Search Results

Search found 2678 results on 108 pages for 'oscar del ben'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 65/108 | < Previous Page | 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72  | Next Page >

  • XSLT for-each from query results

    - by Ben Record
    I've been on a hunt for a while trying to find a solution to this but I cannot find anywhere that addresses this problem. I'm running a SQL query through XSLT which will return three rows. Here is the query: <query name="OrderedProductNames" rowElementName ="OrderedItem"> <sql> <![CDATA[ select OrderedProductName, Quantity from Orders_ShoppingCart where OrderNumber = 101689 // Hard coded order number for testing purposes. ]]> </sql> </query> Ideally, I would like to iterate through each row returned and do a choose when which is tested on a variable from the current row being inspected in the for-each loop, but I am not entirely sure thhis is possible. My secondary thought would be to use the for-each loop as a way to inject hidden HTML input elements with the values I would need, then I could write a javascript function to complete what I'm trying to do. Any suggestion on how I would go about completing either task would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Sqlite + Java: table not updating

    - by Ben L
    I'm using a Java wrapper for SQLite called SQLiteJDBC - this may have some bearing on any answers... I have a table which I've displayed in a GUI, within that UI I have a button for the fields for an individual row of that table. When I save my changes I do this... Statement stmt = connection.createStatement(); stmt.execute("update 'tableName' set 'fieldName'=1 where userid=1"); int updateCount = stmt.getUpdateCount(); My connection is valid, I get no exceptions thrown and getUpdateCount() returns '1' indicating that one row has been updated. However my table is not updated. I've spent the last few hours trying to work out what's going on but I'm not having any luck. Help!!

    Read the article

  • How can I share code across static libraries without duplicate symbol errors?

    - by Ben Flynn
    I am new to building static libraries and would like to create 2(+) libraries each of which has some unique code and some shared code. My intention is that other projects will link one or more of these static libraries. Util.h/m <-- Shared ImplOne.h/m <-- Unique to 'ImplOne' ImplTwo.h/m <-- Unique to 'ImplTwo' I am using XCode and generating the libraries by building Util.m and ImplOne.m in one case, and Util.m and ImplTwo.m in the other. Of course the issue is that I now cannot use these libraries together because they will have duplicate symbols. What is a better architecture for this situation?

    Read the article

  • How do I "rebind" the click event after unbind('click') ?

    - by Ben
    I have an anchor tag <a class="next">next</a> made into a "button". Sometimes, this tag needs to be hidden if there is nothing new to show. All works fine if I simply hide the button with .hide() and re-display it with .show(). But I wanted to uses .fadeIn() and .fadeOut() instead. The problem I'm having is that if the user clicks on the button during the fadeOut animation, it can cause problems with the logic I have running the show. The solution I found was to unbind the click event from the button after the original click function begins, and then re-bind it after the animation is complete. $('a.next').click(function() { $(this).unbind('click'); ... // calls some functions, one of which fades out the a.next if needed ... $(this).bind('click'); } the last part of the above example does not work. The click event is not actually re-bound to the anchor. does anyone know the correct way to accomplish this? I'm a self-taught jquery guy, so some of the higher level things like unbind() and bind() are over my head, and the jquery documentation isn't really simple enough for me to understand.

    Read the article

  • Apache Mod Rewrite with Periods in URL

    - by Ben Althauser
    Ok, so I am using (or trying to use) two primary mod_rewrite rules, and they seem to be conflicting with one another RewriteRule ^/?help$ index.php?page=help [L] and RewriteRule ^/?([a-zA-Z0-9._-]+)$ index.php?user=$1 [L] If I get rid of the period -. in the second rule, my help page is displayed, and I can display a user page as well, but when I add the period, my help page doesn't display, but instead (I think) gets processed as a user page. Anyone have any pointers?

    Read the article

  • A simple php form in Joomla?!

    - by Ben Fransen
    Hi all, Someone came to me and asked me if I could add a form to their Joomla page. I figured this should be easy since Joomla is widely used and such thing should be supported. I'm googling arround for 1,5h now, and I have given 4 formcreators a try but this is driving me crazy. The editors are all very complex for the simplest task I want. A simple form with: 5 text input; 1 radio selection criteria; the message a visitor sends. So I've given pretty much up upon formbuilders. Is there a simple way to include an external, self-built very easy php form, into the contactpage? I hope to hear from you... Greetings from Holland

    Read the article

  • Can I ReRender the entire tree of a component?

    - by Ben
    Hi, I have a JSF application with several major components and a component tree under each. On a certain event (Value change) I would like to reRender the entire component tree for one of those components. For example: can I rerender components 1,2 and 3 in one shot here: <h:panelgroup id="1"> <h:panelgroup id="2"> <h:panelgroup id="3"> <h:panelgroup/> <h:panelgroup/> <h:panelgroup/> <h:commandButton rerender="1*"> <--- Made up code. Is that possible? Another Idea - Can I reRender with wildcards? (I.E - ReRender all components who's ID's begin or contain: "UpdateMe") Thanks!

    Read the article

  • numberOfSectionsInTableView is requested in/after viewDidLoad ONLY if tableview is empty

    - by Ben Packard
    A simple tableviewController, empty. A modal that can be launched from a button. No data in the data source for the tableview, and no rows displayed. I open the modal, use it to add an item, and return to the tableview controller. The tableview updates itself automatically, and the new row is displayed. I add a second item. The table view does NOT update automatically. I can tell by logging inside numberOfSectionsInTableView that even if I go to add the first item and cancel, the tableview refreshes - it asks for the number of sections, rows, and the cell to display (if there is one). But not if there is one pre-existing row in the table. I've scoured my code but can't find anything that would cause the tableview to know when the first item is added, but none afterwards. Any ideas? EDIT - I have further narrowed my issue so will close this shortly and post a more specific question

    Read the article

  • Objective C: Class Extensions and Protocol Conformation Warnings

    - by Ben Reeves
    I have a large class, which I have divided into several different class extension files for readability. @protocol MyProtocol @required -(void)required; @end @interface MyClass : NSObject <MyProtocol> @end @interface MyClass (RequiredExtension) -(void)required; @end Is there a better way to do this, without the compiler warning? warning: class 'MyClass' does not fully implement the 'MyProtocol' protocol

    Read the article

  • Setting Up TFS Server outside of a domain

    - by Ben
    Hi Im trying to set up TFS 2010 on a machine that is connected to a network, but not on the domain. I am trying to connect this to a SQL Server that is also connected to the network and also not on the domain. When I run through the TFS configuration Wizard and try to connect to the SQL Server, it fails with a message "A connection can not be made...." which looks like it cant see the Server. However when i connect through SQL Management Studio it works when i use SQL Authentication (not Windows Auth). I beleive its failing because TFS needs to connect using Windows Authetication (please correct me if im wrong). I can not add the Windows Authentication for my TFS machine onto the SQL machine becuase they are on different domains (again, pleas correct me if I'm wrong). Does anyone have any suggestions? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How might a C# programmer approach writing a solution in javascript?

    - by Ben McCormack
    UPDATE: Perhaps this wasn't clear from my original post, but I'm mainly interested in knowing a best practice for how to structure javascript code while building a solution, not simply learning how to use APIs (though that is certainly important). I need to add functionality to a web site and our team has decided to approach the solution using a web service that receives a call from a JSON-formatted AJAX request from within the web site. The web service has been created and works great. Now I have been tasked with writing the javascript/html side of the solution. If I were solving this problem in C#, I would create separate classes for formatting the request, handling the AJAX request/response, parsing the response, and finally inserting the response somehow into the DOM. I would build properties and methods appropriately into each class, doing my best to separate functionality and structure where appropriate. However, I have to solve this problem in javascript. Firstly, how could I approach my solution in javascript in the way I would approach it from C# as described above? Or more importantly, what's a better way to approach structuring code in javascript? Any advice or links to helpful material on the web would be greatly appreciated. NOTE: Though perhaps not immediately relevant to this question, it may be worth noting that we will be using jQuery in our solution.

    Read the article

  • I have a problem implementing states in my Flex app, please help!

    - by ben
    Hey guys, I'm trying to work out how to use states in my Flex app. I've created two states, State1 and Stage 2. Both are based off the base state. I've created a few visual elements for State1, and given each of them includeIn="State1". But when I'm in design mode and click on State2, these elements are still visible? Why is that? If I try to delete them while State2 is selected, all that happens is RemoveChild is added to the State2 tag. Is this how I'm supposed to do it? Thanks for reading!

    Read the article

  • Formatting the output of a custom tool so I can double click an error in Visual Studio and the file opens

    - by Ben Scott
    I've written a command line tool that preprocesses a number of files then compiles them using CodeDom. The tool writes a copyright notice and some progress text to the standard output, then writes any errors from the compilation step using the following format: foreach (var err in results.Errors) { // err is CompilerError var filename = "Path\To\input_file.xprt"; Console.WriteLine(string.Format( "{0} ({1},{2}): {3}{4} ({5})", filename, err.Line, err.Column, err.IsWarning ? "" : "ERROR: ", err.ErrorText, err.ErrorNumber)); } It then writes the number of errors, like "14 errors". This is an example of how the error appears in the console: Path\To\input_file.xrpt (73,28): ERROR: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, or property 'Some.Object.get' (CS0120) When I run this as a custom tool in VS2008 (by calling it in the post-build event command line of one of my project's assemblies), the errors appear nicely formatted in the Error List, with the correct text in each column. When I roll over the filename the fully qualified path pops up. The line and column are different to the source file because of the preprocessing which is fine. The only thing that stands out is that the Project given in the list is the one that has the post-build event. The problem is that when I double click an error, nothing happens. I would have expected the file to open in the editor. I'm vaugely aware of the Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.Interop namespace but I think it should be possible just by writing to the standard output.

    Read the article

  • Loop not working when I try to traverse a Simple XML Object

    - by Ben Shelock
    I'm trying to loop through the results from the Last.fm API but it's not working. function get_url($url){ $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT,5); $content = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); return $content; } $xml = get_url('http://ws.audioscrobbler.com/2.0/?method=album.search&album=kid%20a&api_key=b25b959554ed76058ac220b7b2e0a026'); $doc = new SimpleXMLElement($xml); $albums = $doc->results->albummatches; foreach($albums as $album){ echo $album->album->name; } This just shows the first album. If I change the code within the foreach loop to echo $album->name; it shows nothing at all. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Why does my DIV clip its child DIV when jQuery moves it in IE?

    - by Ben Saufley
    I have two divs, both with position:absolute;, one inside the other. The parent isn't in a place where it can be set as position:relative without an extra layer of complexity (there are a lot of other elements around it that I'd have to account for to put it where it needs to be, which is at the very top of the page, over everything). The child element is made to stick off the bottom of the parent. In Chrome, Safari, Firefox, it all works splendidly. In IE, it works until jQuery moves the parent element - at which point the parent element clips the child, so you can barely see the top of the child. I feel like I've read about this, about IE clipping child elements, but I can't seem to find an answer that applies to my case. It's pretty simple, basically: <div id="parent" style="position:absolute;top:0;left:0;"> [content] <div id="tab" style="position:absolute;bottom:-30px;left:0;width:64px;height:32px;background-image:(...);"></div> </div> <script> $(document).ready( function() { $("#tab").click(function() { $("#parent").animate({"top":"-50px"},300); }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Examining a lambda expression at runtime in C#

    - by Ben Aston
    I have a method Get on a type MyType1 accepting a Func<MyType2, bool> as a parameter. An example of its use: mytype1Instance.Get(x => x.Guid == guid)); I would like create a stub implementation of the method Get that examines the incoming lambda expression and determines what the value of guid is. Clearly the lambda could be "anything", but I'm happy for the stub to make an assumption about the lambda, that it is trying to match on the Guid property. How can I do this? I suspect it involves the use of the built-in Expression type?

    Read the article

  • Xcode Unit Testing - Accessing Resources from the application's bundle?

    - by Ben Scheirman
    I'm running into an issue and I wanted to confirm that I'm doing things the correct way. I can test simple things with my SenTestingKit tests, and that works okay. I've set up a Unit Test Bundle and set it as a dependency on the main application target. It successfully runs all tests whenever I press cmd+B. Here's where I'm running into issues. I have some XML files that I need to load from the resources folder as part of the application. Being a good unit tester, I want to write unit tests around this to make sure that they are loading properly. So I have some code that looks like this: NSString *filePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"foo" ofType:@"xml"]; This works when the application runs, but during a unit test, mainBundle points to the wrong bundle, so this line of code returns nil. So I changed it up to utilize a known class like this: NSString *filePath = [[NSBundle bundleForClass:[Config class]] pathForResource:@"foo" ofType:@"xml"]; This doesn't work either, because in order for the test to even compile code like this, it Config needs to be part of the Unit Test Target. If I add that, then the bundle for that class becomes the Unit Test bundle. (Ugh!) Am I approaching this the wrong way?

    Read the article

  • How to install VC80CRT debug runtimes without full visual studio 2005?

    - by Ben L
    I can't run a debug sdk application because it requires both VC 8 and VC 9 versions of the CRT. But it only requires visual studio 2008 for plugin dev, which is what I need. How do I install the debug runtimes from 2005 on to a Windows7 machine? I can't figure out how to make them run app local nor can I copy anything into the winSxS folder without a trusted installer.

    Read the article

  • How to make a random number generator in matlab that is based on percentages?

    - by Ben Fossen
    I am currently using the built in random number generator. for example nAsp = randi([512, 768],[1,1]); 512 is the lower bound and 768 is the upper bound, the random number generator chooses a number from between these two values. What I want is to have two ranges for nAsp but I want one of them to get called 25% of the time and the other 75% of the time. Then gets plugged into he equation. Does anyone have any ideas how to do this or if there is a built in function in matlab already? for example nAsp = randi([512, 768],[1,1]); gets called 25% of the time nAsp = randi([690, 720],[1,1]); gets called 75% of the time

    Read the article

  • Setting a property in XAML for a User Control

    - by Ben
    Hi, I have a user control that has a property of type Integer, that i am trying to set in the XAML Template to be that of a property within the bindingsource. If I set the property using a hard coded integer i.e. <MyControl MyIntegerProperty="3" /> This works fine, but if i try <MyControl MyIntegerProperty="{Binding MyDataContextIntegerProperty}" /> it fails. I know that the integer property on MyDataContext is returning a valid integer, and i know that this format works, as directly above this in the template, i have the line <TextBlock Text="{Binding MyDataContextStringProperty}" /> which works correctly. Is there any flag that i need to set on my User Controls Integer property to allow this to work? Or am i doing something else wrong? Thanks

    Read the article

  • javasrcipt asyncronous function

    - by Ben
    Hi there, i have a problem understanding how this could/should be solved. I have two functions. In the first function ( I call it loadData() ) I'm doing an asyncronous request to the server to load some data. In the second function ( saveData() ) I'm also doing an asyn request to the server to write some data. In the callback of this request I'm callin loadData() to refresh the data. Now the problem: In the saveData() function I want to wait for loadData() to be finished bevore I show a dialog (like alert('Data saved')) I guess this is a common problem, but I couldn't find the solution for it (if there is one..) A solution would be to make the requests syncronous, but the framework I'm using doesn't offer that and I hope there's a better solution.. Thanks to all!

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72  | Next Page >