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  • How do I authenticate an ADO.NET Data Service?

    - by lsb
    Hi! I've created an ADO.Net Data Service hosted in a Azure worker role. I want to pass credentials from a simple console client to the service then validate them using a QueryInterceptor. Unfortunately, the credentials don't seem to be making it over the wire. The following is a simplified version of the code I'm using, starting with the DataService on the server: using System; using System.Data.Services; using System.Linq.Expressions; using System.ServiceModel; using System.Web; namespace Oslo.Worker { [ServiceBehavior(AddressFilterMode = AddressFilterMode.Any)] public class AdminService : DataService<OsloEntities> { public static void InitializeService( IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("*", EntitySetRights.All); config.SetServiceOperationAccessRule("*", ServiceOperationRights.All); } [QueryInterceptor("Pairs")] public Expression<Func<Pair, bool>> OnQueryPairs() { // This doesn't work!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! if (HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name != "ADMIN") throw new Exception("Ooops!"); return p => true; } } } Here's the AdminService I'm using to instantiate the AdminService in my Azure worker role: using System; using System.Data.Services; namespace Oslo.Worker { public class AdminHost : DataServiceHost { public AdminHost(Uri baseAddress) : base(typeof(AdminService), new Uri[] { baseAddress }) { } } } And finally, here's the client code. using System; using System.Data.Services.Client; using System.Net; using Oslo.Shared; namespace Oslo.ClientTest { public class AdminContext : DataServiceContext { public AdminContext(Uri serviceRoot, string userName, string password) : base(serviceRoot) { Credentials = new NetworkCredential(userName, password); } public DataServiceQuery<Order> Orders { get { return base.CreateQuery<Pair>("Orders"); } } } } I should mention that the code works great with the signal exception that the credentials are not being passed over the wire. Any help in this regard would be greatly appreciated! Thanks....

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  • VB.net/Excel- "Backwards" tab index For Each iteration with textboxes.

    - by MSD
    Hi there, I have a form with 3 textboxes and 1 button. textbox1 has tab index 0, and it's text = 1 textbox2 has tab index 1, and it's text = 2 textbox3 has tab index 2, and it's text = 3 I want to iterate thru the textboxes and place their values into cells so that... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "1") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "3") but what I am getting is... range("A1").value = txtbox1.text (ie: A1 = "3") range("A2").value = txtbox2.text (ie: A2 = "2") range("A3").value = txtbox3.text (ie: A3 = "1") I have tried reversing the tab index for the text boxes, but it doesn't change the "backwards iteration". Is there something I can do to change this so that the loop runs from lowest tab index to highest? Thanks! Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click_1(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim objExcel As New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application 'Declaring the object. objExcel.Visible = True 'Setting Excel to visible. Dim cntrl As Control With objExcel .Workbooks.Add() 'Adding a workbook. .Range("A1").Select() 'Selecting cell A1. End With 'Form contains 3 text boxes, with one number in each (1,2,3), and one button to fire the code in this sub. For Each cntrl In Me.Controls 'For every control on the form... If TypeOf (cntrl) Is TextBox Then 'If the control is a textbox, then... With objExcel .ActiveCell.Value = cntrl.Text 'place the control's text in the active cell and... .ActiveCell.Offset(1, 0).Activate() 'offset down one row. End With End If 'If the control is not a textbox (if it's the button), do nothing. Next 'Go to the next control. objExcel = Nothing 'Release the object. GC.Collect() 'Clean up. End Sub End Class

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  • C# WCF and Object Inheritence

    - by Michael Edwards
    I have the following setup of two classes: [SerializableAttribute] public class ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Title{get;set;} } [DataContract] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } These two classes are served through a WCF service. However I only want the service to expose the ChildData class to the end user but pull the marked up DataMember properties from the parent. E.g. The consuming client would have a stub class that looked like: public class ChildData{ public string Title{get;set;} public string Abstract{get;set;} } If I uses the parent and child classes as above the stub class only contains the Abstract property. I have looked at using the KnownType attribute on the ChildData class like so: [DataContract] [KnownType(typeOf(ParentData)] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } However this didn't work. I then applied the DataContract attribute to the ParentData class, however this then creates two stub classes in the client application which I don't want. Is there any way to tell the serializer that it should flatten the inheritance to that of the sub-class i.e. ChildData

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  • jQuery .height() property not working

    - by Andrew
    I'm attempting to get the height of an element using jQuery, but am receiving some unexpected results. Here's the code: $(function() { var contentheight = $('#subpage-content-small').height; alert(contentheight); }); Where #subpage-content-small has these CSS properties: #subpage-content-small { width: 400px; float: left; margin: 30px 10px 0 0; padding-bottom: 45px; } What I'm getting as an output for my alert is the following: function (f) { var e = this[0]; if (!e) { return f == null ? null : this; } if (c.isFunction(f)) { return this.each(function (j) {var i = c(this);i[d](f.call(this, j, i[d]()));}); } return "scrollTo" in e && e.document ? e.document.compatMode === "CSS1Compat" && e.document.documentElement["client" + b] || e.document.body["client" + b] : e.nodeType === 9 ? Math.max(e.documentElement["client" + b], e.body["scroll" + b], e.documentElement["scroll" + b], e.body["offset" + b], e.documentElement["offset" + b]) : f === w ? c.css(e, d) : this.css(d, typeof f === "string" ? f : f + "px"); } Any idea why I'm getting this as opposed to an integer of the height? Thanks in advance!

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  • Applied style in WPF ignores properties.

    - by Quenton Jones
    Here's the conundrum. In two different places in my application, I use a border with the exact same appearance. In an never-ending fight against code bloat and unmanageable code, I want to define the border's appearance in a style to use when I create the border. Strangely, several of the properties I set are being ignored. Here's the code I use to create the style. Simple enough. Style borderStyle = new Style(typeof(Border)); borderStyle.Setters.Add(new Setter(Border.BorderBrushProperty, Brushes.Black)); borderStyle.Setters.Add(new Setter(Border.BorderThicknessProperty, new Thickness(4))); borderStyle.Setters.Add(new Setter(Border.OpacityProperty, 1.0)); return borderStyle; But when I set the style, the opacity property is left at its original value of 0.7. I have also tried setting the background of the border to a brush I created. It too is ignored. Thanks for any insights you may have.

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  • Redirection Still not working (updated on earlier question)

    - by NoviceCoding
    So earlier I asked this question: JQuery Login Redirect. Code Included The php file is sending the following: $return['error'] = false; $return['msg'] = 'You have successfully logged in!!'; I've tried all the suggestions, quoting the error on php and ajax end, 2 equals instead of 3, I've also tried DNE true which should be the same as an else statement: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#submit').click(function() { $('#waiting').show(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#reg').hide(0); $('#message').hide(0); $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'logina.php', dataType : 'json', data: { type : $('#typeof').val(), login : $('#login').val(), pass : $('#pass').val(), }, success : function(data){ $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass((data.error === true) ? 'error' : 'success') .text(data.msg).show(500) if(data.error != true) window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php"); if (data.error === true) $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide() }, error : function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass('error') .text("There was an Error. Please try again.").show(500); $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide(); Recaptcha.reload(); } }); return false; }); And it still wont work. Any ideas on how to make a redirection work if login is successful and error returns false? Also while I am asking, can I put a .delay(3000) 3s at the end of window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php")?

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  • JS window.close() let IE hang

    - by p4bl0.666
    Hi all, for reason I won't bore you with, I'm writing an asp.net application that must open some pages in new browser windows. I managed to open them within a postback (don't ask why, I just needed to) with this code: script = String.Format(@"window.open(""{0}"", ""{1}"");", url, target); ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(page, typeof(Page), "Redirect", script, true); Now I have new windows each one with a button that should close it. I have simply an onclick="window.close()" (but that prompts me when I'm closing the browser) or window.open('','_self','');window.close() (horrible, I agree but it's the only way I found to avoid the JS prompt) On firefox it works perfectly but on IE7 (the browser our customers have) after 2-3 times I use that button to close the window I can't open other windows (in both cases, with or without the JS prompt). With the method above it does nothing, and with a <a href="mypage.aspx" target="_blank">click me</a> a new window is opened but hangs on loading (it doesn't even calls the Page_Load). What could be the cause? How can I solve this? Thank you.

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  • Get class instance by class name string

    - by VDVLeon
    Hi all, I noticed the function Object.factory(char[] className) in D. But it does not work like I hoped it would work; it does not work ;) An example: import std.stdio; class TestClass { override string toString() { return typeof(this).stringof; // TestClass } }; void main(string[] args) { auto i = Object.factory("TestClass"); if (i is null) { writeln("Class not found"); } else { writeln("Class string: " ~ i); } } I think this should result in the message: "Class string: TestClass" but it says "Class not found". Does anybody know why this happens and how I could fix it ? Or do I need to make my own class factory. For example by make a class with a static array Object[string] classes; with class instances. When I want a new instance I do this: auto i = (className in classes); if (i is null) { return null; } return i.classinfo.create();

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  • Write file need to optimised for heavy traffic part 2

    - by Clayton Leung
    For anyone interest to see where I come from you can refer to part 1, but it is not necessary. write file need to optimised for heavy traffic Below is a snippet of code I have written to capture some financial tick data from the broker API. The code will run without error. I need to optimize the code, because in peak hours the zf_TickEvent method will be call more than 10000 times a second. I use a memorystream to hold the data until it reaches a certain size, then I output it into a text file. The broker API is only single threaded. void zf_TickEvent(object sender, ZenFire.TickEventArgs e) { outputString = string.Format("{0},{1},{2},{3},{4}\r\n", e.TimeStamp.ToString(timeFmt), e.Product.ToString(), Enum.GetName(typeof(ZenFire.TickType), e.Type), e.Price, e.Volume); fillBuffer(outputString); } public class memoryStreamClass { public static MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); } void fillBuffer(string outputString) { byte[] outputByte = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(outputString); memoryStreamClass.ms.Write(outputByte, 0, outputByte.Length); if (memoryStreamClass.ms.Length > 8192) { emptyBuffer(memoryStreamClass.ms); memoryStreamClass.ms.SetLength(0); memoryStreamClass.ms.Position = 0; } } void emptyBuffer(MemoryStream ms) { FileStream outStream = new FileStream("c:\\test.txt", FileMode.Append); ms.WriteTo(outStream); outStream.Flush(); outStream.Close(); } Question: Any suggestion to make this even faster? I will try to vary the buffer length but in terms of code structure, is this (almost) the fastest? When memorystream is filled up and I am emptying it to the file, what would happen to the new data coming in? Do I need to implement a second buffer to hold that data while I am emptying my first buffer? Or is c# smart enough to figure it out? Thanks for any advice

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  • Using NHibernate's HQL to make a query with multiple inner joins

    - by Abu Dhabi
    The problem here consists of translating a statement written in LINQ to SQL syntax into the equivalent for NHibernate. The LINQ to SQL code looks like so: var whatevervar = from threads in context.THREADs join threadposts in context.THREADPOSTs on threads.thread_id equals threadposts.thread_id join posts1 in context.POSTs on threadposts.post_id equals posts1.post_id join users in context.USERs on posts1.user_id equals users.user_id orderby posts1.post_time where threads.thread_id == int.Parse(id) select new { threads.thread_topic, posts1.post_time, users.user_display_name, users.user_signature, users.user_avatar, posts1.post_body, posts1.post_topic }; It's essentially trying to grab a list of posts within a given forum thread. The best I've been able to come up with (with the help of the helpful users of this site) for NHibernate is: var whatevervar = session.CreateQuery("select t.Thread_topic, p.Post_time, " + "u.User_display_name, u.User_signature, " + "u.User_avatar, p.Post_body, p.Post_topic " + "from THREADPOST tp " + "inner join tp.Thread_ as t " + "inner join tp.Post_ as p " + "inner join p.User_ as u " + "where tp.Thread_ = :what") .SetParameter<THREAD>("what", threadid) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean(typeof(MyDTO))) .List<MyDTO>(); But that doesn't parse well, complaining that the aliases for the joined tables are null references. MyDTO is a custom type for the output: public class MyDTO { public string thread_topic { get; set; } public DateTime post_time { get; set; } public string user_display_name { get; set; } public string user_signature { get; set; } public string user_avatar { get; set; } public string post_topic { get; set; } public string post_body { get; set; } } I'm out of ideas, and while doing this by direct SQL query is possible, I'd like to do it properly, without defeating the purpose of using an ORM. Thanks in advance! EDIT: The database looks like this: http://i41.tinypic.com/5agciu.jpg (Can't post images yet.)

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  • How to filter List<T> with LINQ and Reflection

    - by Ehsan Sajjad
    i am getting properties via reflection and i was doing like this to iterate on the list. private void HandleListProperty(object oldObject, object newObject, string difference, PropertyInfo prop) { var oldList = prop.GetValue(oldObject, null) as IList; var newList = prop.GetValue(newObject, null) as IList; if (prop.PropertyType == typeof(List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail>)) { List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail> ScheduleDetailsOld = oldList as List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail>; List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail> ScheduleDetailsNew = newList as List<DataModel.ScheduleDetail>; var groupOldSchedules = ScheduleDetailsOld .GroupBy(x => x.HomeHelpID) .SelectMany(s => s.DistinctBy(d => d.HomeHelpID) .Select(h => new { h.HomeHelpID, h.HomeHelpName })); } } Now i am making it generic because there will be coming different types of Lists and i don't want to put if conditions this way i want to write generic code to handle any type of list. I came up with this way: private void HandleListProperty(object oldObject, object newObject, string difference, PropertyInfo prop) { var oldList = prop.GetValue(oldObject, null) as IList; var newList = prop.GetValue(newObject, null) as IList; var ListType = prop.PropertyType; var MyListInstance = Activator.CreateInstance(ListType); MyListInstance = oldList; } i am able to get the items in MyListInstance but as the type will come at runtime i am not getting how to write linq query to filter them, any ideah how to do.

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  • How to change the Array Element names in XmlSerialization?

    - by MSDN Geek
    Hi Guys, Consider the following code: [Serializable] public class Human { public string Name { get; set; } } Then, using (MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream()) { Human[] mans = new Human[] { new Human() { Name = "Moim" } }; XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Human[])); xs.Serialize(ms, mans); string s = System.Text.ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(ms.ToArray()); } At this point, the variable s will hold a value like, <?xml version="1.0"?> <ArrayOfHuman xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Human> <Name>Moim</Name> </Human> </ArrayOfHuman> Now all I need to do is, changing the xml array root element 'ArrayOfHuman' to something like 'MyFavoriteArrayRootName'. I have seen the IXmlSerializable interface but, that skips the root element name. Anybody has got any idea how to achieve this? All comments will be greatly appreciated. Best regards.

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  • How do I display a sting, based on which id is set as selected?

    - by Cam
    I'd like to display a text string (to be positioned above ul) depending on which link is set to selected by the chgClass fuction. The ids for each display via an alert right now, but I can't seem to make them appear in "english". I know I can set up an array stating "id=text string" but when I do it seems to break the code I already have... <script type="text/javascript"> var Lst; function CngClass(obj){ if (typeof(obj)=='string') obj=document.getElementById(obj); if (Lst) Lst.className=''; obj.className='selected'; Lst=obj; alert(obj.id); } </script> </head> <body onload="CngClass('POSITION_WITHOUT_NOTIFY')"> <div class="slider"> <ul class="bar"> <li class="deny"><a onclick="CngClass(this);" id="POSITION_NOT_ALLOWED" href="#">Deny</a></li> <li class="askDeny"><a onclick="CngClass(this);" id="NOTIFY_POSITION_IF_GRANTED" href="#">Ask Deny</a></li> <li class="askAllow"><a onclick="CngClass(this);" id="NOTIFY_POSITION_IF_NO_RESPONSE" href="#">Ask Allow</a></li> <li class="notify"><a onclick="CngClass(this);" id="NOTIFY_POSITION" href="#">Notfiy</a></li> <li class="allow"><a onclick="CngClass(this);" id="POSITION_WITHOUT_NOTIFY" href="#">Allow</a></li> </ul> </div> </body> </html>

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  • How do I manipulate the format on a DataGridView that is bound to a Data Source?

    - by Jack Johnstone
    I´m using SQL Server 2005 and Visual Studio 2008, C#. In the data source (the SQL Server data table) I use the DateTime format mm/dd/yyyy, however, in a forms overview (DataGridView) users would like to see a completely other format, with year, week number and day number of week (yyww,d) which is in string format. I´ve created an algorithm for the transformation between values (date to weekday), but can I populate the affected cells with yyww,d (string) instead of mm/dd/yyyy (DateTime)? This is what I´ve been testing out, without success (and note, it´s on the last line the problem becomes obvious, as the cell value won´t accept a string on runtime - it still wants to be a DateTime...) private void DataGridViewQueryFindRequests_CellFormatting( object sender, DataGridViewCellFormattingEventArgs e) { string weekAndDay = ""; DataGridViewCell cell = DataGridViewQueryFindRequests.Rows[e.RowIndex].Cells[e.ColumnIndex]; if (cell.ColumnIndex == 13 && cell.Value == null) mEmptyRow = true; if ((cell.ColumnIndex == 14 || cell.ColumnIndex == 15) && !mEmptyRow) { weekAndDay = ClassWeeksAndDates.dateToWeekNumber(Convert.ToDateTime(cell.Value)); cell.ValueType = typeof(string); cell.Value = weekAndDay; } }

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  • Windows service (hosting WCF service) stops immediately on start up

    - by Thr33Dii
    My Question: I cannot navigate to the base address once the service is installed because the service won't remain running (stops immediately). Is there anything I need to do on the server or my machine to make the baseAddress valid? Background: I'm trying to learn how to use WCF services hosted in Windows Services. I have read several tutorials on how to accomplish this and it seems very straight forward. I've looked at this MSDN article and built it step-by-step. I can install the service on my machine and on a server, but when I start the service, it stops immediately. I then found this tutorial, which is essentially the same thing, but it contains some clients that consume the WCF service. I downloaded the source code, compiled, installed, but when I started the service, it stopped immediately. Searching SO, I found a possible solution that said to define the baseAddress when instantiating the ServiceHost, but that didnt help either. My serviceHost is defined as: serviceHost = new ServiceHost( typeof( CalculatorService ), new Uri( "http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/service" ) ); My service name, base address, and endpoint: <service name="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.CalculatorService" behaviorConfiguration="CalculatorServiceBehavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8000/ServiceModelSamples/service"/> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.ICalculator"/> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> I've verified the namespaces are identical. It's just getting frustrating that the tutorials seem to assume that the Windows service will start as long as all the stated steps are followed. I'm missing something and it's probably right in front of me. Please help!

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  • XML serialization of hash table(C#3.0)

    - by Newbie
    Hi I am trying to serialize a hash table but not happening private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Hashtable ht = new Hashtable(); DateTime dt = DateTime.Now; for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) ht.Add(dt.AddDays(i), i); SerializeToXmlAsFile(typeof(Hashtable), ht); } private void SerializeToXmlAsFile(Type targetType, Object targetObject) { try { string fileName = @"C:\testtttttt.xml"; //Serialize to XML XmlSerializer s = new XmlSerializer(targetType); TextWriter w = new StreamWriter(fileName); s.Serialize(w, targetObject); w.Flush(); w.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw ex; } } After a google search , I found that objects that impelment IDictonary cannot be serialized. However, I got success with binary serialization. But I want to have xml one. Is there any way of doing so? I am using C#3.0 Thanks

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  • How to customize file dialog in wpf

    - by ManjuAnoop
    In Windows7 I am using a customized Open File Dialog( WPF application). My Open File dialog is derived from Microsoft.Win32.CommonDialog. The dialog have old look, how to change this to new look (windows7 file dialog look(Explorer style)). Code portion: private const int OFN_ENABLESIZING = 0x00800000; private const int OFN_EXPLORER = 0x00080000; private const int OFN_ENABLEHOOK = 0x00000020; protected override bool RunDialog(IntPtr hwndOwner) { OPENFILENAME_I.WndProc proc = new OPENFILENAME_I.WndProc(this.HookProc); OPENFILENAME_I ofn = new OPENFILENAME_I(); this._charBuffer = CharBuffer.CreateBuffer(0x2000); if (this._fileNames != null) { this._charBuffer.PutString(this._fileNames[0]); } ofn.lStructSize = Marshal.SizeOf(typeof(OPENFILENAME_I)); ofn.hwndOwner = hwndOwner; ofn.hInstance = IntPtr.Zero; ofn.lpstrFilter = MakeFilterString(this._filter, this.DereferenceLinks); ofn.nFilterIndex = this._filterIndex; ofn.lpstrFile = this._charBuffer.AllocCoTaskMem(); ofn.nMaxFile = this._charBuffer.Length; ofn.lpstrInitialDir = this._initialDirectory; ofn.lpstrTitle = this._title; ofn.Flags = OFN_EXPLORER | OFN_ENABLESIZING | OFN_ENABLEHOOK; ofn.lpfnHook = proc; ofn.FlagsEx = 0x1000000 ; NativeMethods.GetOpenFileName(ofn); // } [SecurityCritical, SuppressUnmanagedCodeSecurity, DllImport("comdlg32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, SetLastError = true)] internal static extern bool GetOpenFileName([In, Out] OPENFILENAME_I ofn);

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  • .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

    - by CitizenInsane
    Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

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  • how to delete the pluginassembly after AppDomain.Unload(domain)

    - by Ase
    hello, i have a weird problem. i would like to delete an assembly(plugin.dll on harddisk) which is already loaded, but the assembly is locked by the operating system (vista), even if i have unloaded it. f.e. AppDomainSetup setup = new AppDomainSetup(); setup.ShadowCopyFiles = "true"; AppDomain appDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain(assemblyName + "_AppDomain", AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence, setup); IPlugin plugin = (IPlugin)appDomain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap(assemblyName, "Plugin.MyPlugins"); I also need the assemblyinfos, because I don't know which classes in the pluginassembly implements the IPlugin Interface. It should be possible to have more than one Plugin in one Pluginassembly. Assembly assembly = appDomain.Load(assemblyName); if (assembly != null) { Type[] assemblyTypes = assembly.GetTypes(); foreach (Type assemblyTyp in assemblyTypes) { if (typeof(IPlugin).IsAssignableFrom(assemblyTyp)) { IPlugin plugin = (IPlugin)Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyTyp); plugin.AssemblyName = assemblyNameWithEx; plugin.Host = this; } } } AppDomain.Unload(appDomain); How is it possible to get the assemblyinfos from the appDomain without locking the assembly? best regards

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  • redirecting _top page from asp:login control in iframe onloggedin

    - by jumpdart
    So yeah, Im building a little authenticated content(.NET app) to a large html site managed by another group. They are only comfortable with managing html so all my app content will be contained in iframes. Everything is working fine as far as navigation and calling services and whatnot but i cant bust out of the frame with my asp:login control. Im trying to register some JS on logged in but with no success. Thanks protected void login_LoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { StringBuilder strScript = new StringBuilder(); strScript.Append("<script language='javascript'>"); string sHome = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["AppHomePageURL"].ToString(); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.navigate('{0}');", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("parent.location.href='{0}';", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.open('{0}', '_top', '', false);", sHome); strScript.AppendFormat("top.location.href='{0}';", sHome); strScript.Append("WTF_let_me_outa_here();"); strScript.Append("</script>"); ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(typeof(Page), "LoginGO", strScript.ToString()); }

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  • what happens when you stop VS debugger?

    - by mare
    If I have a line like this ContentRepository.Update(existing); that goes into datastore repository to update some object and I have a try..catch block in this Update function like this: string file = XmlProvider.DataStorePhysicalPath + o.GetType().Name + Path.DirectorySeparatorChar + o.Slug + ".xml"; DataContractSerializer dcs = new DataContractSerializer(typeof (BaseContentObject)); using ( XmlDictionaryWriter myWriter = XmlDictionaryWriter.CreateTextWriter(new FileStream(file, FileMode.Truncate, FileAccess.Write), Encoding.UTF8)) { try { dcs.WriteObject(myWriter, o); myWriter.Close(); } catch (Exception) { // if anything goes wrong, delete the created file if (File.Exists(file)) File.Delete(file); if(myWriter.WriteState!=WriteState.Closed) myWriter.Close(); } } then why would Visual Studio go on with calling Update() if I click "Stop" in debugging session on the above line? For instance, I came to that line by going line by line pressing F10 and now I'm on that line which is colored yellow and I press Stop. Apparently what happens is, VS goes to execute the Update() method and somehow figures out something gone wrong and goes into "catch" and deletes the file, which is wrong, because I want my catch to work when there is a true exception not when I debug a program and force to stop it.

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  • Suggestions on Working with this Inherited Generic Method

    - by blu
    We have inherited a project that is a wrapper around a section of the core business model. There is one method that takes a generic, finds items matching that type from a member and then returns a list of that type. public List<T> GetFoos<T>() { List<IFoo> matches = Foos.FindAll( f => f.GetType() == typeof(T) ); List<T> resultList = new List<T>(); foreach (var match in matches) { resultList.Add((T)obj); } } Foos can hold the same object cast into various classes in inheritance hierarchy to aggregate totals differently for different UI presentations. There are 20+ different types of descendants that can be returned by GetFoos. The existing code basically has a big switch statement copied and pasted throughout the code. The code in each section calls GetFoos with its corresponding type. We are currently refactoring that into one consolidated area, but as we are doing that we are looking at other ways to work with this method. One thought was to use reflection to pass in the type, and that worked great until we realized the Invoke returned an object, and that it needed to be cast somehow to the List <T>. Another was to just use the switch statement until 4.0 and then use the dynamic language options. We welcome any alternate thoughts on how we can work with this method. I have left the code pretty brief, but if you'd like to know any additional details please just ask.

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  • jquery, attaching objects (instead of string attribute) to an element

    - by binaryLV
    Hi! I'm trying to build DOM with jQuery and fill it with data that is received with AJAX (data type = json). I'd like to also store this data as an object, attached to a specific DOM element. Does jQuery provide any method for this? The reason I want to do it is because only part of data is initially displayed; other data might be needed later, depending on user actions. I tried using attr(), but it stores a string "[object Object]" instead of an actual object: var div = $('<div/>'); div.attr('foo', {bar: 'foobar'}); alert(div.attr('foo')); // gives "[object Object]" alert(typeof div.attr('foo')); // gives "string" alert(div.attr('foo').bar); // gives "undefined" Another way to do this would be by "bypassing" jQuery (div[0].foo = {bar: 'foobar'};), though this seems to be a "dirty workaround", if jQuery happens to already support attaching objects. Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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  • SQL query doesn't get inserted

    - by Deejdd
    I've been trying to get my query to work for some time it runs but doesn't insert anything nor does it return any errors. The database connection is open and is successfuly connection. The Table is called errorlog and holds the following data - id (int autoincremental, Primary key, Unique) - exception (varchar) - time (DateTime) exception = String(error message) time = DateTime.Now Here's the code: public void insertError(string error, DateTime time) { SqlCeParameter[] sqlParams = new SqlCeParameter[] { new SqlCeParameter("@exception", error), new SqlCeParameter("@time", time) }; try { cmd = new SqlCeCommand(); cmd.Connection = connection; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.CommandText = "INSERT INTO errorlog (exception, time) VALUES(@exception, @time)"; cmd.Parameters.AddRange(sqlParams); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message); } } Any help would be appreciated, Thanks in advance. EDIT Removed quotes around @exception Heres the connection: protected DataController() { try { string appPath = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof(DataController)).CodeBase).Replace(@"file:\", "") + @"\"; string strCon = @"Data Source = " + appPath + @"Data\EasyShop.sdf"; connection = new SqlCeConnection(strCon); } catch (Exception e) { } connection.Open(); } Finally the way it gets called: public bool log(string msg, bool timestamp = true) { DataController dc = DataController.Instance(); dc.insertError(msg, DateTime.Today); return true; }

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  • iphone navigation

    - by Rona
    function handleClickEvent(event) { var linkFrom = $(event.target); if (typeof linkFrom.attr("href") == 'undefined') { linkFrom = $(event.target).parent(); } var targetPage = linkFrom.attr("href"); if (linkFrom.hasClass('submit')) { handleSubmitEvent(event); // if we want to stop processing: return false; } if (linkFrom.hasClass('backbutton')) { targetPage = historyStack.pop(); if (historyStack.length == 0) { lastPage = "index.html"; } } else { historyStack.push(lastPage); } lastPage = targetPage; $(event.target).css({ 'background-color': '#194fdb', 'color': '#ffffff' }); loadingWindowON(); // Add new unique div prevPageId = "page" + pageIdCounter; pageIdCounter = parseInt(pageIdCounter) + 1 nextPageId = "page" + pageIdCounter; nextPageDiv = "<div id='" + nextPageId + "' class='nextpage' /></div>"; $("body").append(nextPageDiv); if (linkFrom.attr("target") != "_blank") { event.preventDefault(); document.getElementById(nextPageId).addEventListener('webkitAnimationEnd', function () { // remove prev div element = document.getElementById(prevPageId); if (element) { element.parentNode.removeChild(element); } // set next div as current document.getElementById(nextPageId).className = 'currentpage'; }, false); document.getElementById(nextPageId).className += ' slideleftIn'; document.getElementById(prevPageId).className += ' slideleftOut'; loadContent(targetPage, nextPageId); } I use this javascript with a twitter app I had to do and when I click a button, instead of sliding the new page from the side it adds it to the existing page at the bottom. It works fine when i open it on my computer using google chrome but when I try to open it with my iphone it doesn't work. Any ideas?

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