Search Results

Search found 24726 results on 990 pages for 'message passing'.

Page 652/990 | < Previous Page | 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659  | Next Page >

  • How can data not stored in a DB be accessed from any activity in Android?

    - by jul
    hi, I'm passing data to a ListView to display some restaurant names. Now when clicking on an item I'd like to start another activity to display more restaurant data. I'm not sure about how to do it. Shall I pass all the restaurant data in a bundle through the intent object? Or shall I just pass the restaurant id and get the data in the other activity? In that case, how can I access my restaurantList from the other activity? In any case, how can I get data from the restaurant I clicked on (the view only contains the name)? Any help, pointers welcome! Thanks Jul ListView lv= (ListView)findViewById(R.id.listview); lv.setAdapter( new ArrayAdapter<String>(this,android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1,restaurantList.getRestaurantNames())); lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { Intent i = new Intent(Atable.this, RestaurantEdit.class); Bundle b = new Bundle(); //b.putInt("id", ? ); startActivityForResult(i, ACTIVITY_EDIT); } }); RestaurantList.java package org.digitalfarm.atable; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; public class RestaurantList { private List<Restaurant> restaurants = new ArrayList<Restaurant>(); public List<Restaurant> getRestaurants() { return this.restaurants; } public void setRestaurants(List<Restaurant> restaurants) { this.restaurants = restaurants; } public List<String> getRestaurantNames() { List<String> restaurantNames = new ArrayList<String>(); for (int i=0; i<this.restaurants.size(); i++) { restaurantNames.add(this.restaurants.get(i).getName()); } return restaurantNames; } } Restaurant.java package org.digitalfarm.atable; public class Restaurant { private int id; private String name; private float latitude; private float longitude; public int getId() { return this.id; } public void setId(int id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return this.name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public float getLatitude() { return this.latitude; } public void setLatitude(float latitude) { this.latitude = latitude; } public float getLongitude() { return this.longitude; } public void setLongitude(float longitude) { this.longitude = longitude; } }

    Read the article

  • Android: Stopping method to be called twice if already running.

    - by user285831
    I'm trying to prevent my application to call the same method twice in the event of a double-click, or if the user presses different buttons quickly, almost at the same time. I have clickable Views, acting as buttons, that call the same method but passing different parameters. This is the call: startTheSearch(context, getState(), what, where); Inside this method I'm creating a new Thread, because it queries a web server for the result: new Thread(new Runnable() { public void run() { progDiag = ProgressDialog.show(ctx, null, "Searching", true); getServerXML(context, what, where, searchIsCustom, mOffset); handler.sendEmptyMessage(0); } }).start(); The problem is that upon two quick clicks, the method is fired twice, two threads are created, and consequently two new activities are created. That makes my app crash. When the methods are done, and we have the result from the server, we call the handler: private Handler handler = new Handler() { @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { super.handleMessage(msg); try { Intent i = new Intent(Golf.this, Result.class); Bundle b = new Bundle(); b.putString("what", mWhat); b.putString("where", mWhere); b.putInt("offset", mOffset); b.putBoolean("searchIsCustom", searchIsCustom); i.putExtras(b); startActivityForResult(i, Activity.RESULT_OK); progDiag.dismiss(); } catch (Exception e) { Alerts.generalDialogAlert("Error", "settings", ctx); } } }; I tried to have a global boolean variable called "blocked" initially set to false, creating a condition like: if(!blocked){ blocked = true; new Thread(new Runnable() { public void run() { But this only seems to work on slower phones like the G1, I tried on Nexus and before it set blocked = true, the second request has was granted. So is there any way I can block the method being called if it's already running, or if the thread has started so it wont create a new one? Please, I really need to fix this. I've been developing on Android for almost 2 months now, but I'm yet to tackle that bug. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Pass variables between separate instances of ruby (without writing to a text file or database)

    - by boulder_ruby
    Lets say I'm running a long worker-script in one of several open interactive rails consoles. The script is updating columns in a very, very, very large table of records. I've muted the ActiveRecord logger to speed up the process, and instruct the script to output some record of progress so I know how roughly how long the process is going to take. That is what I am currently doing and it would look something like this: ModelName.all.each_with_index do |r, i| puts i if i % 250 ...runs some process... r.save end Sometimes its two nested arrays running, such that there would be multiple iterators and other things running all at once. Is there a way that I could do something like this and access that variable from a separate rails console? (such that the variable would be overwritten every time the process is run without much slowdown) records = ModelName.all $total = records.count records.each_with_index do |r, i| $i = i ...runs some process... r.save end meanwhile mid-process in other console puts "#{($i/$total * 100).round(2)}% complete" #=> 67.43% complete I know passing global variables from one separate instance of ruby to the next doesn't work. I also just tried this to no effect as well unix console 1 $X=5 echo {$X} #=> 5 unix console 2 echo {$X} #=> "" Lastly, I also know using global variables like this is a major software design pattern no-no. I think that's reasonable, but I'd still like to know how to break that rule if I'd like. Writing to a text file obviously would work. So would writing to a separate database table or something. That's not a bad idea. But the really cool trick would be sharing a variable between two instances without writing to a text file or database column. What would this be called anyway? Tunneling? I don't quite know how to tag this question. Maybe bad-idea is one of them. But honestly design-patterns isn't what this question is about.

    Read the article

  • apache+mod_wsgi configuration for django project(s) on a quad core

    - by Stefano
    I've been experiment quite some time with a "typical" django setting upon nginx+apache2+mod_wsgi+memcached(+postgresql) (reading the doc and some questions on SO and SF, see comments) Since I'm still unsatisfied with the behavior (definitely because of some bad misconfiguration on my part) I would like to know what a good configuration would look like with these hypotesis: Quad-Core Xeon 2.8GHz 8 gigs memory several django projects (anything special related to this?) These are excerpts form my current confs: apache2 SetEnv VHOST null #WSGIPythonOptimize 2 <VirtualHost *:8082> ServerName subdomain.domain.com ServerAlias www.domain.com SetEnv VHOST subdomain.domain AddDefaultCharset UTF-8 ServerSignature Off LogFormat "%{X-Real-IP}i %u %t \"%r\" %>s %b \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-agent}i\"" custom ErrorLog /home/project1/var/logs/apache_error.log CustomLog /home/project1/var/logs/apache_access.log custom AllowEncodedSlashes On WSGIDaemonProcess subdomain.domain user=www-data group=www-data threads=25 WSGIScriptAlias / /home/project1/project/wsgi.py WSGIProcessGroup %{ENV:VHOST} </VirtualHost> wsgi.py import os import sys # setting all the right paths.... _realpath = os.path.realpath(os.path.dirname(__file__)) _public_html = os.path.normpath(os.path.join(_realpath, '../')) sys.path.append(_realpath) sys.path.append(os.path.normpath(os.path.join(_realpath, 'apps'))) sys.path.append(os.path.normpath(_public_html)) sys.path.append(os.path.normpath(os.path.join(_public_html, 'libs'))) sys.path.append(os.path.normpath(os.path.join(_public_html, 'django'))) os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = 'settings' import django.core.handlers.wsgi _application = django.core.handlers.wsgi.WSGIHandler() def application(environ, start_response): """ Launches django passing over some environment (domain name) settings """ application_group = environ['mod_wsgi.application_group'] """ wsgi application group is required. It's also used to generate the HOST.DOMAIN.TLD:PORT parameters to pass over """ assert application_group fields = application_group.replace('|', '').split(':') server_name = fields[0] os.environ['WSGI_APPLICATION_GROUP'] = application_group os.environ['WSGI_SERVER_NAME'] = server_name if len(fields) > 1 : os.environ['WSGI_PORT'] = fields[1] splitted = server_name.rsplit('.', 2) assert splitted >= 2 splited.reverse() if len(splitted) > 0 : os.environ['WSGI_TLD'] = splitted[0] if len(splitted) > 1 : os.environ['WSGI_DOMAIN'] = splitted[1] if len(splitted) > 2 : os.environ['WSGI_HOST'] = splitted[2] return _application(environ, start_response)` folder structure in case it matters (slightly shortened actually) /home/www-data/projectN/var/logs /project (contains manage.py, wsgi.py, settings.py) /project/apps (all the project ups are here) /django /libs Please forgive me in advance if I overlooked something obvious. My main question is about the apache2 wsgi settings. Are those fine? Is 25 threads an /ok/ number with a quad core for one only django project? Is it still ok with several django projects on different virtual hosts? Should I specify 'process'? Any other directive which I should add? Is there anything really bad in the wsgi.py file? I've been reading about potential issues with the standard wsgi.py file, should I switch to that? Or.. should this conf just be running fine, and I should look for issues somewhere else? So, what do I mean by "unsatisfied": well, I often get quite high CPU WAIT; but what is worse, is that relatively often apache2 gets stuck. It just does not answer anymore, and has to be restarted. I have setup a monit to take care of that, but it ain't a real solution. I have been wondering if it's an issue with the database access (postgresql) under heavy load, but even if it was, why would the apache2 processes get stuck? Beside these two issues, performance is overall great. I even tried New Relic and got very good average results.

    Read the article

  • Blocking 'good' bots in nginx with multiple conditions for certain off-limits URL's where humans can go

    - by Glenn Plas
    After 2 days of searching/trying/failing I decided to post this here, I haven't found any example of someone doing the same nor what I tried seems to be working OK. I'm trying to send a 403 to bots not respecting the robots.txt file (even after downloading it several times). Specifically Googlebot. It will support the following robots.txt definition. User-agent: * Disallow: /*/*/page/ The intent is to allow Google to browse whatever they can find on the site but return a 403 for the following type of request. Googlebot seems to keep on nesting these links eternally adding paging block after block: my_domain.com:80 - 66.x.67.x - - [25/Apr/2012:11:13:54 +0200] "GET /2011/06/ page/3/?/page/2//page/3//page/2//page/3//page/2//page/2//page/4//page/4//pag e/1/&wpmp_switcher=desktop HTTP/1.1" 403 135 "-" "Mozilla/5.0 (compatible; G ooglebot/2.1; +http://www.google.com/bot.html)" It's a wordpress site btw. I don't want those pages to show up, even though after the robots.txt info got through, they stopped for a while only to begin crawling again later. It just never stops .... I do want real people to see this. As you can see, google get a 403 but when I try this myself in a browser I get a 404 back. I want browsers to pass. root@my_domain:# nginx -V nginx version: nginx/1.2.0 I tried different approaches, using a map and plain old nono if's and they both act the same: (under http section) map $http_user_agent $is_bot { default 0; ~crawl|Googlebot|Slurp|spider|bingbot|tracker|click|parser|spider 1; } (under the server section) location ~ /(\d+)/(\d+)/page/ { if ($is_bot) { return 403; # Please respect the robots.txt file ! } } I recently had to polish up my Apache skills for a client where I did about the same thing like this : # Block real Engines , not respecting robots.txt but allowing correct calls to pass # Google RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} ^Mozilla/5\.0\ \(compatible;\ Googlebot/2\.[01];\ \+http://www\.google\.com/bot\.html\)$ [NC,OR] # Bing RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} ^Mozilla/5\.0\ \(compatible;\ bingbot/2\.[01];\ \+http://www\.bing\.com/bingbot\.htm\)$ [NC,OR] # msnbot RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} ^msnbot-media/1\.[01]\ \(\+http://search\.msn\.com/msnbot\.htm\)$ [NC,OR] # Slurp RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} ^Mozilla/5\.0\ \(compatible;\ Yahoo!\ Slurp;\ http://help\.yahoo\.com/help/us/ysearch/slurp\)$ [NC] # block all page searches, the rest may pass RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^(/[0-9]{4}/[0-9]{2}/page/) [OR] # or with the wpmp_switcher=mobile parameter set RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} wpmp_switcher=mobile # ISSUE 403 / SERVE ERRORDOCUMENT RewriteRule .* - [F,L] # End if match This does a bit more than I asked nginx to do but it's about the same principle, I'm having a hard time figuring this out for nginx. So my question would be, why would nginx serve my browser a 404 ? Why isn't it passing, The regex isn't matching for my UA: "Mozilla/5.0 (X11; Linux x86_64) AppleWebKit/536.5 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/19.0.1084.30 Safari/536.5" There are tons of example to block based on UA alone, and that's easy. It also looks like the matchin location is final, e.g. it's not 'falling' through for regular user, I'm pretty certain that this has some correlation with the 404 I get in the browser. As a cherry on top of things, I also want google to disregard the parameter wpmp_switcher=mobile , wpmp_switcher=desktop is fine but I just don't want the same content being crawled multiple times. Even though I ended up adding wpmp_switcher=mobile via the google webmaster tools pages (requiring me to sign up ....). that also stopped for a while but today they are back spidering the mobile sections. So in short, I need to find a way for nginx to enforce the robots.txt definitions. Can someone shell out a few minutes of their lives and push me in the right direction please ? I really appreciate ANY response that makes me think harder ;-)

    Read the article

  • Nginx + PHP - No input file specified for 1 server block. Other server block works fine

    - by F21
    I am running Ubuntu Desktop 12.04 with nginx 1.2.6. PHP is PHP-FPM 5.4.9. This is the relevant part of my nginx.conf: http { include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; sendfile on; keepalive_timeout 65; server { server_name testapp.com; root /www/app/www/; index index.php index.html index.htm; location ~ \.php$ { fastcgi_intercept_errors on; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME $document_root$fastcgi_script_name; include fastcgi_params; } } server { listen 80 default_server; root /www index index.html index.php; location ~ \.php$ { fastcgi_intercept_errors on; fastcgi_pass 127.0.0.1:9000; fastcgi_index index.php; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME $document_root$fastcgi_script_name; include fastcgi_params; } } } Relevant bits from php-fpm.conf: ; Chroot to this directory at the start. This value must be defined as an ; absolute path. When this value is not set, chroot is not used. ; Note: you can prefix with '$prefix' to chroot to the pool prefix or one ; of its subdirectories. If the pool prefix is not set, the global prefix ; will be used instead. ; Note: chrooting is a great security feature and should be used whenever ; possible. However, all PHP paths will be relative to the chroot ; (error_log, sessions.save_path, ...). ; Default Value: not set ;chroot = ; Chdir to this directory at the start. ; Note: relative path can be used. ; Default Value: current directory or / when chroot chdir = /www In my hosts file, I redirect 2 domains: testapp.com and test.com to 127.0.0.1. My web files are all stored in /www. From the above settings, if I visit test.com/phpinfo.php and test.com/app/www, everything works as expected and I get output from PHP. However, if I visit testapp.com, I get the dreaded No input file specified. error. So, at this point, I pull out the log files and have a look: 2012/12/19 16:00:53 [error] 12183#0: *17 FastCGI sent in stderr: "Unable to open primary script: /www/app/www/index.php (No such file or directory)" while reading response header from upstream, client: 127.0.0.1, server: testapp.com, request: "GET / HTTP/1.1", upstream: "fastcgi://127.0.0.1:9000", host: "testapp.com" This baffles me because I have checked again and again and /www/app/www/index.php definitely exists! This is also validated by the fact that test.com/app/www/index.php works which means the file exists and the permissions are correct. Why is this happening and what are the root causes of things breaking for just the testapp.com v-host? Just an update to my investigation: I have commented out chroot and chdir in php-fpm.conf to narrow down the problem If I remove the location ~ \.php$ block for testapp.com, then nginx will send me a bin file which contains the PHP code. This means that on nginx's side, things are fine. The problem is that something must be mangling the file paths when passing it to PHP-FPM. Having said that, it is quite strange that the default_server v-host works fine because its root is /www, where as things just won't work for the testapp.com v-host because the root is /www/app/www.

    Read the article

  • What is the best server or Ip address to use for prolonged testing?

    - by eldorel
    I usually run uptime/latency tests against (and from) two servers that we own at different sites and until recently I've used the google dns servers as a control group. However, I've realized there is a potential problem with monitoring latency over extended periods of time. Almost all of the major service providers are using ANYCAST. For short tests this doesn't matter, but I need to run a set of tests for at least a week to try and catch an intermittent problem, and a change in the anycast priority while trying to test latency will cause the latency values for that server to change accordingly. Since I'm submitting graphs of this data to the ISP, I need to avoid/account for as many variables as possible. Spikes in the data for only one of the tested servers will only cause headaches. So can anyone recommend servers that: are not using anycast are owned by an entity that has a good uptime reputation (so they can't claim that the problem is server-side) will respond to ICMP requests Have an available service that runs on TCP/UDP (http or dns preferably) Wont consider an automated request every 10 minutes to be abuse Are accessible from anywhere in the world Are not local to the isp ( consider this an investigation of a hostile party ) Thanks in advance. Edit: added #6 and #7 above. More info: I am attempting to demonstrate a network problem for an entire node of our local ISP's network. They are actively blaming the issue on the equipment installed at the customer sites (our backup site is one of these), and refuse to escalate the problem. (even though 2 of these businesses have ISP provided modems, and all of us have completely different routers/services running) I am already quite familiar with the need to test an isp controlled IP, but they are actively dropping all packets targeted at gateway ip addresses and are only passing traffic addressed beyond the gateways. So to demonstrate the issue, I am sending packets to other systems in the same node, systems one hop away from the affected node, and systems completely outside the network. Unfortunately, all of the systems I have currently are either administered directly by myself, or by people who are biased enough to assist me. I need to have several systems included in the trace/log/graphs that are 100% not in the control of either myself or the isp so that the graphs have a stable/unbiased control group. These requirements are straight from legal, I'm just trying to make sure that everything that could be argued to invalidate the data is already covered. In Summary: I need to be able to show tcp/udp/icmp as 3 separate data points, and I need to be able to show the connections inside the local node, from local node to another nearby node, from those 2 nodes to the internet, and through the internet to both verifiable servers and a control group that I have no control over whatsoever. Again, Google/opendns/yahoo/msn/facebook/etc all use anycast, which throws the numbers off every time the anycast caches expire, so I need suggestions of an IP or server that is available for this type of testing. I was hoping someone knew of a system run by someone such as ISC or ICANN, or perhaps even a .gov server (fcc or nsa maybe?) setup for this type of testing. Thanks again.

    Read the article

  • Apache URL rewriting in reverse proxy

    - by Jeremy Gooch
    I'm deploying Apache in front of a Karaf-hosted application (Apache and Karaf are on separate servers). I want Apache to operate as a reverse proxy and also to hide part of the URL. The URL to get the log-in page of the application directly from the app server is http://app-server:8181/jellyfish. Pages are served by the Jetty instance running within Karaf. Of course, this behaviour would usually be blocked by the firewall for everything except the reverse proxy server. With the firewall off, if you hit this URL then Jetty loads the log-in page. The browser's address bar correctly changes to http://app-server:8181/jellyfish/login?0 and everything works. What I want is for http://web-server (i.e. from the root) to map to Jetty on the app server with the name of the app (jellyfish) suppressed. e.g. The browser would change to show http://web-server/login?0 in the address bar and all subsequent URLs and content would be served with the web-server's domain and without the jellyfish clutter. I can get Apache to operate as a simple reverse proxy, using the following config (snippet):- ProxyPass /jellyfish http://app-server:8181/jellyfish ProxyPassReverse / http://app-server:8181/ ...but this requires the browser's URL to contain jellyfish and going to the root URL (http://web-server) gives a 404 Not Found. I've spent a lot of time trying to use mod_rewrite with and without its [P] flag to get around this, but without success. I then tried the ProxyPassMatch directive, but I can't seem to get that quite correct either. Here's the current config, as is loaded into /etc/apache2/sites-available/ on the web server. Note that there is a locally-hosted images directory. I've also kept the mod_rewrite proxy exploit protection and am suppressing a couple of mod_security rules that were giving false positives. <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin admin@drummer-server ServerName drummer-server ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error.log LogLevel warn CustomLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/access.log combined Alias /images/ "/var/www/images/" RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/ RewriteRule .* - [R=400,L] ProxyPass /images ! ProxyPassMatch ^/(.*) http://granny-server:8181/jellyfish/$1 ProxyPassReverse / http://granny-server:8181/jellyfish ProxyPreserveHost On SecRuleRemoveById 981059 981060 <Directory "/var/www/images"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> If I go to http://web-server, I get redirected to http://web-server/jellyfish/home but this gives a 404, with a complaint about trying to access /jellyfish/jellyfish/home - NB the browser's address bar does not contain the double /jellyfish. HTTP ERROR 404 Problem accessing /jellyfish/jellyfish/home. Reason: Not Found And, if I go to http://web-server/login, I get redirected to http://web-server/jellyfish/login?0 but this gives a 404, with a complaint about trying to access /jellyfish/jellyfish/login. HTTP ERROR 404 Problem accessing /jellyfish/jellyfish/login. Reason: Not Found So, I'm guessing I'm somehow passing through the rules twice. I am also slightly bemused as to where the home bit of the URL comes from in the first example. Can someone point me in the right direction, please? Thanks, J.

    Read the article

  • Issue in nginx proxying to apache

    - by Luis Masuelli
    My current nginx configuration is as follows: specific configuration for (currently two) domains: server { listen 443 ssl; server_name studiotv.service.tebusco.lan phpmyadmin.service.tebusco.lan; ssl_certificate /home/administrador/nginx-confs/ssl/service.tebusco.lan.crt; ssl_certificate_key /home/administrador/nginx-confs/ssl/service.tebusco.lan.key; location / { proxy_pass http://127.0.0.1:8180; proxy_set_header Host $http_host:8180; } } default configuration for unmatched ssl connections: server { listen 443 default ssl; ssl_certificate /home/administrador/nginx-confs/ssl/service.tebusco.lan.crt; ssl_certificate_key /home/administrador/nginx-confs/ssl/service.tebusco.lan.key; location / { return 403; } } http configuration: server { listen 80; rewrite ^ https://$host$request_uri? permanent; } The intention is clear: Redirect http traffic to https. Proxy each https:// call from phpmyadmin.service.tebusco.lan and studiotv.service.tebusco.lan to apache2. This includes passing a host header, which is detected. Each unmatched ssl connection must return a 403 in nginx. Does not even reach apache2. In the apache2 side of the life, I have a default site, and a non-default site which will match studiotv.service.tebusco.lan: 000-default.conf file (available and enabled): <VirtualHost 127.0.0.1:8180> # The ServerName directive sets the request scheme, hostname and port that # the server uses to identify itself. This is used when creating # redirection URLs. In the context of virtual hosts, the ServerName # specifies what hostname must appear in the request's Host: header to # match this virtual host. For the default virtual host (this file) this # value is not decisive as it is used as a last resort host regardless. # However, you must set it for any further virtual host explicitly. ServerName localhost ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost DocumentRoot /var/www/html <Directory /var/www/html> Order deny,allow Require all granted </Directory> </VirtualHost> # vim: syntax=apache ts=4 sw=4 sts=4 sr noet studiotv.conf file (available and enabled): <VirtualHost *:8180> ServerName studiotv.service.tebusco.lan ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /var/www/studiotv <Directory /var/www/studiotv/> Options -Indexes +FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Allow from all Require all granted </Directory> # Available loglevels: trace8, ..., trace1, debug, info, notice, warn, # error, crit, alert, emerg. # It is also possible to configure the loglevel for particular # modules, e.g. #LogLevel info ssl:warn # No usamos ${APACHE_LOG_DIR} sino en su lugar /var/log/<host> ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/studiotv/error.log CustomLog /var/log/apache2/studiotv/access.log combined </VirtualHost> # vim: syntax=apache ts=4 sw=4 sts=4 sr noet However, when I hit the browser with http://studiotv.service.tebusco.lan, the default php page is shown instead. Question: What am I missing? (apache 2.4.7, nginx 1.6.0, ubuntu server 14.04).

    Read the article

  • Network config / gear question

    - by mcgee1234
    I have been tasked with setting up a fairly straightforward rack in a data center (we do not even need a whole rack, but this is the smallest allotment available). In a nutshell, 4 to 6 servers need to be able to reach 2 (maybe 3) vendors. The servers needs to be reachable over the internet. A little more detail - the networks the servers need to reach are inside of the data center, and are "trusted". Connections to these networks will be achieved through intra data center cross connects. It is kind of like a manufacturing line where we receive data from one vendor (burst-able up to 200 Mbits), churn through it on the servers, and then send out data to another vendor (bursts up to 20 Mbits). This series of events is very latency sensitive, so much so that it is common practice not to use NAT or a firewall on these segments (or so I hear). To reach the servers over the internet, I plan to use a site to site VPN. (This part is only relevant as far as hardware selection goes). I have 2 configurations in mind: Cisco 2911 (2921) (with the additional wan ports module) and a layer 2 switch - in this scenario, I would use the router also for VPN. Cisco 3560 layer 3 switch to interconnect the networks inside of the data center and an ASA 5510 (which is total overkill, but the 5505 is not rack mountable) as a firewall for the Wan side (internet) and VPN. I envision the setup to be as follows: Internet - ASA - 3560 Vendors - 3560 - Servers The general idea is that the ASA acts as a firewall and VPN device and the 3560 does all the heavy lifting. The first is a fairly traditional setup but my concern is performance. The second is somewhat unorthodox in that the vendors are directly connected to the layer 3 switch without passing through a firewall. Based on my understanding however, a layer 3 switch will perform substantially better as it will do hardware (ASIC) vs. software switching. (Note that number 2 is a little over the budget, but not unworkable (double negative, ugh)) Since this is my first time dealing with a data center, I am not sure what the IP space is going to look like. I suspect I will retain a block(s) of public IPs, vlan them to individual interfaces for the vendor connections and the servers (which will not reachable from the wan side of course) and setup routing on the switch. So here are my questionss: Is there a substantial performance difference between 1 and 2, i.e. hardware based switching on a layer 3 vs a software base on the 2911? I have trolled the internet and found a lot of Cisco literature, but nothing that I could really use to get a good handle. The vendors we connect to are secure and trusted (famous last words) and as I understand it, it is common practice not to NAT or firewall these connections (because of the aforementioned latency sensitivity). But what what kind of latency are we really talking about if I push the data through a router (or even ASA for that matter)? For our purposes, 5 ms will not kill us, 20 or 30 can be very costly. Others measure in microseconds, but they are out of our league. Is there any issues with using public IPs on a layer 3 switch? I am certainly not married to either of these configs, and I am totally open to any ideas. My knowledge (and I use the term loosely) is largely from books so I welcome any advice / insight. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • .NET WebRequest.PreAuthenticate not quite what it sounds like

    - by Rick Strahl
    I’ve run into the  problem a few times now: How to pre-authenticate .NET WebRequest calls doing an HTTP call to the server – essentially send authentication credentials on the very first request instead of waiting for a server challenge first? At first glance this sound like it should be easy: The .NET WebRequest object has a PreAuthenticate property which sounds like it should force authentication credentials to be sent on the first request. Looking at the MSDN example certainly looks like it does: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.net.webrequest.preauthenticate.aspx Unfortunately the MSDN sample is wrong. As is the text of the Help topic which incorrectly leads you to believe that PreAuthenticate… wait for it - pre-authenticates. But it doesn’t allow you to set credentials that are sent on the first request. What this property actually does is quite different. It doesn’t send credentials on the first request but rather caches the credentials ONCE you have already authenticated once. Http Authentication is based on a challenge response mechanism typically where the client sends a request and the server responds with a 401 header requesting authentication. So the client sends a request like this: GET /wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus HTTP/1.1 Host: rasnote User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en,de;q=0.7,en-us;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive and the server responds with: HTTP/1.1 401 Unauthorized Cache-Control: private Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 WWW-Authenticate: basic realm=rasnote" X-AspNet-Version: 2.0.50727 WWW-Authenticate: Negotiate WWW-Authenticate: NTLM WWW-Authenticate: Basic realm="rasnote" X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Tue, 27 Oct 2009 00:58:20 GMT Content-Length: 5163 plus the actual error message body. The client then is responsible for re-sending the current request with the authentication token information provided (in this case Basic Auth): GET /wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus HTTP/1.1 Host: rasnote User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en,de;q=0.7,en-us;q=0.3 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: TimeTrakker=2HJ1998WH06696; WebLogCommentUser=Rick Strahl|http://www.west-wind.com/|[email protected]; WebStoreUser=b8bd0ed9 Authorization: Basic cgsf12aDpkc2ZhZG1zMA== Once the authorization info is sent the server responds with the actual page result. Now if you use WebRequest (or WebClient) the default behavior is to re-authenticate on every request that requires authorization. This means if you look in  Fiddler or some other HTTP client Proxy that captures requests you’ll see that each request re-authenticates: Here are two requests fired back to back: and you can see the 401 challenge, the 200 response for both requests. If you watch this same conversation between a browser and a server you’ll notice that the first 401 is also there but the subsequent 401 requests are not present. WebRequest.PreAuthenticate And this is precisely what the WebRequest.PreAuthenticate property does: It’s a caching mechanism that caches the connection credentials for a given domain in the active process and resends it on subsequent requests. It does not send credentials on the first request but it will cache credentials on subsequent requests after authentication has succeeded: string url = "http://rasnote/wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus"; HttpWebRequest req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("rick", "secret", "rasnote"); req.AuthenticationLevel = System.Net.Security.AuthenticationLevel.MutualAuthRequested; req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse(); resp.Close(); req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("rstrahl", "secret", "rasnote"); req.AuthenticationLevel = System.Net.Security.AuthenticationLevel.MutualAuthRequested; req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; resp = req.GetResponse(); which results in the desired sequence: where only the first request doesn’t send credentials. This is quite useful as it saves quite a few round trips to the server – bascially it saves one auth request request for every authenticated request you make. In most scenarios I think you’d want to send these credentials this way but one downside to this is that there’s no way to log out the client. Since the client always sends the credentials once authenticated only an explicit operation ON THE SERVER can undo the credentials by forcing another login explicitly (ie. re-challenging with a forced 401 request). Forcing Basic Authentication Credentials on the first Request On a few occasions I’ve needed to send credentials on a first request – mainly to some oddball third party Web Services (why you’d want to use Basic Auth on a Web Service is beyond me – don’t ask but it’s not uncommon in my experience). This is true of certain services that are using Basic Authentication (especially some Apache based Web Services) and REQUIRE that the authentication is sent right from the first request. No challenge first. Ugly but there it is. Now the following works only with Basic Authentication because it’s pretty straight forward to create the Basic Authorization ‘token’ in code since it’s just an unencrypted encoding of the user name and password into base64. As you might guess this is totally unsecure and should only be used when using HTTPS/SSL connections (i’m not in this example so I can capture the Fiddler trace and my local machine doesn’t have a cert installed, but for production apps ALWAYS use SSL with basic auth). The idea is that you simply add the required Authorization header to the request on your own along with the authorization string that encodes the username and password: string url = "http://rasnote/wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus"; HttpWebRequest req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; string user = "rick"; string pwd = "secret"; string domain = "www.west-wind.com"; string auth = "Basic " + Convert.ToBase64String(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(user + ":" + pwd)); req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.AuthenticationLevel = System.Net.Security.AuthenticationLevel.MutualAuthRequested;req.Headers.Add("Authorization", auth); req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse(); resp.Close(); This works and causes the request to immediately send auth information to the server. However, this only works with Basic Auth because you can actually create the authentication credentials easily on the client because it’s essentially clear text. The same doesn’t work for Windows or Digest authentication since you can’t easily create the authentication token on the client and send it to the server. Another issue with this approach is that PreAuthenticate has no effect when you manually force the authentication. As far as Web Request is concerned it never sent the authentication information so it’s not actually caching the value any longer. If you run 3 requests in a row like this: string url = "http://rasnote/wconnect/admin/wc.wc?_maintain~ShowStatus"; HttpWebRequest req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; string user = "ricks"; string pwd = "secret"; string domain = "www.west-wind.com"; string auth = "Basic " + Convert.ToBase64String(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(user + ":" + pwd)); req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Headers.Add("Authorization", auth); req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; WebResponse resp = req.GetResponse(); resp.Close(); req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, pwd, domain); req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; resp = req.GetResponse(); resp.Close(); req = HttpWebRequest.Create(url) as HttpWebRequest; req.PreAuthenticate = true; req.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(user, pwd, domain); req.UserAgent = ": Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.3) Gecko/20090824 Firefox/3.5.3 (.NET CLR 4.0.20506)"; resp = req.GetResponse(); you’ll find the trace looking like this: where the first request (the one we explicitly add the header to) authenticates, the second challenges, and any subsequent ones then use the PreAuthenticate credential caching. In effect you’ll end up with one extra 401 request in this scenario, which is still better than 401 challenges on each request. Getting Access to WebRequest in Classic .NET Web Service Clients If you’re running a classic .NET Web Service client (non-WCF) one issue with the above is how do you get access to the WebRequest to actually add the custom headers to do the custom Authentication described above? One easy way is to implement a partial class that allows you add headers with something like this: public partial class TaxService { protected NameValueCollection Headers = new NameValueCollection(); public void AddHttpHeader(string key, string value) { this.Headers.Add(key,value); } public void ClearHttpHeaders() { this.Headers.Clear(); } protected override WebRequest GetWebRequest(Uri uri) { HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest) base.GetWebRequest(uri); request.Headers.Add(this.Headers); return request; } } where TaxService is the name of the .NET generated proxy class. In code you can then call AddHttpHeader() anywhere to add additional headers which are sent as part of the GetWebRequest override. Nice and simple once you know where to hook it. For WCF there’s a bit more work involved by creating a message extension as described here: http://weblogs.asp.net/avnerk/archive/2006/04/26/Adding-custom-headers-to-every-WCF-call-_2D00_-a-solution.aspx. FWIW, I think that HTTP header manipulation should be readily available on any HTTP based Web Service client DIRECTLY without having to subclass or implement a special interface hook. But alas a little extra work is required in .NET to make this happen Not a Common Problem, but when it happens… This has been one of those issues that is really rare, but it’s bitten me on several occasions when dealing with oddball Web services – a couple of times in my own work interacting with various Web Services and a few times on customer projects that required interaction with credentials-first services. Since the servers determine the protocol, we don’t have a choice but to follow the protocol. Lovely following standards that implementers decide to ignore, isn’t it? :-}© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2010Posted in .NET  CSharp  Web Services  

    Read the article

  • Eclipse w/ ADT, Save Failed Illegal Value -1

    - by bgenchel
    I'm trying to save and run my android project in eclipse, but every time I do, I get a pop up with the following message/error: Save Failed, Illegal Value -1. I'm not sure why i'm getting this error; I did just make some changes but none of them were extreme or major and it was working just a bit ago. The worst part is that i'm not receiving any kind of pointer, console or logcat, towards what is causing it. Has anyone experienced this before? If so, what can I do? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Should one replace the usage addJSONData of jqGrid to the usage of setGridParam(), and trigger('relo

    - by Oleg
    Hi everybody who use jqGrid! I am a new on stackoverflow.com and it seems to me that a lot of peoples who use stackoverflow.com are not only the persons who have a problem which must be quickly solved. A lot of people read stackoverflow.com to look at well-known things from the other side. Sometime perhaps the reason is a self-training (to stay in the good form) during solving of problems other people. For all these gays, who not want only to solve his problem is my question. I wrote recently an answer to the question "jqGrid display default “loading” message when updating a table / on custom update". During writing of the answer I thought: why he uses addJSONData() function for refresh of data in the grid instead of changing URL with respect of setGridParam() and refreshing jqGrid data with respect of trigger('reloadGrid')? At the beginning I wanted to recommend using of 'reloadGrid', but after thinking about this I understood, that I am not quite sure what the best way is. At least I can't explain in two sentences why I prefer the second way. So I decide that it could be an interesting subject of a discussion. So to be exactly: We have a typical situation. We have a web page with at least one jqGrid and some other controls like combo-boxes (selects), checkboxes etc. which give user possibilities to change scope on information displayed in a jqGrid. Typically we define some event handler like jQuery("#selector").change(myRefresh).keyup(myKeyRefresh) and we need reload the jqGrid contain based on users choose. After reading and analyzing of the information from additional users input we can refresh jqGrid contain in at least two ways: Make call of $.ajax() manual and then inside of success or complete handle of $.ajax call jQuery.parseJSON() (or eval) and then call addJSONData function of jqGrid. I found a lot of examples on stackoverflow.com who use addJSONData. Update url of jqGrid based on users input, reset current page number to 1 and optionally change the caption of the grid. All these can be done with respect of setGridParam(), and optionally setCaption() jqGrid methods. At the end one call trigger('reloadGrid') method of the grid. To construct the url, by the way I use mostly jQuery.param function to be sure, that I all url parameters packed correctly with respect of encodeURIComponent. I want that we discuss advantages and disadvantages of both ways. I use currently the second way, so I start with advantages of this one. One can say me: I call existing Web Service, convert received data to the jqGrid format and call addJSONData. This is the reason why I use addJSONData method! OK, I choose another way. jqGrid can make a call of the Web Service directly and fill results inside of grid. There are a lot of jqGrid options, which allow you to customize this process. First of all, one can delete or rename any standard parameter sent to server with respect of prmNames option of jqGrid or add any more additional parameters with respect of postData option (see http://www.trirand.com/jqgridwiki/doku.php?id=wiki:options). One can modify all constructed parameters immediately before jqGrid makes corresponding $.ajax request by defining of serializeGridData() function (one more option of jqGrid). More than that, one can change every $.ajax parameter by setting ajaxGridOptions option of jqGrid. I use ajaxGridOptions: {contentType: "application/json"} for example as a general setting of $.jgrid.defaults. The ajaxGridOptions option is very powerful. With respect of ajaxGridOptions option one can redefine any parameter of $.ajax request sending by jqGrid, like error, complete and beforeSend events. I see potentially interesting to define dataFilter event to be able makes any modification of the row data responded from the server. One more argument for using of trigger('reloadGrid') way is blocking of jqGrid during ajax request processing. Mostly I use parameter loadui: 'block' to block jqGrid during JSON request sending to server. With respect of jQuery blockUI plugin http://malsup.com/jquery/block/ one can block more parts of web page as the grid only. To do this one can call jQuery('#main').block({ message: '<h1>Die Daten werden vom Server geladen...</h1>' }); before calling of trigger('reloadGrid') method and jQuery('#main').unblock() inside of loadComplete and loadError functions. The loadui option could be set to 'disable' in this case. So I don’t see why the function addJSONData() should be used. Can somebody who use addJSONData() function explain me advantages of its usage? Should one replace the usage addJSONData of jqGrid to the usage of setGridParam(), and trigger('reloadGrid')? I am opened to the discussion.

    Read the article

  • A valid provisioning profile for this executable was not found

    - by munchine
    I'm trying to debug my first app on the device and got this error message, A valid provisioning profile for this executable was not found. I've gone thru the Apple manuals, checked SO and other sites but cannot work out what I've done wrong? This is what I've done so far. Got my provisioning profile. I check Organizer and it's there, plus it shows that it is installed on my iPhone (green button). My profile is in ~/library/MobileDevice/Provisioning Profiles My certificate is in Keychain Access In Xcode I have have the Project Info showing the Entitlements correctly. The Code Signing Identity matches what's in Keychain. I've set the Target Info to be the same as Project Info. Have I done something inconsistently?

    Read the article

  • makecert gives "Fail to acquire a security provider from the issuer's certificate" - why?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. Observe this simple batch file: makecert -n "CN=MyCA" -sr localmachine -ss root -a sha1 -cy authority -r -sv MyCA.pvk MyCA.cer del MyCA.pvk del MyCA.cer makecert -n "CN=il-mark-lt" -sr localmachine -ss my -cy end -pe -sky exchange -a sha1 -is root -ir localmachine -in MyCA However, the last makecert fails with the following error message: Error: Fail to acquire a security provider from the issuer's certificate How do I troubleshoot it? Any ideas? BTW, the first makecert succeeds. Of course, I delete it again, before running the commands again. Thanks. EDIT1 I understood the reasons for the failure. The second command expects the file MyCA.pvk to exist, but I do not want to keep it around. So, what can I do?

    Read the article

  • FB.ui stream.publish in an iframe application shows a popup instead of an iframe dialog

    - by pasha
    I am trying to show a "share" dialog using the following code, but it is displayed as a new window. This is an iFrame application inside Facebook. Does someone know how to make it show the "share" in a standard FB dialog iframe and not a new window? <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> FB.ui({ method: 'stream.publish', message:'hello world'}); </script>

    Read the article

  • Can't dispatch DDM chunk 46454154: no handler defined - Eclipse - Android SDK

    - by jaywon
    I'm working on a Windows 7, 64 bit machine, and just downloaded and installed the Android SDK and am using Eclipse with Android plugin. I was just going through the "Hello Android" guide here: Hello, Android I also did the suggestions on this page: Droid FAQ Before following the FAQ, the program would compile and run but wouldn't register with the emulator. No code changes, and now I get the following. When I try to run the emulator, I get the following message: [2010-03-05 20:48:41 - HelloAndroid]ActivityManager: Can't dispatch DDM chunk 46454154: no handler defined [2010-03-05 20:48:41 - HelloAndroid]ActivityManager: Can't dispatch DDM chunk 4d505251: no handler defined [2010-03-05 20:48:42 - HelloAndroid]ActivityManager: Starting: Intent { comp={domain.example.helloandroid/domain.example.helloandroid.HelloAndroid} } [2010-03-05 20:48:42 - HelloAndroid]ActivityManager: Warning: Activity not started, its current task has been brought to the front Any suggestions? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • AVD Error: No compatible targets were found. Do you wish to add a new Android Virtual Device?

    - by cdonner
    I must be missing something. Help! My manifest contains: <manifest ...> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="4" android:targetSdkVersion="7" android:maxSdkVersion="10" /> <application ... I have all API packages installed (through 7 - Android 2.1). Whenever I try to run or debug my app in the emulator, reglardless of which version I start, I get the message in the subject line and I have to click on Cancel in order to continue. After that, the device chooser appears: and I can select a device and the app starts up fine in the Emulator. What do the red Xs mean next to the target? When my Nexus One is cradled, I do not get the warning that there is no compatible device. I can live with the extra click, but I am concerned that my up does not properly register the target API level and that this will cause problems once uploaded to the market.

    Read the article

  • Xamarin bundle ID not matching provisioning Profile

    - by user1019042
    I changed my provision profile 'application name' and 'bundle id' and now my xamarin no longer builds successfully and comes back with this message: Project bundle ID '' does not match specified provisioning profile '15729097-407D-4744-9378-53905C00E62B' Build: 1 error, 0 warnings Where is that profile guid stored? I have looked in the info.plist file and there is no mentioning of it. I hav tried cleaning the build and the solution multiple times and restarting of machine. I think if I know where that id is stored, it can give me insights on how to fix it. Your help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • The table/view 'TABLE1' does not have a primary key defined and no valid primary key could be inferr

    - by Nickson
    I get the following error message The table/view 'TABLE1' does not have a primary key defined and no valid primary key could be inferred. This table/view has been excluded. To use the entity you will need to review your schema, add the correct keys and uncomment it when I try to add a view to an Entity Data Model. For testing, I have created a very simple view and I still get the error. below is the view definition SELECT DISTINCT TOP (100) PERCENT MIN(id) AS Expr4, MIN(EmpNo) AS Expr1, MIN(Name) AS Expr2, MIN(Category) AS Expr3 FROM dbo.MYView1 GROUP BY id does any one know of a simple work around. I have looked at this thread http://stackoverflow.com/questions/745341/can-ms-sql-views-have-primary-and-foriegn-keys but in my scenario, what is recommended is not applicable. If I could only have the view added to the Model.

    Read the article

  • .NET WebAPI Serialization k_BackingField Nastiness

    - by Micah
    When i serialize the following: [Serializable] public class Error { public string Status { get; set; } public string Message { get; set; } public string ErrorReferenceCode { get; set; } public List<FriendlyError> Errors { get; set; } } I get this disgusting mess: <ErrorRootOfstring xmlns:i="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/Printmee.Api"> <_x003C_Errors_x003E_k__BackingField> An exception has occurred. Please contact printmee support </_x003C_Errors_x003E_k__BackingField> <_x003C_LookupCode_x003E_k__BackingField>988232ec-6bc9-48f3-8116-7ff7c71302dd</_x003C_LookupCode_x003E_k__BackingField> </ErrorRootOfstring> What gives? How can i make this pretty? JSON responses also contain the k_BackingField

    Read the article

  • Using an alternate JSON Serializer in ASP.NET Web API

    - by Rick Strahl
    The new ASP.NET Web API that Microsoft released alongside MVC 4.0 Beta last week is a great framework for building REST and AJAX APIs. I've been working with it for quite a while now and I really like the way it works and the complete set of features it provides 'in the box'. It's about time that Microsoft gets a decent API for building generic HTTP endpoints into the framework. DataContractJsonSerializer sucks As nice as Web API's overall design is one thing still sucks: The built-in JSON Serialization uses the DataContractJsonSerializer which is just too limiting for many scenarios. The biggest issues I have with it are: No support for untyped values (object, dynamic, Anonymous Types) MS AJAX style Date Formatting Ugly serialization formats for types like Dictionaries To me the most serious issue is dealing with serialization of untyped objects. I have number of applications with AJAX front ends that dynamically reformat data from business objects to fit a specific message format that certain UI components require. The most common scenario I have there are IEnumerable query results from a database with fields from the result set rearranged to fit the sometimes unconventional formats required for the UI components (like jqGrid for example). Creating custom types to fit these messages seems like overkill and projections using Linq makes this much easier to code up. Alas DataContractJsonSerializer doesn't support it. Neither does DataContractSerializer for XML output for that matter. What this means is that you can't do stuff like this in Web API out of the box:public object GetAnonymousType() { return new { name = "Rick", company = "West Wind", entered= DateTime.Now }; } Basically anything that doesn't have an explicit type DataContractJsonSerializer will not let you return. FWIW, the same is true for XmlSerializer which also doesn't work with non-typed values for serialization. The example above is obviously contrived with a hardcoded object graph, but it's not uncommon to get dynamic values returned from queries that have anonymous types for their result projections. Apparently there's a good possibility that Microsoft will ship Json.NET as part of Web API RTM release.  Scott Hanselman confirmed this as a footnote in his JSON Dates post a few days ago. I've heard several other people from Microsoft confirm that Json.NET will be included and be the default JSON serializer, but no details yet in what capacity it will show up. Let's hope it ends up as the default in the box. Meanwhile this post will show you how you can use it today with the beta and get JSON that matches what you should see in the RTM version. What about JsonValue? To be fair Web API DOES include a new JsonValue/JsonObject/JsonArray type that allow you to address some of these scenarios. JsonValue is a new type in the System.Json assembly that can be used to build up an object graph based on a dictionary. It's actually a really cool implementation of a dynamic type that allows you to create an object graph and spit it out to JSON without having to create .NET type first. JsonValue can also receive a JSON string and parse it without having to actually load it into a .NET type (which is something that's been missing in the core framework). This is really useful if you get a JSON result from an arbitrary service and you don't want to explicitly create a mapping type for the data returned. For serialization you can create an object structure on the fly and pass it back as part of an Web API action method like this:public JsonValue GetJsonValue() { dynamic json = new JsonObject(); json.name = "Rick"; json.company = "West Wind"; json.entered = DateTime.Now; dynamic address = new JsonObject(); address.street = "32 Kaiea"; address.zip = "96779"; json.address = address; dynamic phones = new JsonArray(); json.phoneNumbers = phones; dynamic phone = new JsonObject(); phone.type = "Home"; phone.number = "808 123-1233"; phones.Add(phone); phone = new JsonObject(); phone.type = "Home"; phone.number = "808 123-1233"; phones.Add(phone); //var jsonString = json.ToString(); return json; } which produces the following output (formatted here for easier reading):{ name: "rick", company: "West Wind", entered: "2012-03-08T15:33:19.673-10:00", address: { street: "32 Kaiea", zip: "96779" }, phoneNumbers: [ { type: "Home", number: "808 123-1233" }, { type: "Mobile", number: "808 123-1234" }] } If you need to build a simple JSON type on the fly these types work great. But if you have an existing type - or worse a query result/list that's already formatted JsonValue et al. become a pain to work with. As far as I can see there's no way to just throw an object instance at JsonValue and have it convert into JsonValue dictionary. It's a manual process. Using alternate Serializers in Web API So, currently the default serializer in WebAPI is DataContractJsonSeriaizer and I don't like it. You may not either, but luckily you can swap the serializer fairly easily. If you'd rather use the JavaScriptSerializer built into System.Web.Extensions or Json.NET today, it's not too difficult to create a custom MediaTypeFormatter that uses these serializers and can replace or partially replace the native serializer. Here's a MediaTypeFormatter implementation using the ASP.NET JavaScriptSerializer:using System; using System.Net.Http.Formatting; using System.Threading.Tasks; using System.Web.Script.Serialization; using System.Json; using System.IO; namespace Westwind.Web.WebApi { public class JavaScriptSerializerFormatter : MediaTypeFormatter { public JavaScriptSerializerFormatter() { SupportedMediaTypes.Add(new System.Net.Http.Headers.MediaTypeHeaderValue("application/json")); } protected override bool CanWriteType(Type type) { // don't serialize JsonValue structure use default for that if (type == typeof(JsonValue) || type == typeof(JsonObject) || type== typeof(JsonArray) ) return false; return true; } protected override bool CanReadType(Type type) { if (type == typeof(IKeyValueModel)) return false; return true; } protected override System.Threading.Tasks.Taskobject OnReadFromStreamAsync(Type type, System.IO.Stream stream, System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpContentHeaders contentHeaders, FormatterContext formatterContext) { var task = Taskobject.Factory.StartNew(() = { var ser = new JavaScriptSerializer(); string json; using (var sr = new StreamReader(stream)) { json = sr.ReadToEnd(); sr.Close(); } object val = ser.Deserialize(json,type); return val; }); return task; } protected override System.Threading.Tasks.Task OnWriteToStreamAsync(Type type, object value, System.IO.Stream stream, System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpContentHeaders contentHeaders, FormatterContext formatterContext, System.Net.TransportContext transportContext) { var task = Task.Factory.StartNew( () = { var ser = new JavaScriptSerializer(); var json = ser.Serialize(value); byte[] buf = System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(json); stream.Write(buf,0,buf.Length); stream.Flush(); }); return task; } } } Formatter implementation is pretty simple: You override 4 methods to tell which types you can handle and then handle the input or output streams to create/parse the JSON data. Note that when creating output you want to take care to still allow JsonValue/JsonObject/JsonArray types to be handled by the default serializer so those objects serialize properly - if you let either JavaScriptSerializer or JSON.NET handle them they'd try to render the dictionaries which is very undesirable. If you'd rather use Json.NET here's the JSON.NET version of the formatter:// this code requires a reference to JSON.NET in your project #if true using System; using System.Net.Http.Formatting; using System.Threading.Tasks; using System.Web.Script.Serialization; using System.Json; using Newtonsoft.Json; using System.IO; using Newtonsoft.Json.Converters; namespace Westwind.Web.WebApi { public class JsonNetFormatter : MediaTypeFormatter { public JsonNetFormatter() { SupportedMediaTypes.Add(new System.Net.Http.Headers.MediaTypeHeaderValue("application/json")); } protected override bool CanWriteType(Type type) { // don't serialize JsonValue structure use default for that if (type == typeof(JsonValue) || type == typeof(JsonObject) || type == typeof(JsonArray)) return false; return true; } protected override bool CanReadType(Type type) { if (type == typeof(IKeyValueModel)) return false; return true; } protected override System.Threading.Tasks.Taskobject OnReadFromStreamAsync(Type type, System.IO.Stream stream, System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpContentHeaders contentHeaders, FormatterContext formatterContext) { var task = Taskobject.Factory.StartNew(() = { var settings = new JsonSerializerSettings() { NullValueHandling = NullValueHandling.Ignore, }; var sr = new StreamReader(stream); var jreader = new JsonTextReader(sr); var ser = new JsonSerializer(); ser.Converters.Add(new IsoDateTimeConverter()); object val = ser.Deserialize(jreader, type); return val; }); return task; } protected override System.Threading.Tasks.Task OnWriteToStreamAsync(Type type, object value, System.IO.Stream stream, System.Net.Http.Headers.HttpContentHeaders contentHeaders, FormatterContext formatterContext, System.Net.TransportContext transportContext) { var task = Task.Factory.StartNew( () = { var settings = new JsonSerializerSettings() { NullValueHandling = NullValueHandling.Ignore, }; string json = JsonConvert.SerializeObject(value, Formatting.Indented, new JsonConverter[1] { new IsoDateTimeConverter() } ); byte[] buf = System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(json); stream.Write(buf,0,buf.Length); stream.Flush(); }); return task; } } } #endif   One advantage of the Json.NET serializer is that you can specify a few options on how things are formatted and handled. You get null value handling and you can plug in the IsoDateTimeConverter which is nice to product proper ISO dates that I would expect any Json serializer to output these days. Hooking up the Formatters Once you've created the custom formatters you need to enable them for your Web API application. To do this use the GlobalConfiguration.Configuration object and add the formatter to the Formatters collection. Here's what this looks like hooked up from Application_Start in a Web project:protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Action based routing (used for RPC calls) RouteTable.Routes.MapHttpRoute( name: "StockApi", routeTemplate: "stocks/{action}/{symbol}", defaults: new { symbol = RouteParameter.Optional, controller = "StockApi" } ); // WebApi Configuration to hook up formatters and message handlers // optional RegisterApis(GlobalConfiguration.Configuration); } public static void RegisterApis(HttpConfiguration config) { // Add JavaScriptSerializer formatter instead - add at top to make default //config.Formatters.Insert(0, new JavaScriptSerializerFormatter()); // Add Json.net formatter - add at the top so it fires first! // This leaves the old one in place so JsonValue/JsonObject/JsonArray still are handled config.Formatters.Insert(0, new JsonNetFormatter()); } One thing to remember here is the GlobalConfiguration object which is Web API's static configuration instance. I think this thing is seriously misnamed given that GlobalConfiguration could stand for anything and so is hard to discover if you don't know what you're looking for. How about WebApiConfiguration or something more descriptive? Anyway, once you know what it is you can use the Formatters collection to insert your custom formatter. Note that I insert my formatter at the top of the list so it takes precedence over the default formatter. I also am not removing the old formatter because I still want JsonValue/JsonObject/JsonArray to be handled by the default serialization mechanism. Since they process in sequence and I exclude processing for these types JsonValue et al. still get properly serialized/deserialized. Summary Currently DataContractJsonSerializer in Web API is a pain, but at least we have the ability with relatively limited effort to replace the MediaTypeFormatter and plug in our own JSON serializer. This is useful for many scenarios - if you have existing client applications that used MVC JsonResult or ASP.NET AJAX results from ASMX AJAX services you can plug in the JavaScript serializer and get exactly the same serializer you used in the past so your results will be the same and don't potentially break clients. JSON serializers do vary a bit in how they serialize some of the more complex types (like Dictionaries and dates for example) and so if you're migrating it might be helpful to ensure your client code doesn't break when you switch to ASP.NET Web API. Going forward it looks like Microsoft is planning on plugging in Json.Net into Web API and make that the default. I think that's an awesome choice since Json.net has been around forever, is fast and easy to use and provides a ton of functionality as part of this great library. I just wish Microsoft would have figured this out sooner instead of now at the last minute integrating with it especially given that Json.Net has a similar set of lower level JSON objects JsonValue/JsonObject etc. which now will end up being duplicated by the native System.Json stuff. It's not like we don't already have enough confusion regarding which JSON serializer to use (JavaScriptSerializer, DataContractJsonSerializer, JsonValue/JsonObject/JsonArray and now Json.net). For years I've been using my own JSON serializer because the built in choices are both limited. However, with an official encorsement of Json.Net I'm happily moving on to use that in my applications. Let's see and hope Microsoft gets this right before ASP.NET Web API goes gold.© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2012Posted in Web Api  AJAX  ASP.NET   Tweet !function(d,s,id){var js,fjs=d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0];if(!d.getElementById(id)){js=d.createElement(s);js.id=id;js.src="//platform.twitter.com/widgets.js";fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js,fjs);}}(document,"script","twitter-wjs"); (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })();

    Read the article

  • D3.js: "NS_ERROR_DOM_BAD_URI: Access to restricted URI denied"

    - by user2102328
    I have an html-file with several d3-graphs directly written in script tags into it. When I outsource one of the graphs into an external js file I get this message "NS_ERROR_DOM_BAD_URI: Access to restricted URI denied". If I delete the code with d3.json where it reads a local json file the error disappears. But it has to be possible to load a json file in an external js which is embedded into an html, right? d3.json("forcetree.json", function(json) { root = json; update(); });

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2012 crashes everytime I try to debug with error CLR20r3

    - by Chris
    Everytime I try to debug one of my apps I get the below error message. Anyone have any ideas? I tried running Visual Studio in safe mode but I get the same thing. I also tried to repair the install and completely reinstall it with no luck :(. The full Problem Signature is this: Problem signature: Problem Event Name: CLR20r3 Problem Signature 01: devenv.exe Problem Signature 02: 11.0.50727.1 Problem Signature 03: 5011ecaa Problem Signature 04: Microsoft.IntelliTrace.Package.11.0.0 Problem Signature 05: 11.0.50727.1 Problem Signature 06: 5011dad8 Problem Signature 07: 311 Problem Signature 08: 1f1 Problem Signature 09: System.AccessViolationException OS Version: 6.1.7601.2.1.0.256.48 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: 0a9e Additional Information 2: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789 Additional Information 3: 0a9e Additional Information 4: 0a9e372d3b4ad19135b953a78882e789

    Read the article

  • WPF ListView ScrollViewer Double-Click Event

    - by Sentax
    Doing the below will reproduce my problem: New WPF Project Add ListView Name the listview: x:Name="lvList" Add enough ListViewItems to the ListView to fill the list completely so a vertical scroll-bar appears during run-time. Put this code in the lvList.MouseDoubleClick event Debug.Print("Double-Click happened") Run the application Double-click on the LargeChange area of the scroll-bar (Not the scroll "bar" itself) Notice the Immediate window printing the double-click happened message for the ListView How do I change this behavior so MouseDoubleClick only happens when the mouse is "over" the ListViewItems and not when continually clicking the ScrollViewer to scroll down/up in the list?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659  | Next Page >