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  • mod_ReWrite to remove part of a URL

    - by Jack
    Someone has incorrectly linked to some of my urls causing 404 erros in Google Webmaster Tools. Here is an example Linked URL: http://www.example.com/foo-%E2%80%8Bbar.html Correct URL: http://www.example.com/foor-bar.html I would like to 301 redirect any instance of this kind of incorrect linking to the correct URL. I have tried the following but it generates 404 Errors site wide. Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^foo-(.*)bar\.html$ http://www.example.com/foo-bar\.html? [L,R=301] Could anyone let me know what I am doing wrong?

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  • Remote I/O costs with a Content Delivery Network

    - by x711Li
    As far as I know, the time complexity of scanning a directory and the amount of files in said directory are correlated due to I/O costs. Would the administrative costs of placing the files in a hashed directory tree for uploading/downloading files through a CDN API be worth it for the added efficiency? For instance, given a filename foo.mp3, the MD5 hash for this is 10ebb1120767e9de166e0f5905077cb1. Thus, storing foo.mp3 in ./10/eb/foo.mp3 would allow for less files per directory (assuming MD5 generates patterns with in Base36, this allows for 36^2 root directories with 36^2 subdirectories each and little chance of hash collision) Considering the directories themselves are not loaded, would the I/O costs of directory scanning still exist with direct uploading/downloading?

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  • Apache configuration file visualization/testing

    - by Matt Holgate
    Is there a tool available (or a debug mode built into Apache) that will allow me to interactively test and explain an Apache configuration for a given request? In particular, I'd like to be able to see which directives will apply when requesting a specific URL. For example, the output for the URL http://myserver.com/foo/bar/bar.html might look something like: Allow from 192.168.0.3 <-- From <Location /foo/bar> in myserver.com vhost Require valid user <-- From <Directory /var/www/foo> in global configuration Satisfy any <-- From <File bar.html> in global configuration [Background: why do I want this? The apache merging rules for configuration directives are quite complex to get right. It would be great to have a tool which allows you to check that your rules are doing exactly what you want, and would be a good learning tool]. If there isn't such a tool, is there a debug option in Apache that will log such information for each incoming request?

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  • Override some DNS records and delegate others to another nameserver

    - by Addev
    I'm starting playing with nameservers. Currently I have: A domain: mydomain.com Access for writing the whois ns records. Access for writing DNS records at the domain hosting provider. nsX.foo.com A shared (hostC) hosting which cPanel writes in the nameserver of nsX.bar.com Basically I want the following structure: hostA.mydomain.com -> hostA hostB.mydomain.com -> hostB hostC.mydomain.com -> hostC mydomain.com -> hostC *.mydomain.com -> hostC Whats the correct way of configuring this? By the way I have configured the following records hostA.mydomain.com IN A [IP_OF_hostA] (at foo.com nameservers) hostB.mydomain.com IN A [IP_OF_hostB] (at foo.com nameserver) But now I dont know how to specify that @.mydomain.com and *.mydomain.com are resolved by the ns1.bar.com and ns2.bar.com, and it is hard to try with the delays after editing the records.

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  • how to properly edit hosts, hostname and resolf.conf? [migrated]

    - by Firewall
    i,v been searching the internet for a real noop tutorial on the subject but could not found any direct info. on how to edit these files the proper way. i,v got a debian internet server that i use to host some personal domains and runs squid and rTorrent. the server is up and running with no problems but i am confused about a few things. lets say that i named my server (foo), my domain is (example.com) and my public IP is 95.211.133.200 now: should /etc/hostname contains: tango.example.com or tango <----- just the server name should /etc/hosts contains: 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost 95.211.133.200 foo.example.com foo should /etc/resolf.conf contains (along with the nameservers) both: domain example.com search example.com or just the first one. are there any other files that i should edit in order to make things right? last thing, the command: domainname returns: (none) i believe it should return (example.com). what should i do to correct that?

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  • how to properly edit hosts, hostname and resolf.conf?

    - by Firewall
    i,v been searching the internet for a real noop tutorial on the subject but could not found any direct info. on how to edit these files the proper way. i,v got a debian internet server that i use to host some personal domains and runs squid and rTorrent. the server is up and running with no problems but i am confused about a few things. lets say that i named my server (foo), my domain is (example.com) and my public IP is 95.211.133.200 now: should /etc/hostname contains: tango.example.com or tango <----- just the server name should /etc/hosts contains: 127.0.0.1 localhost.localdomain localhost 95.211.133.200 foo.example.com foo should /etc/resolf.conf contains (along with the nameservers) both: domain example.com search example.com or just the first one. are there any other files that i should edit in order to make things right? last thing, the command: domainname returns: (none) i believe it should return (example.com). what should i do to correct that?

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  • In Sublime Text 2, how can I indent out to a straight column with multiple cursors on a ragged edge?

    - by mtoast
    Suppose I've got multiple cursors along several lines, like this: foo| barr| foobar| baz| How can I automatically push the whitespace at the end of each line out to a flat edge, like this?: foo | barr | foobar | baz | (In these examples, | is supposed to be my cursor.) EDIT #1 When you just Tab or Space from the initial arrangement, you get this: # Useful, but not what I'm looking for foo | barr | foobar | baz | That's useful, but not what I'm looking for. I'm looking for some kind of keyboard shortcut that will let me indent from a ragged multi-cursor insert out to a straight column.

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  • When using Windows 2003 DNS Server, how do I configure it to resolve a particular FQDN but rely on e

    - by Corey
    Let's say I have a web-server on my internal network which is behind a NAT router. I have my external DNS for the “xyz.com” domain configured with an A record for “foo” that points to my router's public address. I want my internal network clients to resolve foo.xyz.com to the internal address. However, this is the only xyz.com record that should point to an internal address. Do I need to create a primary zone for xyz.com and mirror all the records from my external zone with the exception of “foo” (this is what I am doing now), or is there a better way?

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  • Variable for the suffix of $request_uri that didn't match the location block prefix

    - by hsivonen
    Suppose I want to move an /images/ directory to an images host so that what was before http://example.org/images/foo.png becomes http://images.example.org/foo.png. If I do: location /images/ { return 301 http://images.example.org$request_uri; }, the result is a redirect to http://images.example.org/images/foo.png which isn't what I want. An older question has an answer that suggests using a regexp location, but that seems like an overkill. Is there really no way to refer to $request_uri with the location prefix chopped off without using regular expressions? Seems like an obvious feature to have.

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  • Tricking Linux apps about current time with environment variables

    - by geek
    Sometimes it is possible to trick a Linux app by calling it like this: HOME=/tmp/foo myapp This would make myapp think /tmp/foo is the home directory, it won't try to get the user id, find its home directory via getpwent(). This is useful when myapp must be forced to dump some of its config files into a non-standard location different than ~. A similar trick can be done like this: LANG=foo LC_ALL=bar myapp This is useful when myapp needs to be called once with a different locale without having to make the change persistent by using the export bash built-in or even modify stuff in /etc/profile. Is it possible to pull the same trick with time and date? The goal is to make an app use another time than the system ones. The final goal - to make timestamps that appear in logs/commit messages not being tied to the system time.

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  • using sed to replace two patterns within a larger pattern

    - by Hair of the Dog
    Using sed how could I replace two patterns within a larger pattern on a single line? Given a single line of text I want to find a pattern (Let's call this the outer pattern) and then within that outer pattern replace two inner patterns. Here's a one line example of the input text: Z:\source\private\main\developer\foo\setenv.sh(25): export 'FONTCONFIG_PATH'="$WINE_SHARED_SUPPORT/X11/etc/fonts" In the example above the outer pattern is "/^.*([[:digit:]]+):/" which should equal "Z:\source\private\main\developer\foo\setenv.sh(25):" The two inner patterns are "/^[A-Za-z]:/" and "/\/". Another way to phrase my question is: Using sed I know how to perform replacements of a pattern using the "s" command, but how do I limit the range of "s" command so it only works on the portion of the input string up to the "(25):"? The ultimate result I am trying to get is the line of text is transformed into this: /enlistments/source/private/main/developer/foo/setenv.sh(25): export 'FONTCONFIG_PATH'="$WINE_SHARED_SUPPORT/X11/etc/fonts"

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  • Windows 8&ndash;Custom WinRT components and WinJS

    - by Jonas Bush
    Wow, I’m still alive! I installed the RTM of Windows 8 when it became available, and in the last few days have started taking a look at writing a windows 8 app using HTML/JS, which in and of itself is a weird thing. I don’t think that windows developers of 10 years ago would’ve thought something like this would have ever come about. As I was working on this, I ran across a problem, found the solution, and thought I’d blog about it to try and kick start me back into blogging. I already answered my own question on Stack Overflow, but will explain here. I needed to create a custom WinRT component to do some stuff that I either wouldn’t be able to or didn’t know how to do with the javascript libraries available to me. I had a javascript class defined like this: WinJS.Namespace.define("MyApp", { MyClass: WinJS.Class.define(function() { //constructor function }, { /*instance members*/ }, { /*static members*/ }) }); This gives me an object I can access in javascript: var foo = new MyApp.MyClass(); I created my WinRT component like this: namespace MyApp { public sealed class SomeClass { public int SomeMethod() { return 42; } } }   With the thought that from my javascript, I’d be able to do this: var foo = new MyApp.MyClass(); var bar = new MyApp.SomeClass(); //from WinRT component foo.SomeProperty = bar.SomeMethod();   When I tried this, I got the following error when trying to construct MyApp.MyClass (the object defined in Javascript) 0x800a01bd - Javascript runtime error: Object doesn't support this action. I puzzled for a bit, then noticed while debugging that my “MyApp” namespace didn’t have anything in it other than the WinRT component. I changed my WinRT component to this: namespace MyAppUtils { public sealed class SomeClass { //etc } } And after this, everything was fine. So, lesson learned: If you’re using Javascript and create a custom WinRT component, make sure that the WinRT component is in a namespace all its own. Not sure why this happens, and if I find out why or if MS says something about this somewhere, I’ll come back and update this.

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  • What is Ubuntu's Definition of a "Registered Application"?

    - by Tom
    I've run into this a few times when installing apps from source, and during the occasional hack with update-alternatives. So far, it's only been a minor annoyance (ie, not got in the way of the end-goal) but it's now a frustration as it's pointing to a hole in my knowledge-base... so when I get a message that 'foo' is "not a registered application" (or I can't use foo's default icon cuz Ubuntu has no knowledge of 'foo'): (1) what defines a "registered application"? (2) how can I define an application installed from source (and likely residing in $HOME/bin/app-name) such that it packs the same functionality as a package installed from a .deb? (if the solution is not self-evident from answer 1) Example: I download and unpack daily dev builds of sublime-text-2 to /home/tom/bin/sublime-text-2. I've created a *.desktop file with appropriate shortcuts, etc. But the icon for sublime cannot be display in any launcher even if I provide a full pathname to the option. The solution is to install a 2nd instance of sublime from a deb package. When I install sublime-text-2 from a .deb package, it installs under /usr/bin && /usr/lib, the installed .desktop file is stored under /usr/share/applications, and the relevant line reads: icon=sublime_text. Where's the linkage I'm missing? Somehow Ubuntu knows how to exact the icon from sublime_text in the latter, but not in the former (again, even with a full path provided).

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  • Isolating test data in acceptance tests

    - by Matt Phillips
    I'm looking for guidance on how to keep my acceptance tests isolated. Right now the issue I'm having with being able to run the tests in parallel is the database records that are manipulated in the tests. I've written helpers that take care of doing inserts and deletes before tests are executed, to make sure the state is correct. But now I can't run them in parallel against the same database without uniquely generating the test data fields for each test. For example. Testing creating a row i'll delete everything where column A = foo and column B = bar Then I'll navigate through the UI in the test and create a record with column A = foo and column B = bar. Testing that a duplicate row is not allowed to be created. I'll insert a row with column A = foo and column B = bar and then use the UI to try and do the exact same thing. This will display an error message in the UI as expected. These tests work perfectly when ran separately and serially. But I can't run them at the same time for fear that one will create or delete a record the other is expecting. Any tips on how to structure them better so they can be run in parallel?

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  • Deleting a row from self-referencing table

    - by Jake Rutherford
    Came across this the other day and thought “this would be a great interview question!” I’d created a table with a self-referencing foreign key. The application was calling a stored procedure I’d created to delete a row which caused but of course…a foreign key exception. You may say “why not just use a the cascade delete option?” Good question, easy answer. With a typical foreign key relationship between different tables which would work. However, even SQL Server cannot do a cascade delete of a row on a table with self-referencing foreign key. So, what do you do?…… In my case I re-wrote the stored procedure to take advantage of recursion:   -- recursively deletes a Foo ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[usp_DeleteFoo]      @ID int     ,@Debug bit = 0    AS     SET NOCOUNT ON;     BEGIN TRANSACTION     BEGIN TRY         DECLARE @ChildFoos TABLE         (             ID int         )                 DECLARE @ChildFooID int                        INSERT INTO @ChildFoos         SELECT ID FROM Foo WHERE ParentFooID = @ID                 WHILE EXISTS (SELECT ID FROM @ChildFoos)         BEGIN             SELECT TOP 1                 @ChildFooID = ID             FROM                 @ChildFoos                             DELETE FROM @ChildFoos WHERE ID = @ChildFooID                         EXEC usp_DeleteFoo @ChildFooID         END                                    DELETE FROM dbo.[Foo]         WHERE [ID] = @ID                 IF @Debug = 1 PRINT 'DEBUG:usp_DeleteFoo, deleted - ID: ' + CONVERT(VARCHAR, @ID)         COMMIT TRANSACTION     END TRY     BEGIN CATCH         ROLLBACK TRANSACTION         DECLARE @ErrorMessage VARCHAR(4000), @ErrorSeverity INT, @ErrorState INT         SELECT @ErrorMessage = ERROR_MESSAGE(), @ErrorSeverity = ERROR_SEVERITY(), @ErrorState = ERROR_STATE()         IF @ErrorState <= 0 SET @ErrorState = 1         INSERT INTO ErrorLog(ErrorNumber,ErrorSeverity,ErrorState,ErrorProcedure,ErrorLine,ErrorMessage)         VALUES(ERROR_NUMBER(), @ErrorSeverity, @ErrorState, ERROR_PROCEDURE(), ERROR_LINE(), @ErrorMessage)         RAISERROR (@ErrorMessage, @ErrorSeverity, @ErrorState)     END CATCH   This procedure will first determine any rows which have the row we wish to delete as it’s parent. It then simply iterates each child row calling the procedure recursively in order to delete all ancestors before eventually deleting the row we wish to delete.

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  • Is there ever a reason to do all an object's work in a constructor?

    - by Kane
    Let me preface this by saying this is not my code nor my coworkers' code. Years ago when our company was smaller, we had some projects we needed done that we did not have the capacity for, so they were outsourced. Now, I have nothing against outsourcing or contractors in general, but the codebase they produced is a mass of WTFs. That being said, it does (mostly) work, so I suppose it's in the top 10% of outsourced projects I've seen. As our company has grown, we've tried to take more of our development in house. This particular project landed in my lap so I've been going over it, cleaning it up, adding tests, etc etc. There's one pattern I see repeated a lot and it seems so mindblowingly awful that I wondered if maybe there is a reason and I just don't see it. The pattern is an object with no public methods or members, just a public constructor that does all the work of the object. For example, (the code is in Java, if that matters, but I hope this to be a more general question): public class Foo { private int bar; private String baz; public Foo(File f) { execute(f); } private void execute(File f) { // FTP the file to some hardcoded location, // or parse the file and commit to the database, or whatever } } If you're wondering, this type of code is often called in the following manner: for(File f : someListOfFiles) { new Foo(f); } Now, I was taught long ago that instantiated objects in a loop is generally a bad idea, and that constructors should do a minimum of work. Looking at this code it looks like it would be better to drop the constructor and make execute a public static method. I did ask the contractor why it was done this way, and the response I got was "We can change it if you want". Which was not really helpful. Anyway, is there ever a reason to do something like this, in any programming language, or is this just another submission to the Daily WTF?

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  • Do objects maintain identity under all non-cloning conditions in PHP?

    - by Buttle Butkus
    PHP 5.5 I'm doing a bunch of passing around of objects with the assumption that they will all maintain their identities - that any changes made to their states from inside other objects' methods will continue to hold true afterwards. Am I assuming correctly? I will give my basic structure here. class builder { protected $foo_ids = array(); // set in construct protected $foo_collection; protected $bar_ids = array(); // set in construct protected $bar_collection; protected function initFoos() { $this->foo_collection = new FooCollection(); foreach($this->food_ids as $id) { $this->foo_collection->addFoo(new foo($id)); } } protected function initBars() { // same idea as initFoos } protected function wireFoosAndBars(fooCollection $foos, barCollection $bars) { // arguments are passed in using $this->foo_collection and $this->bar_collection foreach($foos as $foo_obj) { // (foo_collection implements IteratorAggregate) $bar_ids = $foo_obj->getAssociatedBarIds(); if(!empty($bar_ids) ) { $bar_collection = new barCollection(); // sub-collection to be a component of each foo foreach($bar_ids as $bar_id) { $bar_collection->addBar(new bar($bar_id)); } $foo_obj->addBarCollection($bar_collection); // now each foo_obj has a collection of bar objects, each of which is also in the main collection. Are they the same objects? } } } } What has me worried is that foreach supposedly works on a copy of its arrays. I want all the $foo and $bar objects to maintain their identities no matter which $collection object they become of a part of. Does that make sense?

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  • Tracking subdomains in the same profile as the main domain

    - by Osvaldo
    I have a site, let's call it http://www.example.com with a non-universal Google analytics account. Now we have to add new functionalities in a subdomain like https://subdomain.example.com as a micro site. On that subdomain the URL's will be something like https://subdomain.example.com?param1=foo&param2=bar We can't change the requirements as both main site and mini-site use a different CMS/application. This is strictly a Google Analytics question. But we need to count pageviews and events that happen in that subdomain (with URLs like https://subdomain.example.com?param1=foo&param2=bar) as belonging to the main domain. So pageviews and events in https://subdomain.example.com?param1=foo&param2=bar need to be recorded as if they happened in http://www.example.com/path/to/whatever/I/want Fortunately we have full control on JavaScript in the main domain site and in the subdomain site too. How can we make this work? Do we need to change tracking code both in the main domain and subdomains? Do we need to reconfigure Google Analytics? Please note again that we do not want to create a new view for the subdomain. Both mini-site and main site should be in the same account, property and view.

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  • Convert table to table with autofilter/order by function [on hold]

    - by evachristine
    How can I make any normal HTML table: <table border=1 style='border:2px solid black;border-collapse:collapse;'><tr><td>foo1</td><td>foo2</td><td>foo3</td><td>foo3</td><td>foo4</td><td>foo5</td><td>foo6</td></tr> <tr><td><a href="https://foo.com/adsf">adsf</a></td><td>ksjdajsfljdsaljfxycaqrf</td><td><a href="mailto:[email protected]?Subject=adsf - ksjdajsfljdsaljfxycaqrf">[email protected]</a></td><td>nmasdfdsadfafd</td><td>INPROG</td><td>3</td><td>2014-03-04 10:37</td> <tr><td><a href="https://foo.com/adsflkjsadlf">adsflkjsadlf</a></td><td>alksjdlsadjfyxcvyx</td><td><a href="mailto:[email protected]?Subject=adsflkjsadlf - alksjdlsadjfyxcvyx">[email protected]</a></td><td>nmasdfdsadfafd</td><td>INPROG</td><td>3</td><td>2014-04-24 00:00</td> <tr><td><a href="https://foo.com/asdfasdfsadf">asdfasdfsadf</a></td><td>jdsalajslkfjyxcgrearafs</td><td><a href="mailto:[email protected]?Subject=asdfasdfsadf - jdsalajslkfjyxcgrearafs">[email protected]</a></td><td>nmasdfdsadfafd</td><td>INPROG</td><td>3</td><td>2014-04-24 00:00</td> </table> to a table what's first row (ex.: foo1; foo2; foo3, etc..) is clickable in a way that it will make the columns in order, ex.: order by foo2, etc. Just like an order by in an XLS. (extra: how in the hell can I put autofilter too?:D )

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  • Prevent recursive CTE visiting nodes multiple times

    - by bacar
    Consider the following simple DAG: 1->2->3->4 And a table, #bar, describing this (I'm using SQL Server 2005): parent_id child_id 1 2 2 3 3 4 //... other edges, not connected to the subgraph above Now imagine that I have some other arbitrary criteria that select the first and last edges, i.e. 1-2 and 3-4. I want to use these to find the rest of my graph. I can write a recursive CTE as follows (I'm using terminology from MSDN): with foo(parent_id,child_id) as ( // anchor member that happens to select first and last edges: select parent_id,child_id from #bar where parent_id in (1,3) union all // recursive member: select #bar.* from #bar join foo on #bar.parent_id = foo.child_id ) select parent_id,child_id from foo However, this results in edge 3-4 being selected twice: parent_id child_id 1 2 3 4 2 3 3 4 // 2nd appearance! How can I prevent the query from recursing into subgraphs that have already been described? I could achieve this if, in my "recursive member" part of the query, I could reference all data that has been retrieved by the recursive CTE so far (and supply a predicate indicating in the recursive member excluding nodes already visited). However, I think I can access data that was returned by the last iteration of the recursive member only. This will not scale well when there is a lot of such repetition. Is there a way of preventing this unnecessary additional recursion? Note that I could use "select distinct" in the last line of my statement to achieve the desired results, but this seems to be applied after all the (repeated) recursion is done, so I don't think this is an ideal solution. Edit - hainstech suggests stopping recursion by adding a predicate to exclude recursing down paths that were explicitly in the starting set, i.e. recurse only where foo.child_id not in (1,3). That works for the case above only because it simple - all the repeated sections begin within the anchor set of nodes. It doesn't solve the general case where they may not be. e.g., consider adding edges 1-4 and 4-5 to the above set. Edge 4-5 will be captured twice, even with the suggested predicate. :(

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  • C# 4.0 'dynamic' and foreach statement

    - by ControlFlow
    Not long time before I've discovered, that new dynamic keyword doesn't work well with the C#'s foreach statement: using System; sealed class Foo { public struct FooEnumerator { int value; public bool MoveNext() { return true; } public int Current { get { return value++; } } } public FooEnumerator GetEnumerator() { return new FooEnumerator(); } static void Main() { foreach (int x in new Foo()) { Console.WriteLine(x); if (x >= 100) break; } foreach (int x in (dynamic)new Foo()) { // :) Console.WriteLine(x); if (x >= 100) break; } } } I've expected that iterating over the dynamic variable should work completely as if the type of collection variable is known at compile time. I've discovered that the second loop actually is looked like this when is compiled: foreach (object x in (IEnumerable) /* dynamic cast */ (object) new Foo()) { ... } and every access to the x variable results with the dynamic lookup/cast so C# ignores that I've specify the correct x's type in the foreach statement - that was a bit surprising for me... And also, C# compiler completely ignores that collection from dynamically typed variable may implements IEnumerable<T> interface! The full foreach statement behavior is described in the C# 4.0 specification 8.8.4 The foreach statement article. But... It's perfectly possible to implement the same behavior at runtime! It's possible to add an extra CSharpBinderFlags.ForEachCast flag, correct the emmited code to looks like: foreach (int x in (IEnumerable<int>) /* dynamic cast with the CSharpBinderFlags.ForEachCast flag */ (object) new Foo()) { ... } And add some extra logic to CSharpConvertBinder: Wrap IEnumerable collections and IEnumerator's to IEnumerable<T>/IEnumerator<T>. Wrap collections doesn't implementing Ienumerable<T>/IEnumerator<T> to implement this interfaces. So today foreach statement iterates over dynamic completely different from iterating over statically known collection variable and completely ignores the type information, specified by user. All that results with the different iteration behavior (IEnumarble<T>-implementing collections is being iterated as only IEnumerable-implementing) and more than 150x slowdown when iterating over dynamic. Simple fix will results a much better performance: foreach (int x in (IEnumerable<int>) dynamicVariable) { But why I should write code like this? It's very nicely to see that sometimes C# 4.0 dynamic works completely the same if the type will be known at compile-time, but it's very sadly to see that dynamic works completely different where IT CAN works the same as statically typed code. So my question is: why foreach over dynamic works different from foreach over anything else?

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  • gcc precompiled headers weird behaviour with -c option

    - by pachanga
    Folks, I'm using gcc-4.4.1 on Linux and before trying precompiled headers in a really large project I decided to test them on simple program. They "kinda work" but I'm not happy with results and I'm sure there is something wrong about my setup. First of all, I wrote a simple program(main.cpp) to test if they work at all: #include <boost/bind.hpp> #include <boost/function.hpp> #include <boost/type_traits.hpp> int main() { return 0; } Then I created the precompiled headers file pre.h(in the same directory) as follows: #include <boost/bind.hpp> #include <boost/function.hpp> #include <boost/type_traits.hpp> ...and compiled it: $ g++ -I. pre.h (pre.h.gch was created) After that I measured compile time with and without precompiled headers: with pch $ time g++ -I. -include pre.h main.cpp real 0m0.128s user 0m0.088s sys 0m0.048s without pch $ time g++ -I. main.cpp real 0m0.838s user 0m0.784s sys 0m0.056s So far so good! Almost 7 times faster, that's impressive! Now let's try something more realistic. All my sources are built with -c option and for some reason I can't make pch play nicely with it. You can reproduce this with the following steps below... I created the test module foo.cpp as follows: #include <boost/bind.hpp> #include <boost/function.hpp> #include <boost/type_traits.hpp> int whatever() { return 0; } Here are the timings of my attempts to build the module foo.cpp with and without pch: with pch $ time g++ -I. -include pre.h -c foo.cpp real 0m0.357s user 0m0.348s sys 0m0.012s without pch $ time g++ -I. -c foo.cpp real 0m0.330s user 0m0.292s sys 0m0.044s That's quite strange, looks like there is no speed up at all!(I ran timings for several times). It turned out precompiled headers were not used at all in this case, I checked it with -H option(output of "g++ -I. -include pre.h -c foo.cpp -H" didn't list pre.h.gch at all). What am I doing wrong?

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  • Problems with CGI wrapper for PHP

    - by user205878
    I'm having a bugger of a time with a CGI wrapper for PHP. I know very little about CGI and PHP as CGI. Here's what I know about the system: Solaris 10 on a 386 Suhosin PHP normally running as CGI, with cgiwrap (http://cgiwrap.sourceforge.net/). I am not able to find an example wrapper.cgi on the server to look at. Shared hosting (virtual host), so I don't have access to Apache config. But the admins are not helpful. Switching hosts is not an option. Options directive cannot be overridden in .htaccess (ExecCGI, for example). .htaccess: AddHandler php-handler .php Action php-handler "/bin/test.cgi" ~/public_html/bin/test.cgi: #!/usr/bin/sh # Without these 2 lines, I get an Internal Server Error echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to/php-cgi" 'foo.php'; /bin/foo.php: <?php echo "this is foo.php!"; Output of http://mysite.com/bin/test.cgi: X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Content-type: text/html echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to//php-cgi" 'foo.php'; Output of http:/ /mysite.com/anypage.php: X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.11 Content-type: text/html echo "Content-type: text/html" echo "" exec "/path/to//php-cgi" 'foo.php'; The things I note are: PHP is being executed, as noted by the X-Powered-By ... header. The source of /bin/test.cgi is output in the results. No matter what I put as the second argument of exec, it isn't passed to the php binary. I've tried '-i' to get phpinfo, '-v' to get the version... When I execute test.cgi via the shell, I get the expected results (the argument is passed to php, and it is reflected in the output). Any ideas about how to get this to work? UPDATE It appears that the reason the source of the test.cgi was appearing was due to errors. Anytime fatal error occurred, either within the cgi itself or with the command being executed by exec, it would cause the source of the cgi to appear. Within test.cgi, I can get the proper output with exec "/path/to/php-cgi" -h (I get the same thing as I would from CLI).

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  • ContentPlaceHolders: Repeated Content

    - by brad
    Scenario I have an application using asp.net Master Pages in which I would like to repeat some content at the top and bottom of a page. Currently i use something like this: Master Page <html> <body> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="Foo" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> <!-- page content --> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="Bar" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </body> </html> Content Page <asp:Content ID="Top" ContentPlaceHolderID="Foo" runat="server"> <!-- content --> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Bottom" ContentPlaceHolderID="Bar" runat="server"> <!-- content repeated --> </asp:Content> Maintenance As you know, repeating things in code is usually not good. It creates maintenance problems. The following is what I would like to do but will obviously not work because of the repeated id attribute: Master Page <html> <body> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="Foo" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> <!-- page content --> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="Foo" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </body> </html> Content Page <asp:Content ID="Top" ContentPlaceHolderID="Foo" runat="server"> <!-- content (no repetition) --> </asp:Content> Possible? Is there a way to do this using asp.net webforms? The solution does not necessarily have to resemble the above content, it just needs to work the same way. Notes I am using asp.net 3.0 in Visual Studio 2008

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  • Why does using ASP.NET OutputCache keep returning a 200 OK, not a 304 Not Modified?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, i have a simple aspx page. Here's the top of it:- <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Foo.aspx.cs" Inherits="Foo" %> <%@ OutputCache Duration="3600" VaryByParam="none" Location="Any" %> Now, every time I hit the page in FireFox (either hit F5 or hit enter in the url bar) I keep getting a 200 OK response. Here's a sample reply from FireBug :- Request Headers:- GET /sitemap.xml HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost.foo.com.au User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-GB; rv:1.9.2) Gecko/20100115 Firefox/3.6 Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-au,en-gb;q=0.7,en;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: <snipped> If-Modified-Since: Tue, 01 Jun 2010 07:35:17 GMT If-None-Match: "" Cache-Control: max-age=0 Response Headers:- HTTP/1.1 200 OK Cache-Control: public Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Expires: Tue, 01 Jun 2010 08:35:17 GMT Last-Modified: Tue, 01 Jun 2010 07:35:17 GMT Etag: "" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 X-Powered-By: UrlRewriter.NET 2.0.0 X-AspNet-Version: 4.0.30319 Date: Tue, 01 Jun 2010 07:35:20 GMT Content-Length: 775 Firebug Cache tab:- Last Modified Tue Jun 01 2010 17:35:20 GMT+1000 (AUS Eastern Standard Time) Last Fetched Tue Jun 01 2010 17:35:20 GMT+1000 (AUS Eastern Standard Time) Expires Tue Jun 01 2010 18:35:17 GMT+1000 (AUS Eastern Standard Time) Data Size 775 Fetch Count 105 Device disk Now, if i try it in Fiddler using the Request Builder (and no extra data) I also keep getting the same 200 OK reply. Request Headers:- GET http://localhost.foo.com.au/sitemap.xml HTTP/1.1 User-Agent: Fiddler Host: foo.com.au Response Headers:- HTTP/1.1 200 OK Cache-Control: public Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Expires: Tue, 01 Jun 2010 07:58:00 GMT Last-Modified: Tue, 01 Jun 2010 06:58:00 GMT ETag: "" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 X-Powered-By: UrlRewriter.NET 2.0.0 X-AspNet-Version: 4.0.30319 Date: Tue, 01 Jun 2010 06:59:16 GMT Content-Length: 775 It looks like it's asking to cache it but it's not :( Server is a localhost IIS7.5 on Win7. (as listed in the Response data). Can anyone see what I'm doing wrong?

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