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  • IE7/IE8 javascript drop down menu used to redirect not working

    - by Robbiegod
    The error I see from IE7/IE8 in Jquery v1.7.2 and v.1.7.1 - i tried both: SCRIPT438: Object doesn't support property or method 'apply' My Code: <form> <select id="stateD" OnChange="showState()"> <option value="none" selected="selected">==========</option> <option value="http://www.google.com">google</option> <option value="http://www.yahoo.com">Yahoo</option> </select> </form> My Javascript - I have this pasted just below the webform: <script type="text/javascript"> function showState(){ oStates = document.getElementById("stateD"); var jLink = $("#stateD :selected").val(); if (jLink == undefined || jLink == "none" ){ alert("Please Select a State"); } else{ document.location.href=jLink}; } </script> I'm not using 2 libraries so i don't get why its having a problem. All that is supposed to happen is you select a url from the drop down menu and it auto sends you to that url that is in the value of the option tag. Works everywhere else, not sure why IE has to be such a jerk today. I'd post a url but i can't at the moment. its private. has anyone encountered this issue before?

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  • Why does my jQuery/YQL call not return anything?

    - by tastyapple
    I'm trying to access YQL with jQuery but am not getting a response: http://jsfiddle.net/tastyapple/grMb3/ Anyone know why? $(function(){ $.extend( { _prepareYQLQuery: function (query, params) { $.each( params, function (key) { var name = "#{" + key + "}"; var value = $.trim(this); if (!value.match(/^[0-9]+$/)) { value = '"' + value + '"'; } query = query.replace(name, value); } ); return query; }, yql: function (query) { var $self = this; var successCallback = null; var errorCallback = null; if (typeof arguments[1] == 'object') { query = $self._prepareYQLQuery(query, arguments[1]); successCallback = arguments[2]; errorCallback = arguments[3]; } else if (typeof arguments[1] == 'function') { successCallback = arguments[1]; errorCallback = arguments[2]; } var doAsynchronously = successCallback != null; var yqlJson = { url: "http://query.yahooapis.com/v1/public/yql", dataType: "jsonp", success: successCallback, async: doAsynchronously, data: { q: query, format: "json", env: 'store://datatables.org/alltableswithkeys', callback: "?" } } if (errorCallback) { yqlJson.error = errorCallback; } $.ajax(yqlJson); return $self.toReturn; } } ); $.yql( "SELECT * FROM github.repo WHERE id='#{username}' AND repo='#{repository}'", { username: "jquery", repository: "jquery" }, function (data) { if (data.results.repository["open-issues"].content > 0) { alert("Hey dude, you should check out your new issues!"); } } ); });

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • android widget unresponsive

    - by John
    I have a widget that you press and it then it will update the text on the widget. I have set an on click listener to launch another activity to perform the text update, But for some reason it only works temporarily and then it will become unresponsive and not do anything when pressed. Does anyone know why it might be doing that? i have posted my widget code below in case it is helpful. @Override public void onUpdate(Context context, AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager,int[] appWidgetIds) { thisWidget = new ComponentName(context, MemWidget.class); Intent intent = new Intent(context, updatewidget.class); PendingIntent pendingIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(context, 0, intent, 0); // Get the layout for the App Widget and attach an on-click listener to the button RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.ImageButton01, pendingIntent); // Tell the AppWidgetManager to perform an update on the current App Widget appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(thisWidget, views); } @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { appWidgetManager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(context); remoteViews = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget); thisWidget = new ComponentName(context, MemWidget.class); // v1.5 fix that doesn't call onDelete Action final String action = intent.getAction(); if (AppWidgetManager.ACTION_APPWIDGET_DELETED.equals(action)) { final int appWidgetId = intent.getExtras().getInt( AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); if (appWidgetId != AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID) { this.onDeleted(context, new int[] { appWidgetId }); } } else { super.onReceive(context, intent); } }

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  • Mercurial Subrepos, how to control which changeset I want to use for a subrepo?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I am reading up on subrepos, and have been running some tests locally, seems to work OK so far, but I have one question. How do I specify/control which changeset I want to use for a particular subrepo? For instance, let's say I have the following two projects: class library application o fourth commit o second commit, added a feature | | o third commit o initial commit | | o second commit |/ o initial commit Now, I want the class library as a subrepo of my application, but due to the immaturity of the longest branch (the one ending up as fourth commit), I want to temporarily use the "second commit" tip. How do I go about configuring that, assuming it is even possible? Here's a batch file that sets up the above two repos + adds the library as a subrepo. If you run the batch file, it will output: [C:\Temp] :test ... v4 As you can see from that last line there, it verifies the contents of the file in the class library, which is "v4" from the fourth commit. I'd like it to be "v2", and persist as "v2" until I'm ready to pull down a newer version from the class library repository. Can anyone tell me if it is possible to do what I want, and if so, what I need to do in order to lock my subrepo to the right changeset? Batch-file: @echo off if exist app rd /s /q app if exist lib rd /s /q lib if exist app-clone rd /s /q app-clone rem == app == hg init app cd app echo program>main.txt hg add main.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo program+feature1>main.txt hg commit -m "second commit, added a feature" cd .. rem == lib == hg init lib cd lib echo v1>lib.txt hg add lib.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo v2>lib.txt hg commit -m "second commit" hg update 0 echo v3>lib.txt hg commit -m "third commit" echo v4>lib.txt hg commit -m "fourth commit" cd .. rem == subrepos == cd app hg clone ..\lib lib echo lib = ..\lib >.hgsub hg add .hgsub hg commit -m "added subrepo" cd .. rem == clone == hg clone app app-clone type app-clone\lib\lib.txt

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  • Why does this program require MSVCR80.dll and what's the best solution for this kinda problem?

    - by Runner
    #include <gtk/gtk.h> int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { GtkWidget *window; gtk_init (&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new (GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); gtk_widget_show (window); gtk_main (); return 0; } I tried putting various versions of MSVCR80.dll under the same directory as the generated executable(via cmake),but none matched. Is there a general solution for this kinda problem? UPDATE Some answers recommend install the VS redist,but I'm not sure whether or not it will affect my installed Visual Studio 9, can someone confirm? Manifest file of the executable <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker" uiAccess="false"></requestedExecutionLevel> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type="win32" name="Microsoft.VC90.DebugCRT" version="9.0.21022.8" processorArchitecture="x86" publicKeyToken="1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b"></assemblyIdentity> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> It seems the manifest file says it should use the MSVCR90, why it always reporting missing MSVCR80.dll? FOUND After spending several hours on it,finally I found it's caused by this setting in PATH: D:\MATLAB\R2007b\bin\win32 After removing it all works fine.But why can that setting affect my running executable from using msvcr90 to msvcr80 ???

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  • A F# tail-recursive question

    - by ksharp
    Recently, I'm learning F#. I try to solve problem in different ways. Like this: (* [0;1;2;3;4;5;6;7;8] -> [(0,1,2);(3,4,5);(6,7,8)] *) //head-recursive let rec toTriplet_v1 list= match list with | a::b::c::t -> (a,b,c)::(toTriplet_v1 t) | _ -> [] //tail-recursive let toTriplet_v2 list= let rec loop lst acc= match lst with | a::b::c::t -> loop t ((a,b,c)::acc) | _ -> acc loop list [] //tail-recursive(???) let toTriplet_v3 list= let rec loop lst accfun= match lst with | a::b::c::t -> loop t (fun ls -> accfun ((a,b,c)::ls)) | _ -> accfun [] loop list (fun x -> x) let funs = [toTriplet_v1; toTriplet_v2; toTriplet_v3]; funs |> List.map (fun x -> x [0..8]) |> List.iteri (fun i x -> printfn "V%d : %A" (i+1) x) I thought the results of V2 and V3 should be the same. But, I get the result below: V1 : [(0, 1, 2); (3, 4, 5); (6, 7, 8)] V2 : [(6, 7, 8); (3, 4, 5); (0, 1, 2)] V3 : [(0, 1, 2); (3, 4, 5); (6, 7, 8)] Why the results of V2 and V3 are different?

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  • Apache crashes, probably because of this piece of php code. Can you have a look?

    - by Munim
    I am working on the development of a web based application on codeigniter. I wrote this function to get the timezone data for any city or address. function gettimezone($address) { $_url = 'http://api.local.yahoo.com/MapsService/V1/geocode'; $_url .= sprintf('?appid=%s&location=%s',"phpclasses",rawurlencode($address)); $_result = false; if($_result = file_get_contents($_url)) { preg_match('!<Latitude>(.*)</Latitude><Longitude>(.*)</Longitude>!U', $_result, $_match); $lng = $_match[2]; $lat = $_match[1]; $url = "http://ws.geonames.org/timezone?lat={$lat}&lng={$lng}"; $timedata = file_get_contents($url); $sxml = simplexml_load_string($timedata); return $sxml->timezone; } else return false; } I am working on Windows 7 and xampp 1.7 (php 5.2.8). Is there any possible scenario where this piece of code would crash Apache? The application runs fine almost everytime, but I think running this piece of code when there is no internet connectivity or very poor internet connectivity (thereby no access to either of the webservices I have used) brings down the server. Something like this happened a few times and I think it was due to loss of internet connectivity but I am not sure what exactly is going on. [ By the way, feel free to use this piece of code. Makes 2 web service calls so don't use to too often in your application. Consider storing the results in a database.]

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  • How can I bind multiple Jquery UI Slider with "year" Select?

    - by arthur_br
    Hi, I'm trying to render sliders instead of select components. Each page has several select components marked with class='jqselect' and all of them will have decreasing year values (some years may be missing). Eg. a select may have values [2010, 2009, 2006, 2005, 2004]. I have tried binding it both following the examples in the jQuery UI doc (but ignoring the missing years) and using selectToUISlider by filamentgroup (http://www.filamentgroup.com/lab/update_jquery_ui_slider_from_a_select_element_now_with_aria_support//). None of them work. Here is what I've done so far: Binding selects with following slider container divs: $('#content div.jqslider').slider({ animate: true, min: $(this).prev().children().last().val(), max: $(this).prev().children().first().val(), slide: function(event, ui) { var select = $(this).prev(); select.val($(this).slider('option', 'value')); console.log($(this).slider('option', 'value')); //debug } }); This renders the slider, but console logs values from 0 to 100 and selects obviously does not change with the event. Using selectToUISlider: $('#content select.jqselect').selectToUISlider(); This does not even render the slider, throwing an error 'b is undefined' in jquery-min.js (line 30, v1.4.2). If I pass the identifier of only one of the sliders, it is rendered but very buggy. Please, I'm stucked in the by two days and any help is much appreciated. Regards, Arthur

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  • Statically checking a Java app for link errors

    - by monorailkitty
    I have a scenario where I have code written against version 1 of a library but I want to ship version 2 of the library instead. The code has shipped and is therefore not changeable. I'm concerned that it might try to access classes or members of the library that existed in v1 but have been removed in v2. I figured it would be possible to write a tool to do a simple check to see if the code will link against the newer version of the library. I appreciate that the code may still be very broken even if the code links. I am thinking about this from the other side - if the code won't link then I can be sure there is a problem. As far as I can see, I need to run through the bytecode checking for references, method calls and field accesses to library classes then use reflection to check whether the class/member exists. I have three-fold question: (1) Does such a tool exist already? (2) I have a niggling feeling it is much more complicated that I imagine and that I have missed something major - is that the case? (3) Do you know of a handy library that would allow me to inspect the bytecode such that I can find the method calls, references etc.? Thanks!

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  • Custom View Engine in ASP.NET MVC 2 does not work with Areas

    - by mare
    I used the code below so far with ASP.NET MVC v1 and v2 but when I added an Area today to my application, the controller for the area couldn't find any views in my Areas/Views/controllerView folder. It issued the very well known exception that it searched those 4 standard folders but it did not look under Areas.. How can I change the code so that it will work with Areas? Maybe an example of custom view engine under ASP.NET MVC 2 with Areas support? The information about it on the net is very scarse.. Here's the code: public class PendingViewEngine : VirtualPathProviderViewEngine { public PendingViewEngine() { // This is where we tell MVC where to look for our files. /* {0} = view name or master page name * {1} = controller name */ MasterLocationFormats = new[] {"~/Views/Shared/{0}.master", "~/Views/{0}.master"}; ViewLocationFormats = new[] { "~/Views/{1}/{0}.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.ascx", "~/Views/{1}/{0}.ascx" }; PartialViewLocationFormats = new[] {"~/Views/{1}/{0}.ascx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.ascx"}; } protected override IView CreatePartialView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string partialPath) { return new WebFormView(partialPath, ""); } protected override IView CreateView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewPath, string masterPath) { return new WebFormView(viewPath, masterPath); } }

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  • Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • std::vector elements initializing

    - by Chameleon
    std::vector<int> v1(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>> v2(1000); std::vector<std::vector<int>::const_iterator> v3(1000); How elements of these 3 vectors initialized? About int, I test it and I saw that all elements become 0. Is this standard? I believed that primitives remain undefined. I create a vector with 300000000 elements, give non-zero values, delete it and recreate it, to avoid OS memory clear for data safety. Elements of recreated vector were 0 too. What about iterator? Is there a initial value (0) for default constructor or initial value remains undefined? When I check this, iterators point to 0, but this can be OS When I create a special object to track constructors, I saw that for first object, vector run the default constructor and for all others it run the copy constructor. Is this standard? Is there a way to completely avoid initialization of elements? Or I must create my own vector? (Oh my God, I always say NOT ANOTHER VECTOR IMPLEMENTATION) I ask because I use ultra huge sparse matrices with parallel processing, so I cannot use push_back() and of course I don't want useless initialization, when later I will change the value.

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  • .NET Embedded Manifest Crashes XP

    - by Alan Spark
    Hi, I am embedding a manifest in a .NET exe so that it can request elevated permissions in Vista and Windows 7. The manifest that I am using is as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <assemblyIdentity version="1.0.0.0" name="ElevationTest" type="win32"/> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> It works as expected in Vista and Windows 7 but crashes XP with the standard "... has encountered a problem and needs to close..." error. If I don't embed any manifest then it works as expected but will obviously not have the required permissions in Vista and Windows 7. What is a standard way of producing an exe that will function with the correct permissions in XP and Vista / Windows 7? Thanks, Alan

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  • AJAX/JSONP Question. Access id denied using IE while requesting corss domain.

    - by Sisir
    Ok, Here we go. I have already searched the Stack for the answer i have found some useful info but i want to clear up some more things. I also search the net for the answer but no real help. I have worked with some api (yelp, ouside.in). In yelp i use to inject the script to head with the url request to the api with a callback funcion. I worked fine in all browsers. But while using outside.in api when i call the url the callback in not working. In yelp they have a url field can be used like that callback=callbackfuncion so the callback will automatically called. But in outside.in there is not such field available. Is there are any standard command for callback function which will work regardless of any server/api? I also tried a standard ajax request using jQuery $.ajax() function. It worked for my local pc for both IE and other browser but did not working in IE showing the error: access denied, other borwser seems ok. Firebug in my FF also don't notice any errors. Outside.in has an javascript example but it is too hard to me to understand github.com/outsidein/api-examples/tree/master/javascript/browser/ site i am working: http://citystir.com yelp: yelp.com outside.in: outside.in Techniqual info: i am using: wampserver in local, wordpress for hosting, Godaddy, apache for remote with linux. Codes: Using Jquery $.ajax url is like: "http://hyperlocal-api.outside.in/v1.1/states/Illinois/cities/chicago/stories?dev_key="+key+"&sig="+signeture+"&limit=3 function makeOutsideRequest(url){ $.ajax({ url: url, dataType: 'json', type: 'GET', success: function (data, status, xhr) { if (data == null) { alert("An error occurred connecting to " + url + ". Please ensure that the server is running and configured to allow cross-origin requests."); }else{ printHomeNews(data); } }, error: function (xhr, status, error) { alert("An error occurred - check the server log for a stack trace."); } }); } Thanks!

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  • Consequent attribute calculations with a queuing system

    - by vrinek
    For all of the following assume these: rails v3.0 ruby v1.9 resque We have 3 models: Product belongs_to :sku, belongs_to :category Sku has_many :products, belongs_to :category Category has_many :products, has_many :skus When we update the product (let's say we disable it) we need to have some things happen to the relevant sku and category. The same is true for when a sku is updated. The proper way of achieving this is have an after_save on each model that triggers the other models' update events. example: products.each(&:disable!) # after_save triggers self.sku.products_updated # and self.category.products_updated (self is product) Now if we have 5000 products we are in for a treat. The same category might get updated hundreds of times and hog the database while doing so. We also have a nice queueing system, so the more realisting way of updating products would be products.each(&:queue_disable!) which would simply toss 5000 new tasks to the working queue. The problem of 5000 category updates still exists though. Is there a way to avoid all those updates on the db? How can we concatenate all the category.products_updated for each category in the queue?

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  • Run script after Jquery finish

    - by Felipe Fernández
    First let's explain the hack that I was trying to implement. When using Total Validator Tool through my web page and I get following error: [WCAG v1 6.3 (A), US-508-l] Consider providing a alternative after each tag As my page relies heavily on javascript I can't provide a real alternative, so I decided to add an empty noscript tag after every script appearence. Let's say I need to provide a clean report about accesibility about my web page even the hack is senseless. (I know the hack is unethical and silly, let's use it as example material, but the point of my post are the final questions) I tried the following approach: $(document).ready(function(){ $("script").each(function() { $(this).after("<noscript></noscript>"); }); }); The problem raises because I have a jQueryUI DatePicker component on my page. jQuery adds a script section after the DOM is ready so my hack fails as miss this section. So the questions are: How handles jQuery library to be executed after document is ready? How can I run my code after jQuery finish its labours?

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  • R Random Data Sets within loops

    - by jugossery
    Here is what I want to do: I have a time series data frame with let us say 100 time-series of length 600 - each in one column of the data frame. I want to pick up 4 of the time-series randomly and then assign them random weights that sum up to one (ie 0.1, 0.5, 0.3, 0.1). Using those I want to compute the mean of the sum of the 4 weighted time series variables (e.g. convex combination). I want to do this let us say 100k times and store each result in the form ts1.name, ts2.name, ts3.name, ts4.name, weight1, weight2, weight3, weight4, mean so that I get a 9*100k df. I tried some things already but R is very bad with loops and I know vector oriented solutions are better because of R design. Thanks Here is what I did and I know it is horrible The df is in the form v1,v2,v2.....v100 1,5,6,.......9 2,4,6,.......10 3,5,8,.......6 2,2,8,.......2 etc e=NULL for (x in 1:100000) { s=sample(1:100,4)#pick 4 variables randomly a=sample(seq(0,1,0.01),1) b=sample(seq(0,1-a,0.01),1) c=sample(seq(0,(1-a-b),0.01),1) d=1-a-b-c e=c(a,b,c,d)#4 random weights average=mean(timeseries.df[,s]%*%t(e)) e=rbind(e,s,average)#in the end i get the 9*100k df } The procedure runs way to slow. EDIT: Thanks for the help i had,i am not used to think R and i am not very used to translate every problem into a matrix algebra equation which is what you need in R. Then the problem becomes a little bit complex if i want to calculate the standard deviation. i need the covariance matrix and i am not sure i can if/how i can pick random elements for each sample from the original timeseries.df covariance matrix then compute the sample variance (t(sampleweights)%*%sample_cov.mat%*%sampleweights) to get in the end the ts.weighted_standard_dev matrix Last question what is the best way to proceed if i want to bootstrap the original df x times and then apply the same computations to test the robustness of my datas thanks

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  • how to get email id from google api response

    - by user1726508
    i am able to get user information from Google API response using oath2 . But i do't know how to get those responses individually . Response i am getting from Google Api: * Access token: ya29.AHES6ZQ3QxKxnfAzpZasdfd23423NuxJs29gMa39MXV551yMmyM5IgA { "id": "112361893525676437860", "name": "Ansuman Singh", "given_name": "Ansuman", "family_name": "Singh", "link": "https://plus.google.com/112361893525676437860", "gender": "male", "birthday": "0000-03-18", "locale": "en" } Original Token: ya29.AHES6ZQ3QxKxnfAzpZu0lYHYu8sdfsdafdgMa39MXV551yMmyM5IgA New Token: ya29.AHES6ZQ3QxKxnfdsfsdaYHYu8TNuxJs29gMa39MXV551yMmyM5IgA But i want only "id" & "name" indiviually to save in my Database table. How can i do this? I got those above response/output By using the below code. public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { ------------------------- ------------------------- ------------------------- String accessToken = authResponse.accessToken; GoogleAccessProtectedResource access = new GoogleAccessProtectedResource(accessToken, TRANSPORT, JSON_FACTORY, CLIENT_ID, CLIENT_SECRET, authResponse.refreshToken); HttpRequestFactory rf = TRANSPORT.createRequestFactory(access); System.out.println("Access token: " + authResponse.accessToken); String url = "https://www.googleapis.com/oauth2/v1/userinfo?alt=json&access_token=" + authResponse.accessToken; final StringBuffer r = new StringBuffer(); final URL u = new URL(url); final URLConnection uc = u.openConnection(); final int end = 1000; InputStreamReader isr = null; BufferedReader br = null; isr = new InputStreamReader(uc.getInputStream()); br = new BufferedReader(isr); final int chk = 0; while ((url = br.readLine()) != null) { if ((chk >= 0) && ((chk < end))) { r.append(url).append('\n'); } } System.out.print(""); System.out.println(); System.out.print(" "+ r ); //this is printing at once but i want them individually access.refreshToken(); System.out.println("Original Token: " + accessToken + " New Token: " + access.getAccessToken()); }

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  • How to read.table with "Hebrew" column names (in R)?

    - by Tal Galili
    Hi all, I am trying to read a .txt file, with Hebrew column names, but without success. I uploaded an example file to: http://www.talgalili.com/files/aa.txt And am trying the command: read.table("http://www.talgalili.com/files/aa.txt", header = T, sep = "\t") This returns me with: X.....ª X...ª...... X...œ.... 1 12 97 6 2 123 354 44 3 6 1 3 Instead of: ??? ????? ???? 12 97 6 123 354 44 6 1 3 My output for: l10n_info() Is: $MBCS [1] FALSE $`UTF-8` [1] FALSE $`Latin-1` [1] TRUE $codepage [1] 1252 And for: Sys.getlocale() Is: [1] "LC_COLLATE=English_United States.1252;LC_CTYPE=English_United States.1252;LC_MONETARY=English_United States.1252;LC_NUMERIC=C;LC_TIME=English_United States.1252" Can you suggest to me what to try and change to allow me to load the file correctly ? Update: Trying to use: read.table("http://www.talgalili.com/files/aa.txt",fileEncoding ="iso8859-8") Has resulted in: V1 1 ? Warning messages: 1: In read.table("http://www.talgalili.com/files/aa.txt", fileEncoding = "iso8859-8") : invalid input found on input connection 'http://www.talgalili.com/files/aa.txt' 2: In read.table("http://www.talgalili.com/files/aa.txt", fileEncoding = "iso8859-8") : incomplete final line found by readTableHeader on 'http://www.talgalili.com/files/aa.txt' While also trying this: Sys.setlocale("LC_ALL", "en_US.UTF-8") Or this: Sys.setlocale("LC_ALL", "en_US.UTF-8/en_US.UTF-8/C/C/en_US.UTF-8/en_US.UTF-8") Get's me this: [1] "" Warning message: In Sys.setlocale("LC_ALL", "en_US.UTF-8") : OS reports request to set locale to "en_US.UTF-8" cannot be honored Any suggestion or clarification will be appreciated. Best, Tal

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  • Does a jQuery selector by id always work without quotes and # sign?

    - by anarinsky
    I suddenly found that while using Mozilla / jQuery v1.8.2 I do not need to use the id with quotes and # sign. For example, $(bt2) works the same as $(“#bt2”), see the code below. Will this selector always work and are there any potential drawbacks from using this shorter form of selection? <html> <head> <title>append</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready (function(){ $(bt2).click(function(){ $(i1).append("<li>a4</li>", "<li>a5</li>"); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <button id="Button1">Append List</button> <ul id="i1"> <li>a1</li> </ul> </body> </html>

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  • faster way to compare rows in a data frame

    - by aguiar
    Consider the data frame below. I want to compare each row with rows below and then take the rows that are equal in more than 3 values. I wrote the code below, but it is very slow if you have a large data frame. How could I do that faster? data <- as.data.frame(matrix(c(10,11,10,13,9,10,11,10,14,9,10,10,8,12,9,10,11,10,13,9,13,13,10,13,9), nrow=5, byrow=T)) rownames(data)<-c("sample_1","sample_2","sample_3","sample_4","sample_5") >data V1 V2 V3 V4 V5 sample_1 10 11 10 13 9 sample_2 10 11 10 14 9 sample_3 10 10 8 12 9 sample_4 10 11 10 13 9 sample_5 13 13 10 13 9 tab <- data.frame(sample = NA, duplicate = NA, matches = NA) dfrow <- 1 for(i in 1:nrow(data)) { sample <- data[i, ] for(j in (i+1):nrow(data)) if(i+1 <= nrow(data)) { matches <- 0 for(V in 1:ncol(data)) { if(data[j,V] == sample[,V]) { matches <- matches + 1 } } if(matches > 3) { duplicate <- data[j, ] pair <- cbind(rownames(sample), rownames(duplicate), matches) tab[dfrow, ] <- pair dfrow <- dfrow + 1 } } } >tab sample duplicate matches 1 sample_1 sample_2 4 2 sample_1 sample_4 5 3 sample_2 sample_4 4

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  • Waiting for thread to finish Python

    - by lunchtime
    Alright, here's my problem. I have a thread that creates another thread in a pool, applies async so I can work with the returned data, which is working GREAT. But I need the current thread to WAIT until the result is returned. Here is the simplified code, as the current script is over 300 lines. I'm sure i've included everything for you to make sense of what I'm attempting: from multiprocessing.pool import ThreadPool import threading pool = ThreadPool(processes=1) class MyStreamer(TwythonStreamer): #[...] def on_success(self, data): #### Everytime data comes in, this is called #[...] #<Pseudocode> if score >= limit if list exists: Do stuff elif list does not exist: #</Pseudocode> dic = [] dic.append([k1, v1]) did = dict(dic) async_result = pool.apply_async(self.list_step, args=(did)) return_val = async_result.get() slug = return_val[0] idd = return_val[1] #[...] def list_step(self, *args): ## CREATE LIST ## RETURN 2 VALUES class threadStream (threading.Thread): def __init__(self, auth): threading.Thread.__init__(self) self.auth = auth def run(self): stream = MyStreamer(auth = auth[0], *auth[0]) stream.statuses.filter(track=auth[1]) t = threadStream(auth=AuthMe) t.start() I receive the results as intended, which is great, but how do I make it so this thread t waits for the async_result to come in?? My problem is everytime new data comes in, it seems that the ## CREATE LIST function is called multiple times if similar data comes in quickly enough. So I'm ending up with many lists of the same name when I have code in place to ensure that a list will never be created if the name already exists. So to reiterate: How do I make this thread wait on the function to complete before accepting new data / continuing. I don't think time.sleep() works because on_success is called when data enters the stream. I don't think Thread.Join() will work either since I have to use a ThreadPool.apply_async to receive the data I need. Is there a hack I can make in the MyStreamer class somehow? I'm kind of at a loss here. Am I over complicating things and can this be simplified to do what I want?

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  • CentOS 5.5 : Postfix, Dovecot & MySQL

    - by GruffTech
    I'm hoping someone has seen this issue before because I'm at quite a loss. We're building a new outbound smtp server for our clients that features anti-spam scanning and virus scanning for outbound emails, something we had not previously done. So with CentOS 5.5 x64, Installed and patched completely. Postfix & Dovecot both installed via base repo. [grufftech@outgoing postfix]# rpm -qa | grep postfix postfix-2.3.3-2.1.el5_2 [grufftech@outgoing postfix]# rpm -qa | grep dovecot dovecot-1.0.7-7.el5 [grufftech@outgoing ~]# dovecot --build-options Build options: ioloop=poll notify=inotify ipv6 openssl SQL drivers: mysql postgresql Passdb: checkpassword ldap pam passwd passwd-file shadow sql Userdb: checkpassword ldap passwd prefetch passwd-file sql static /etc/dovecot.conf auth default { mechanisms = plain login digest-md5 cram-md5 passdb sql { args = /etc/dovecot-mysql.conf } userdb sql { args = /etc/dovecot-mysql.conf } userdb prefetch { } user = nobody socket listen { master { path = /var/run/dovecot/auth-master mode = 0660 user = postfix group = postfix } client { path = /var/spool/postfix/private/auth mode = 0660 user = postfix group = postfix } } } All the server is doing is auth for postfix, so no reason to have imap / pop / dict. /etc/dovecot-mysql.conf driver = mysql connect = host=10.0.32.159 dbname=mail user=****** password=******** default_pass_scheme = plain user_query = select 1 password_query = select password from users where username = '%n' and domain = '%d' So drop in my configuration, (which is working on another server identical to this one.) [grufftech@outgoing ~]# /etc/init.d/dovecot start Starting Dovecot Imap: [ OK ] Sweet. Booted up nicely, thats good.... (incoming problem in 3....2....1....) May 21 08:09:01 outgoing dovecot: Dovecot v1.0.7 starting up May 21 08:09:02 outgoing dovecot: auth-worker(default): mysql: Connect failed to 10.0.32.159 (mail): Can't connect to MySQL server on '10.0.32.159' (13) - waiting for 1 seconds before retry well what the crap. went and checked permissions on my MySQL database, and its fine. [grufftech@outgoing ~]# mysql vpopmail -h 10.0.32.159 -u ****** -p Enter password: Welcome to the MySQL monitor. Commands end with ; or \g. Your MySQL connection id is 127828558 Server version: 4.1.22 Type 'help;' or '\h' for help. Type '\c' to clear the buffer. mysql>\q So! My server can talk to my database server. but dovecot, for whatever reason, isn't able to. I've fiddled with it for the last six hours, grabbed slightly-older copies of the RPM (ones that matched our production server exactly) to test those, copied configs, searched google, searched server fault, chatted in IRC, banged my head against the table, I've done it all. Surely I'm doing something wrong or forgetting something, can anyone tell me what the elephant in the room is? This stuff is supposed to work.

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