detail for each row. I'm not dealing with enormous amounts of data. Anyway - previously I've just used NSXMLParser *parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; [parser setDelegate:self]; [parser parse]; and implemented all the appropriate delegate methods in whatever class i'm in. In attempt at cleanliness, I've now created two separate delegate classes and done something like: NSXMLParser *xp = [[NSXMLParser alloc]init]; MyMasterXMLParserDelegate *masterParserDelegate = [[MyMasterXMLParser]alloc]init]; [xp setDelegate:masterParserDelegate]; [xp parse]; In addition to being cleaner (in my opinion, at least), it also means each of the -parser:didStartElement implementations don't spend most of the time trying to figure out which xml they're parsing. So now the real crux of the problem. Before i split out the delegates, i had in the main class that was also implementing the delegate methods, a class-level NSMutableArray that I would just put my objects-created-from-xml in when -parser:didEndElement found the 'end' of each record. Now the delegates are in separate classes, I can't figure out how to have the -parser:didEndElement in the 'detail' delegate class "return" the created object to the calling class. At least, not in a clean OO way. I'm sure i could do it with all sorts of nasty class methods. Does the question make sense? Thanks.

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  • How to get address the object of an related entity with CoreData ?

    - by eemceebee
    Hi Ok, after I ran into a dead end modifieing an existing Apple example for CoreData, I started completely new creating my own project and that worked fine,..... until I tried to access a related entity. So here is what I did. I created 2 entities, where one is just the detail information of the other one, so there is a one-2-one relationship. Entity #1, Stocks: name value details -- relationship to Entity #2 Entity #2, StockDetails: bank published stock -- relationship to Entity #1 Now, I created the "Managed Object Class" for both of the Entities. Then I created a few lines to put some data into it NSManagedObjectContext *context = [self managedObjectContext]; Stocks *stockinfo= [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Stocks" inManagedObjectContext:context]; stockinfo.name = @"Apple"; stockinfo.value = [NSNumber numberWithInt:200]; StockDetails *thestockdetails = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"StockDetails" inManagedObjectContext:context]; thestockdetails.bank = @"Bank of America"; thestockdetails.published = [NSDate date]; thestockdetails.stock = stocks_; stockinfo.details = thestockdetails ; NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { NSLog(@"A Problem occured, couldn't save: %@", [error localizedDescription]); } Just want to mention here, that I do not get an error with this. Next I put everything into a UITableViewController for a preview and another for a detail view. The preview just shows infos form Entity #1 (Stocks) and when selected it shows the detail view. Now here I also display the infos form Entity #1 (Stocks) but I want to show the Entity #2 (StockDetails) aswell. This is how I try to access the data : StockDetails *details_ = [stockinfo details]; And this gives me a EXC_BAD_ACCESS. So any idea what I am doing wrong here ? Thanks

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  • objective C underscore property vs self

    - by user1216838
    I'm was playing around with the standard sample split view that gets created when you select a split view application in Xcode, and after adding a few fields i needed to add a few fields to display them in the detail view. and something interesting happend in the original sample, the master view sets a "detailItem" property in the detail view and the detail view displays it. - (void)setDetailItem:(id) newDetailItem { if (_detailItem != newDetailItem) { _detailItem = newDetailItem; // Update the view. [self configureView]; } i understand what that does and all, so while i was playing around with it. i thought it would be the same if instead of _detailItem i used self.detailItem, since it's a property of the class. however, when i used self.detailItem != newDetailItem i actually got stuck in a loop where this method is constantly called and i cant do anything else in the simulator. my question is, whats the actual difference between the underscore variables(ivar?) and the properties? i read some posts here it seems to be just some objective C convention, but it actually made some difference.

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  • How to reference {{outlet}} in Ember.CollectionView's itemView

    - by ceed
    I am new to ember and ran into a problem and could not find an answer online. I have a collectionView App.MyView = Ember.CollectionView.extend({ itemViewClass: 'App.MyViewItem', contentBinding: 'controller' }); and the itemViewClass App.MyViewItem = Ember.View.extend({ templateName: 'mytemplate' }); the template looks like that: <div {{action 'select' view.content}}>{{view.content.name}}</div> {{outlet detail}} </div> This produces the content list just fine. In the controller, I have an action: select: function(evt){ this.transitionToRoute('item', evt); } What I want to do is to transition to a nested route when selecting the item (which works fine) and also load more data of the selected item into {{outlet detail}}. While I can load the content of the "item" route into an outlet of e.g. application.hbs, I don't know how to reference the outlet of the selected collectionView item so that the detailed contents are displayed within the existing view. I tried to use: this.render('item', { outlet: 'detail', into: '????' }); within the item Route, but I don't know how to reference the collectionview item template. Maybe there's also a much easier way of loading more data from an item in the item's view (while changing the route at the same time). Any help would be appreciated.

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  • can't edit my h:datatable

    - by Mike
    hi! i have this code: <h:form> <rich:dataTable value="#{my.lreqs}" var="req" id="reqs" width="630px" > <rich:column label="Value" styleClass="schColL" width="90px" style="text-align:center"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="#{my.colValue}" /> </f:facet> <h:inputText value="#{req.value}" > </h:inputText> </rich:column> </rich:dataTable> <h:commandButton value="Save" action="#{my.saveChanges}" ></h:commandButton> </h:form> and this is my bean: private List<Detail> lreqs; public List<Detail> getLreqs() { return lreqs; } public void setLreqs(List<Detail> lreqs) { this.lreqs = lreqs; } public void saveChanges() { firstNewValue = lreqs.get(0).getValue(); } but when i click save - a new value in req.value field is not being saved! why is it?

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