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Java - Problem in deploying Web Application

- by Yatendra Goel

I have built a Java Web Application and packed it in a .war file and tested it on my local tomcat server and it is running fine. But when I deployed it on my client's server, it is showing an error. According to the remote server (my client's server), it is not finding a tld file packed in a jar file which I had placed in WEB-INF/lib directory. But when I checked the WEB-INF/lib directory for the jar file, i found that it was there. The contents of META-INF/MANIFEST.MF is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: I think that there is no need to explicitly mention the classpath of WEB-INF/lib directory as it is in the classpath of any web application by default. Then, why the server can't find the jar file in the lib directory when I deployed it on a remote server and why it is working when I deployed the same application on my local server. I posted a question for this at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2441254/struts-1-struts-taglib-jar-is-not-being-found-by-my-web-application but found that the problem is unusual as nobody could answer it. So my questions are as follows: Q1. Is WEB-INF/lib still remains on the classpath if I leave the classpath entry blank as shown above in the MANIFEST.MF file or I should delete the classpath entry completely from the file or I should explicitly enter Class-Path: /WEB-INF/lib as the classpath entry? Q2. I have JSP pages, Servlets and some helper classes in the web application. Jsp pages are located at the root. Servlets and helper classes are located in WEB-INF/classes folder. So Is there any problem if my helper classes are located in the WEB-INF/classes folder? Note: Please note that this question is not same as my previous question. It is a follow-up question of my previous question. Both the servers (local and remote) are tomcat servers.

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Scala type inference failure on "? extends" in Java code

- by oxbow_lakes

I have the following simple Java code: package testj; import java.util.*; public class Query<T> { private static List<Object> l = Arrays.<Object>asList(1, "Hello", 3.0); private final Class<? extends T> clazz; public static Query<Object> newQuery() { return new Query<Object>(Object.class); } public Query(Class<? extends T> clazz) { this.clazz = clazz; } public <S extends T> Query<S> refine(Class<? extends S> clazz) { return new Query<S>(clazz); } public List<T> run() { List<T> r = new LinkedList<T>(); for (Object o : l) { if (clazz.isInstance(o)) r.add(clazz.cast(o)); } return r; } } I can call this from Java as follows: Query<String> sq = Query.newQuery().refine(String.class); //NOTE NO <String> But if I try and do the same from Scala: val sq = Query.newQuery().refine(classOf[String]) I get the following error: error: type mismatch found :lang.this.class[scala.this.Predef.String] required: lang.this.class[?0] forSome{ type ?0 <: ? } val sq = Query.newQuery().refine(classOf[String]) This is only fixed by the insertion of the correct type parameter! val sq = Query.newQuery().refine[String](classOf[String]) Why can't scala infer this from my argument? Note I am using Scala 2.7

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Function with parameter type that has a copy-constructor with non-const ref chosen?

- by Johannes Schaub - litb

Some time ago I was confused by the following behavior of some code when I wanted to write a is_callable<F, Args...> trait. Overload resolution won't call functions accepting arguments by non-const ref, right? Why doesn't it reject in the following because the constructor wants a Test&? I expected it to take f(int)! struct Test { Test() { } // I want Test not be copyable from rvalues! Test(Test&) { } // But it's convertible to int operator int() { return 0; } }; void f(int) { } void f(Test) { } struct WorksFine { }; struct Slurper { Slurper(WorksFine&) { } }; struct Eater { Eater(WorksFine) { } }; void g(Slurper) { } void g(Eater) { } // chooses this, as expected int main() { // Error, why? f(Test()); // But this works, why? g(WorksFine()); } Error message is m.cpp: In function 'int main()': m.cpp:33:11: error: no matching function for call to 'Test::Test(Test)' m.cpp:5:3: note: candidates are: Test::Test(Test&) m.cpp:2:3: note: Test::Test() m.cpp:33:11: error: initializing argument 1 of 'void f(Test)' Can you please explain why one works but the other doesn't?

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C++: parsing with simple regular expression or shoud I use sscanf?

- by Helltone

I need to parse a string like func1(arg1, arg2); func2(arg3, arg4);. It's not a very complex parsing problem, so I would prefer to avoid resorting to flex/bison or similar utilities. My first approch was to try to use POSIX C regcomp/regexec or Boost implementation of C++ std::regex. I wrote the following regular expression, which does not work (I'll explain why further on). "^" "[ ;\t\n]*" "(" // (1) identifier "[a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z0-9_]*" ")" "[ \t\n]*" "(" // (2) non-marking "\[" "(" // (3) non-marking "[ \t]*" "(" // (4..n-1) argument "[a-zA-Z0-9_]+" ")" "[ \t\n]*" "," ")*" "[ \t\n]*" "(" // (n) last argument "[a-zA-Z0-9_]+" ")" "]" ")?" "[ \t\n]*" ";" Note that the group 1 captures the identifier and groups 4..n-1 are intended to capture arguments except the last, which is captured by group n. When I apply this regex to, say func(arg1, arg2, arg3) the result I get is an array {func, arg2, arg3}. This is wrong because arg1 is not in it! The problem is that in the standard regex libraries, submarkings only capture the last match. In other words, if you have for instance the regex "((a*|b*))*" applied on "babb", the results of the inner match will be bb and all previous captures will have been forgotten. Another thing that annoys me here is that in case of error there is no way to know which character was not recognized as these functions provide very little information about the state of the parser when the input is rejected. So I don't know if I'm missing something here... In this case should I use sscanf or similar instead? Note that I prefer to use C/C++ standard libraries (and maybe boost).

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Populate a column as a result of performing math on two columns in a jqGrid.

- by HacksawOnRye

Background: Our company selected a workflow tool that has some "interersting" UI restrictions. jqGrid has been identified as one of best ways to overcome these restrictions. Consequently, the answers to this question need to be restricted to functionlity available within the jqGrid space. It pains me to pose this question and I know you will tempted to go down a million other paths - most that we have already traveled before. :( Question: Can jqGrid populate a column as a result of performing math on two other columns. The source of those two columns is in our control so we can "guarantee" that numeric data will be returned. Also, the result is something that we simplay want to display on demand but not store yet. On the example below, is there a function that allow the 'total' column to be populated from the following calculation: 'amount' * 'tax' Example jqGrid javascript: jQuery("#list3").jqGrid({ url:'server.php?q=2', datatype: "json", colNames:['Inv No','Date', 'Client', 'Amount','Tax','Total','Notes'], colModel:[ {name:'id',index:'id', width:60, sorttype:"int"}, {name:'invdate',index:'invdate', width:90, sorttype:"date"}, {name:'name',index:'name', width:100}, {name:'amount',index:'amount', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'tax',index:'tax', width:80, align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'total',index:'total', width:80,align:"right",sorttype:"float"}, {name:'note',index:'note', width:150, sortable:false} ], rowNum:20, rowList:[10,20,30], pager: '#pager3', sortname: 'id', viewrecords: true, sortorder: "desc", loadonce: true, caption: "Load Once Example" });

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Problem using the prependTo() in jQuery

- by raulriera

Hi all, I am having a problem trying to use the prependTo() function in jQuery... for some reason I can't get this to work $(" <div id="note178" class="note"> <div class="delete"><a href="/chart-notes/delete/178" onclick="$.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: '/chart-notes/delete/178'}); return false;"><img src='/images/icons/delete.png'></a></div> <div class="timestamp">1 minute ago </div> <div class="content">ñasdas dasdasdasd conclusión</div> </div> ").prependTo(".notes").fadeIn("slow"); Although when doing it like this, it works fine $.ajax({ url:'/chart-notes/show/<cfoutput>#chartnote.id#</cfoutput>', success: function(data) { $(data).prependTo(".notes").fadeIn("slow"); // Scroll to the top of the annotations $('html, body').animate({scrollTop: $(".notes").offset().top}, 1000); // Clear the form $('#chartnote-notes').val(""); } }); The "data" response from that success function is the same <div id="note178" class="note"> <div class="delete"><a href="/chart-notes/delete/178" onclick="$.ajax({ dataType: 'script', url: '/chart-notes/delete/178'}); return false;"><img src='/images/icons/delete.png'></a></div> <div class="timestamp">1 minute ago </div> <div class="content">ñasdas dasdasdasd conclusión</div> </div> As before

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How to Update with LINQ?

- by DaveDev

currently, I'm doing an update similar to as follows, because I can't see a better way of doing it. I've tried suggestions that I've read in blogs but none work, such as http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb425822.aspx and http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2007/05/19/using-linq-to-sql-part-1.aspx Maybe these do work and I'm missing some point. Has anyone else had luck with them? // please note this isn't the actual code. // I've modified it to clarify the point I wanted to make // and also I didn't want to post our code here! public bool UpdateMyStuff(int myId, List<int> funds) { // get MyTypes that correspond to the ID I want to update IQueryable<MyType> myTypes = database.MyTypes.Where(xx => xx.MyType_MyId == myId); // delete them from the database foreach (db.MyType mt in myTypes) { database.MyTypes.DeleteOnSubmit(mt); } database.SubmitChanges(); // create a new row for each item I wanted to update, and insert it foreach (int fund in funds) { database.MyType mt = new database.MyType { MyType_MyId = myId, fund_id = fund }; database.MyTypes.InsertOnSubmit(mt); } // try to commit the insert try { database.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; throw; } } Unfortunately, there isn't a database.MyTypes.Update() method so I don't know a better way to do it. Can sombody suggest what I could do? Thanks. ..as a side note, why isn't there an Update() method?

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In App Purchase Unique Identifying Data

- by dageshi

O.K so I'm writing a iPhone travel guide, you purchase a subscription to a travel guide for 3 months, it downloads a fairly hefty database and for 3 months that database gets updated weekly with new stuff. Now what I'd like to do is make the user enter their email address as a one off action before they purchase their first guide, for China say. The purpose for doing this is 1) To allow me to contact the user by email when they add a note/tip for a particular place (the app will allow them to send notes & information to me) 2) To Uniquely identify who has purchased the subscription so that if they wipe their device and reinstall the app they can plug the email address in and pickup their subscriptions again. Or so they can use the same subscription on another device they own. My concerns are 1) Will Apple allow the email method of restoring functionality to a second or restored device? 2) As long as I tell the user what I'm using their email address for (aka I won't sell it to anyone else and use it for X purposes) will it be o.k to ask for said email address? And as a side note, can I tack the devices unique id onto my server comms to track devices or is apple going to through a hissy fit about that as well?

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Kohana Sessions data does not persist across pages in chrome and ir browsers

- by user1062637

Kohana Session data does not persist across pages opened in Chrome and IE browsers the same works fine in a Firefox browser Kohana version used is 2.3 session config files hold $config['driver'] = 'native'; /** * Session storage parameter, used by drivers. */ $config['storage'] = ''; /** * Session name. * It must contain only alphanumeric characters and underscores. At least one letter must be present. */ $config['name'] = 'NITWSESSID'; /** * Session parameters to validate: user_agent, ip_address, expiration. */ $config['validate'] = array(); /** * Enable or disable session encryption. * Note: this has no effect on the native session driver. * Note: the cookie driver always encrypts session data. Set to TRUE for stronger encryption. */ $config['encryption'] = FALSE; /** * Session lifetime. Number of seconds that each session will last. * A value of 0 will keep the session active until the browser is closed (with a limit of 24h). */ $config['expiration'] = 2700; /** * Number of page loads before the session id is regenerated. * A value of 0 will disable automatic session id regeneration. */ $config['regenerate'] = 0; /** * Percentage probability that the gc (garbage collection) routine is started. */ $config['gc_probability'] = 2; Help needed urgently

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C++ function overloading and dynamic binding compile problem

- by Olorin

#include <iostream> using namespace std; class A { public: virtual void foo(void) const { cout << "A::foo(void)" << endl; } virtual void foo(int i) const { cout << i << endl; } virtual ~A() {} }; class B : public A { public: void foo(int i) const { this->foo(); cout << i << endl; } }; class C : public B { public: void foo(void) const { cout << "C::foo(void)" << endl; } }; int main(int argc, char ** argv) { C test; test.foo(45); return 0; } The above code does not compile with: $>g++ test.cpp -o test.exe test.cpp: In member function 'virtual void B::foo(int) const': test.cpp:17: error: no matching function for call to 'B::foo() const' test.cpp:17: note: candidates are: virtual void B::foo(int) const test.cpp: In function 'int main(int, char**)': test.cpp:31: error: no matching function for call to 'C::foo(int)' test.cpp:23: note: candidates are: virtual void C::foo() const It compiles if method "foo(void)" is changed to "goo(void)". Why is this so? Is it possible to compile the code without changing the method name of "foo(void)"? Thanks.

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Load random swf object with jquery

- by Eggnog

I'm working on a site that utilizes full screen background video. I have three flash videos I'd like to load into the page which would be displayed randomly on page refresh. I know you can achieve this through action script loading the movies into one main .swf, but I'm rubbish with Flash and am looking for an alternative solution. My search so far has uncovered a method using jquery. Unfortunately my attempts to implement it have failed. I'm hoping someone more knowledgeable than myself can tell me if this technique is valid or what I'm doing wrong. Here's my code to date: <script type="text/javascript" src="files/js/swfobject.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var sPath; var i = Math.floor(Math.random()*2); switch(i) { case 0: sPath = "flash/homepage_video.swf"; break; case 1: sPath = "flash/homepage_video.swf"; break; } // load the flash version of the image var so = new SWFObject(sPath, "flash-background", "100%", "100%"); so.addParam("scale", "exactFit"); so.addParam("movie", sPath); // NOTE: the sPath variable is also used here so.addParam("quality", "high"); so.addParam("wmode", "transparent"); so.write("homeBackground"); // NOTE: The value in this call to write() MUST match the name of the // HTML element (<div>) you're expecting the swf to show up in }); </script> <body> <div id="homeBackground"> <p>This is alternative content</p> </div> </body> I'm open to other suggestions that don't involve jquery (php perhaps). Thanks.

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What is the correct high level schema.org microdata itemtype for a retail brand/company homepage?

- by kpowz

I'd like to hear which schema.org itemtype others would recommend using or have used in the case of completing a retail brand's company homepage microdata. Take for example TOMS's shoes: Example #1 - Using /Corporation as the high-level itemtype one can include a lot of great /Organization microdata, but nothing about the retail store. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Website> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Corporation> various microdata here probably including Product microdata </body> </html> NOTE: the only schema.org property specific to /Corporation is tickerSymbol & TOMS doesn't have one. Example #2 - This code would work if TOMS started their own channel of physical retail stores & each location had it's own homepage. However, for TOMS's.com, although accurate schematically & more descriptive at the face, this is incorrect microdata markup for TOMS.com, because /ShoeStore derives from /LocalBusiness - which must represent a physical place. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/Website'> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/ShoeStore'> a whole bunch of jabber here </body> </html> NOTE: Since TOMS is virtual & thus can't be a /Store this means you lose really cool properties like 'currenciesAccepted', 'paymentAccepted' & 'priceRange'. Is this just a 'sit and wait' situation until more schemas are approved for 'virtual places' or is there a validation-passing way to get the best of both worlds?

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Read Cookies using Javascript

- by Ajith

I want to create a cookie using php,an also i need to read it using javascript.ie, by using setcookie('mycookie','hello',time()+34000) in php i am creating a cookie in my system.Now,i need to read it using javascript.Is it possible?If anybody knows please give me some idea.Please....help me.I am using javscript as follows ` function Get_Cookie( check_name ) { // first we'll split this cookie up into name/value pairs // note: document.cookie only returns name=value, not the other components var a_all_cookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); var a_temp_cookie = ''; var cookie_name = ''; var cookie_value = ''; var b_cookie_found = false; // set boolean t/f default f for ( i = 0; i < a_all_cookies.length; i++ ) { // now we'll split apart each name=value pair a_temp_cookie = a_all_cookies[i].split( '=' ); // and trim left/right whitespace while we're at it cookie_name = a_temp_cookie[0].replace(/^\s+|\s+$/g, ''); // if the extracted name matches passed check_name if ( cookie_name == check_name ) { b_cookie_found = true; // we need to handle case where cookie has no value but exists (no = sign, that is): if ( a_temp_cookie.length > 1 ) { cookie_value = unescape( a_temp_cookie[1].replace(/^\s+|\s+$/g, '') ); } // note that in cases where cookie is initialized but no value, null is returned return cookie_value; break; } a_temp_cookie = null; cookie_name = ''; } if ( !b_cookie_found ) { return null; } } if (Get_Cookie('__gsb')) { alert('Found'); } `

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Simple App Engine Sessions Implementation

- by raz0r

Here is a very basic class for handling sessions on App Engine: """Lightweight implementation of cookie-based sessions for Google App Engine. Classes: Session """ import os import random import Cookie from google.appengine.api import memcache _COOKIE_NAME = 'app-sid' _COOKIE_PATH = '/' _SESSION_EXPIRE_TIME = 180 * 60 class Session(object): """Cookie-based session implementation using Memcached.""" def __init__(self): self.sid = None self.key = None self.session = None cookie_str = os.environ.get('HTTP_COOKIE', '') self.cookie = Cookie.SimpleCookie() self.cookie.load(cookie_str) if self.cookie.get(_COOKIE_NAME): self.sid = self.cookie[_COOKIE_NAME].value self.key = 'session-' + self.sid self.session = memcache.get(self.key) if self.session: self._update_memcache() else: self.sid = str(random.random())[5:] + str(random.random())[5:] self.key = 'session-' + self.sid self.session = dict() memcache.add(self.key, self.session, _SESSION_EXPIRE_TIME) self.cookie[_COOKIE_NAME] = self.sid self.cookie[_COOKIE_NAME]['path'] = _COOKIE_PATH print self.cookie def __len__(self): return len(self.session) def __getitem__(self, key): if key in self.session: return self.session[key] raise KeyError(str(key)) def __setitem__(self, key, value): self.session[key] = value self._update_memcache() def __delitem__(self, key): if key in self.session: del self.session[key] self._update_memcache() return None raise KeyError(str(key)) def __contains__(self, item): try: i = self.__getitem__(item) except KeyError: return False return True def _update_memcache(self): memcache.replace(self.key, self.session, _SESSION_EXPIRE_TIME) I would like some advices on how to improve the code for better security. Note: In the production version it will also save a copy of the session in the datastore. Note': I know there are much more complete implementations available online though I would like to learn more about this subject so please don't answer the question with "use that" or "use the other" library.

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Gathering entropy in web apps to create (more) secure random numbers

- by H M

after several days of research and discussion i came up with this method to gather entropy from visitors (u can see the history of my research here) when a user visits i run this code: $entropy=sha1(microtime().$pepper.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].$_SERVER['REMOTE_PORT']. $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].serialize($_POST).serialize($_GET).serialize($_COOKIE)); note: pepper is a per site/setup random string set by hand. then i execute the following (My)SQL query: $query="update `crypto` set `value`=sha1(concat(`value`, '$entropy')) where name='entropy'"; that means we combine the entropy of the visitor's request with the others' gathered already. that's all. then when we want to generate random numbers we combine the gathered entropy with the output: $query="select `value` from `crypto` where `name`='entropy'"; //... extract(unpack('Nrandom', pack('H*', sha1(mt_rand(0, 0x7FFFFFFF).$entropy.microtime())))); note: the last line is a part of a modified version of the crypt_rand function of the phpseclib. please tell me your opinion about the scheme and other ideas/info regarding entropy gathering/random number generation. ps: i know about randomness sources like /dev/urandom. this system is just an auxiliary system or (when we don't have (access to) these sources) a fallback scheme.

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JavaScript Regex: Complicated input validation

- by ScottSEA

I'm trying to construct a regex to screen valid part and/or serial numbers in combination, with ranges. A valid part number is a two alpha, three digit pattern or /[A-z]{2}\d{3}/ i.e. aa123 or ZZ443 etc... A valid serial number is a five digit pattern, or /\d{5}/ 13245 or 31234 and so on. That part isn't the problem. I want combinations and ranges to be valid as well: 12345, ab123,ab234-ab245, 12346 - 12349 - the ultimate goal. Ranges and/or series of part and/or serial numbers in any combination. Note that spaces are optional when specifying a range or after a comma in a series. Note that a range of part numbers has the same two letter combination on both sides of the range (i.e. ab123 - ab239) I have been wrestling with this expression for two days now, and haven't come up with anything better than this: /^(?:[A-z]{2}\d{3}[, ]*)|(?:\d{5}[, ]*)|(?:([A-z]{2})\d{3} ?- ?\4\d{3}[, ]*)|(?:\d{5} ?- ?\d{5}[, ]*)$/ ... My Regex-Fu is weak.

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SQLAlchemy Mapping problem

- by asdvalkn

Dear Everyone, I am trying to sqlalchemy to correctly map my data. Note that a unified group is basically a group of groups. (One unifiedGroup maps to many groups but each group can only map to one ug). So basically this is the definition of my unifiedGroups: CREATE TABLE `unifiedGroups` ( `ugID` INT AUTO_INCREMENT, `gID` INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(`ugID`, `gID`), KEY( `gID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 ; Note that each row is a ugID, gID tuple. ( I do not know before hand how many gID is per ugID so this is probably the most sensible and simplest method). Definition for my UnifiedGroup class class UnifiedGroup(object): """UnifiedProduct behaves very much like a group """ def __init__(self, ugID): self.ugID=ugID #Added by mapping self.groups=False def __str__(self): return '<%s:%s>' % (self.ugID, ','.join( [g for g in self.groups])) These are my mapping tables: tb_groupsInfo = Table( 'groupsInfo', metadata, Column('gID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gName', String(128)), ) tb_unifiedGroups = Table( 'unifiedGroups', metadata, Column('ugID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gID', Integer, ForeignKey('groupsInfo.gID')), ) My mapper maps in the following manner: mapper( UnifiedGroup, tb_unifiedGroups, properties={ 'groups': relation( Group, backref='unifiedGroup') }) However, when I tried to do groupInstance.unifiedGroup, I am getting an empty list [], while groupInstance.unifiedGroup.groups returns me an error: AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' Traceback (most recent call last): File "Mapping.py", line 119, in <module> print p.group.unifiedGroup.groups AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' What is wrong?

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Html.RadioButton group defaulting to 0

- by awrigley

Hi A default value of 0 is creeping into a Surveys app I am developing, for no reason that I can see. The problem is as follows: I have a group of Html.RadioButtons that represent the possible values a user can choose to answer a survey question (1 == Not at all, 2 == A little, 3 == A lot). I have used a tinyint datatype, that does not allow null, to store the answer to each question. The view code looks like this: <ol class="SurveyQuestions"> <% foreach (SurveyQuestion question in Model.Questions) { string col = question.QuestionColumn; %> <li><%=question.QuestionText%> <ul style="float:right;" class="MultiChoice"> <li><%= Html.RadioButton(col, "1")%></li> <li><%= Html.RadioButton(col, "2")%></li> <li><%= Html.RadioButton(col, "3")%></li> </ul> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(col, "*") %> </li> <% } %> </ol> [Note on the above code:] Each survey has about 70 questions, so I have put the questions text in one table, and store the results in a different table. I have put the Questions into my form view model (hence Model.Questions); the questions table has a field called QuestionColumn that allows me to link up the answer table column to the question, as shown above (<%= Html.RadioButton(col, "1")%, etc) [/Note] However, when the user DOESN'T answer the question, the value 0 is getting inserted into the database column. As a result, I don't get what I expect, ie, a validation error. In no place have I stipulated a default value of 0 for the fields in the answers table. So what is happening? Any ideas?

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Compiler turning a string& into a basic_string<>&

- by Shtong

Hello I'm coming back to C++ after long years spent on other technologies and i'm stuck on some weird behavior when calling some methods taking std::string as parameters : An example of call : LocalNodeConfiguration *LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string & path) { // ... throw configuration_file_error(string("Configuration file empty"), path); // ... } When I compile I get this (I cropped file names for readability) : /usr/bin/g++ -g -I/home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/build -I/usr/share/include/boost-1.41.0 -o CMakeFiles/OmegaNocInternals.dir/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx.o -c /home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/source/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx: In static member function ‘static OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration* OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string&)’: .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx:72: error: no matching function for call to ‘OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&)’ .../configurationManager.hxx:25: note: candidates are: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string&, std::string&) .../configurationManager.hxx:22: note: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(const OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error&) So as I understand it, the compiler is considering that my path parameter turned into a basic_string at some point, thus not finding the constructor overload I want to use. But I don't really get why this transformation happened. Some search on the net suggested me to use g++ but I was already using it. So any other advice would be appreciated :) Thanks

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Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

- by doublep

On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

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Remote connection to SQL Server Express fails

- by worlds-apart89

I have two computers that share the same Internet IP address. Using one of the computers, I can remotely connect to a SQL Server database on the other. Here is my connection string: SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=192.168.1.101\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); 192.168.1.101 is the server, SQLEXPRESSNI is the SQL Server instance name, and FirstDB is the name of the database. Now, I have another computer with a different Internet IP address. I want to connect to the server above using the third computer that does not belong to my local area network. I dont have access to that third computer at the moment, so I want to use (if possible) the client computer in LAN again. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=SharedInternetIP\SQLEXPRESSNI,1433;Network Library=DBMSSOCN;Initial Catalog=FirstDB;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=username;Password=password;"); Does not work Note that I am a beginner, so I am not quite sure what I am doing even though I know what I want to do. By passing the Internet IP to the SqlConnection object rather than the local IP address, how can I successfully connect to the server computer, using the client computer in the same network? Also note that my ultimate goal is to connect to the server with an external client, but I don't have access to that computer right now. I'd appreciate any help.

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how can i set up a uniqueness constraint in mysql for columns that can be null?

- by user299689

I know that in MySQL, UNIQUE constraits don't treat NULL values as equal. So if I have a unique constraint on ColumnX, then two separate rows can have values of NULL for ColumnX and this wouldn't violate the constraint. How can I work around this? I can't just set the value to an arbitrary constant that I can flag, because ColumnX in my case is actually a foreign key to another table. What are my options here? Please note that this table also has an "id" column that is its primary key. Since I'm using Ruby on Rails, it's important to keep this id column as the primary key. Note 2: In reality, my unique key encompasses many columns, and some of them have to be null, because they are foreign keys, and only one of them should be non-null. What I'm actually trying to do is to "simulate" a polymorphic relationship in a way that keep referential integrity in the db, but using the technique outlined in the first part of the question asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/922184/why-can-you-not-have-a-foreign-key-in-a-polymorphic-association

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MySql Check if NOW() falls within a weekday/time range

- by Niall

I have a table as follows: CREATE TABLE `zonetimes` ( `id` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `zone_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `active_from_day` tinyint(1) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', `active_to_day` tinyint(1) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', `active_from` time NOT NULL, `active_to` time NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM ; So, a user could add a time entry starting on a particular day and time and ending on a particular day and time, eg: Between Monday 08:00 and Friday 18:00 or Between Thursday 15:00 and Tuesday 15:00 (Note the crossover at the end of the week). I need to query this data and determine if a zone is currently active (NOW(), DAYOFWEEK() etc)... This is turning out to be quite tricky. If I didn't have overlaps, eg: from 'Wednesday 8pm to Tuesday 4am' or from 'Thursday 4pm to Tuesday 4pm' this would be easy with BETWEEN. Also, need to allow a user to add for the entire week, eg: Monday 8am - Monday 8am (This should be easy enough, eg: where (active_from_day=active_to_day AND active_from=active_to) OR .. Any ideas? Note: I found a similar question here Timespan - Check for weekday and time of day in mysql but it didn't get an answer. One of the suggestions was to store each day as a separate row. I would much rather store one time span for multiple days though.

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Creating sublines on Joomla menu items

- by ploughansen

In my toplevel menu items, I would like to make a subline for each item. I don't think it's possible to do by default, byt YooTheme has done it in many of their templates. The menu output look like this <div class="moduletable_menu"> <ul id="mainmenu" class="menu"> <li class="active item1" id="current"> <a href="URL_HIDDEN"> <span>Services</span> </a> </li> </ul> This basically outputs a one line menu item like so: Services What I would like to do is have a menu item like this: Services Service x, Service y, Service z For reference, have a look at the main menu on the YooTheme demo page. The way YooTheme does this, is using two pipes (||) as a linebreak, so in the Joomla backend you type "Services||Service x, Service y, Service z" as the menu title, and then there must be some fancy javascript that breaks this title into two spans, ready to be styled using css. Does anyone know of an easy way to code this? Please note that I am looking to build this feature into a custom template (ie. non-yootheme). Also note that I am not using MooTools, but Jquery instead.

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Cannot pass null to server using jQuery AJAX. Value received at the server is the string "null".

- by Tom

I am converting a javascript/php/ajax application to use jQuery to ensure compatibility with browsers other than Firefox. I am having trouble passing true, false, and null values using jQuery's ajax function. Javascript code: $.ajax ( { url : <server_url>, dataType: 'json', type : 'POST', success : receiveAjaxMessage, data: { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } } ); PHP code: var_dump($_POST); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> string(4) "true" ["valueFalse"]=> string(5) "false" ["valueNull"]=> string(4) "null" } The problem is that the null, true, and false values are being converted to strings. The Javascript AJAX code currently in use passes null, true, and false correctly but only works in Firefox. Does anyone know how to solve this problem using jQuery? Here is some working code (not using jQuery) to compare with the code not-working code given above. Javascript Code: ajaxPort.send ( <server_url>, { valueTrue : true, valueFalse : false, valueNull : null } ); PHP code: var_dump(json_decode(file_get_contents('php://input'), true)); Server output: array(3) { ["valueTrue"]=> bool(true) ["valueFalse"]=> bool(false) ["valueNull"]=> NULL } Note that the null, true, and false values are correctly received. Note also that in the second method the $_POST array is not used in the PHP code. I think this is the key to the problem, but I cannot find a way to replicate this behavior using jQuery.

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